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Question 1
Incorrect
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Where is the site of action of bendroflumethiazide in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Descending loop of Henle
Correct Answer: Proximal part of the distal convoluted tubules
Explanation:Thiazides and thiazide-like medications, such as indapamide, work by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the start of the distal convoluted tubule, which inhibits the reabsorption of sodium.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension follow-up. He was diagnosed with high blood pressure two months ago and started on ramipril. However, his blood pressure remained uncontrolled, so amlodipine was added to his treatment four weeks ago. Today, his blood pressure reading is 161/91mmHg. You decide to prescribe indapamide, a thiazide diuretic. Can you identify the primary site of action of thiazides in the nephron?
Your Answer: Proximal tubule
Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics, such as indapamide, work by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule, which inhibits sodium reabsorption. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, inhibit Na+/K+ 2Cl- channels in the thick ascending loop of Henle. There are currently no diuretic agents that specifically target the descending limb of the loop of Henle. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors prevent the exchange of luminal Na+ for cellular H+ in both the proximal and distal tubules. Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as amiloride, inhibit the Na+/K+ ATPase in the cortical collecting ducts either directly or by blocking aldosterone receptors, as seen in spironolactone.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is accountable for the swift depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer: Rapid sodium influx
Explanation:Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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With respect to the basilic vein, which statement is not true?
Your Answer: It travels up the medial aspect of the forearm
Correct Answer: Its deep anatomical location makes it unsuitable for use as an arteriovenous access site in fistula surgery
Explanation:A basilic vein transposition is a surgical procedure that utilizes it during arteriovenous fistula surgery.
The Basilic Vein: A Major Pathway of Venous Drainage for the Arm and Hand
The basilic vein is one of the two main pathways of venous drainage for the arm and hand, alongside the cephalic vein. It begins on the medial side of the dorsal venous network of the hand and travels up the forearm and arm. Most of its course is superficial, but it passes deep under the muscles midway up the humerus. Near the region anterior to the cubital fossa, the basilic vein joins the cephalic vein.
At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into the basilic vein. It is often joined by the medial brachial vein before draining into the axillary vein. The basilic vein is continuous with the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. Understanding the path and function of the basilic vein is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating conditions related to venous drainage in the arm and hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery may affect the blood supply to which of the following structures, except for:
Your Answer: Medial surface of the frontal lobe
Correct Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 79-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing severe dizziness, vertigo, slurred speech, and nausea with vomiting. The diagnosis reveals a basilar artery stroke. Which blood vessels combine to form the affected artery?
Your Answer: Vertebral arteries
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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During a routine visit, a 76-year-old man with a history of stable angina informs his GP about his recent hospitalization due to decompensated heart failure. The hospital staff had taken a brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level which was found to be significantly elevated. He was treated with intravenous furosemide and responded positively. What are the cardiovascular impacts of BNP?
Your Answer: Increases afterload only
Correct Answer: Decreases preload and afterload
Explanation:Brain natriuretic peptide is a peptide that is secreted by the myocardium in response to excessive stretching, typically seen in cases of heart failure. Its primary physiological roles include reducing systemic vascular resistance, thereby decreasing afterload, and increasing natriuresis and diuresis. This increased diuresis results in a decrease in venous blood volume, leading to a reduction in preload. The BNP level can be a valuable diagnostic tool for heart failure and may also serve as a prognostic indicator.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are attending a cardiology clinic one morning. A 54-year-old man presents for a medication review. He is currently taking a beta-blocker but is still frequently symptomatic. From his medication history, it is evident that he does not tolerate calcium channel blockers.
The consultant considers the option of starting him on a new drug called nicorandil. The patient is hesitant to try it out as he believes it is a calcium channel blocker. You have been asked to explain the mechanism of action of nicorandil to this patient.
What is the way in which the new drug exerts its effect?Your Answer: Causes vasodilation by inhibiting guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP
Correct Answer: Causes vasodilation by activating guanylyl cyclase which causes an increase in cGMP
Explanation:Nicorandil induces vasodilation by activating guanylyl cyclase, leading to an increase in cyclic GMP. This results in the relaxation of vascular smooth muscles through the prevention of calcium ion influx and dephosphorylation of myosin light chains. Additionally, nicorandil activates ATP-sensitive potassium channels, causing hyperpolarization and preventing intracellular calcium overload, which plays a cardioprotective role.
Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male patient with AF, who is on appropriate medication for rate control, is admitted with dig toxicity after receiving antibiotics for a UTI. What ECG finding is most probable?
Your Answer: Delta wave
Correct Answer: Reverse tick abnormality
Explanation:Dig Toxicity and its Treatment
Dig Toxicity can occur as a result of taking antibiotics that inhibit enzymes, especially if the prescribing physician does not take this into account. One of the most common signs of dig toxicity is the reverse tick abnormality, which can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG).
To treat dig toxicity, it is important to first address any electrolyte imbalances that may be present. In more severe cases, a monoclonal antibody called digibind may be administered to help alleviate symptoms. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for dig toxicity and to take appropriate measures to prevent and treat it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of palpitations and dizziness. He has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past week and has also been suffering from muscle weakness and cramps for the last three days. The possibility of hypokalaemia is suspected, and an ECG is ordered. What ECG sign is indicative of hypokalaemia?
Your Answer: ST-segment elevation
Correct Answer: Small or inverted T waves
Explanation:Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a syncopal episode. He is currently stable and reports no warning signs prior to the episode. He has had a few similar episodes in the past but did not seek medical attention. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that his father and uncle both died suddenly from heart attacks at ages 45 and 42, respectively. An ECG reveals coved ST segment elevation in V1 and V2 leads, followed by a negative T wave. What is the definitive treatment for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator
Explanation:The most effective management for Brugada syndrome is the implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator, as per the NICE guidelines. This is the recommended treatment for patients with the condition, as evidenced by this man’s ECG findings, syncopal episodes, and family history of sudden cardiac deaths.
While class I antiarrhythmic drugs like flecainide and procainamide may be used in clinical settings to diagnose Brugada syndrome, they should be avoided in patients with the condition as they can transiently induce the ECG features of the syndrome.
Quinidine, another class I antiarrhythmic drug, has shown some benefits in preventing and treating tachyarrhythmias in small studies of patients with Brugada syndrome. However, it is not a definitive treatment and has not been shown to reduce the rate of sudden cardiac deaths in those with the condition.
Amiodarone is typically used in life-threatening situations to stop ventricular tachyarrhythmias. However, due to its unfavorable side effect profile, it is not recommended for long-term use, especially in younger patients who may require it for decades.
Understanding Brugada Syndrome
Brugada syndrome is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death. It is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner and is more prevalent in Asians, with an estimated occurrence of 1 in 5,000-10,000 individuals. The condition has a variety of genetic variants, but around 20-40% of cases are caused by a mutation in the SCN5A gene, which encodes the myocardial sodium ion channel protein.
One of the key diagnostic features of Brugada syndrome is the presence of convex ST segment elevation greater than 2mm in more than one of the V1-V3 leads, followed by a negative T wave and partial right bundle branch block. These ECG changes may become more apparent after the administration of flecainide or ajmaline, which are the preferred diagnostic tests for suspected cases of Brugada syndrome.
The management of Brugada syndrome typically involves the implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator to prevent sudden cardiac death. It is important for individuals with Brugada syndrome to receive regular medical monitoring and genetic counseling to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 30-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath, weight loss, and night sweats for the past six weeks. Despite being generally healthy, he has been experiencing these symptoms. During the examination, the patient's fingers show clubbing, and his temperature is 37.8°C. His pulse is 88 bpm, and his blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. A pansystolic murmur is audible upon auscultation of the heart. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Young Man with Night Sweats and Clubbing of Fingers
This young man has been experiencing night sweats and has clubbing of the fingers, which suggests a long history of illness. These symptoms, along with the presence of a murmur, point towards a possible diagnosis of infective endocarditis. Other symptoms that may be present in such cases include splinter haemorrhages in the nails, Roth spots in the eyes, and Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions in the palms and fingers of the hands.
In summary, the combination of night sweats, clubbing of fingers, and a murmur in a young man may indicate infective endocarditis. It is important to look for other symptoms such as splinter haemorrhages, Roth spots, Osler’s nodes, and Janeway lesions to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female complains of fatigue and occasional palpitations. During one of these episodes, an ECG shows atrial fibrillation that resolves within half an hour. What would be the most suitable subsequent investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: 24 hour ECG monitoring
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Diagnosis and Potential Causes of Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation
Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate the function of the left ventricle and valves, which would typically be performed by a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be necessary.
Conversely, a full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid profile would not be useful in determining the nature of AF or its potential treatment. It is essential to consider the various causes of AF to determine the most effective course of treatment. The sources cited in this article provide further information on the diagnosis and management of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male complains of intense pain in the center of his abdomen that extends to his back and is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender and guarded, and his pulse is 106 bpm while his blood pressure is 120/82 mmHg. What diagnostic test would be beneficial in this case?
Your Answer: Glucose
Correct Answer: Amylase
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Severity Assessment for Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the most useful diagnostic tests for this condition is the measurement of amylase levels in the blood. In patients with acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated, often reaching three times the upper limit of normal. Other blood parameters, such as troponin T, are not specific to pancreatitis and may be used to diagnose other medical conditions.
To assess the severity of acute pancreatitis, healthcare providers may use the Modified Glasgow Criteria, which is a mnemonic tool that helps to evaluate various clinical parameters. These parameters include PaO2, age, neutrophil count, calcium levels, renal function, enzymes such as LDH and AST, albumin levels, and blood sugar levels. Depending on the severity of these parameters, patients may be classified as having mild, moderate, or severe acute pancreatitis.
In summary, the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis relies on the measurement of amylase levels in the blood, while the severity of the condition can be assessed using the Modified Glasgow Criteria. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male with a history of hypertension for six years presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that radiates to his back, which he describes as tearing in nature. He is currently experiencing tachycardia and hypertension, with a blood pressure reading of 185/95 mmHg. A soft early diastolic murmur is also noted. The ECG shows ST elevation of 2 mm in the inferior leads, and a small left-sided pleural effusion is visible on chest x-ray. Based on the patient's clinical history, what is the initial diagnosis that needs to be ruled out?
Your Answer: Anterior myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Aortic Dissection in a Hypertensive Patient
This patient is experiencing an aortic dissection, which is a serious medical condition. The patient’s hypertension is a contributing factor, and the pain they are experiencing is typical for this condition. One of the key features of aortic dissection is radiation of pain to the back. Upon examination, the patient also exhibits hypertension, aortic regurgitation, and pleural effusion, which are all consistent with this diagnosis. The ECG changes in the inferior lead are likely due to the aortic dissection compromising the right coronary artery. To properly diagnose and treat this patient, it is crucial to thoroughly evaluate their peripheral pulses and urgently perform imaging of the aorta. Proper and timely medical intervention is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What changes occur in the newborn after delivery?
Your Answer: The first few breaths force lung fluid into the fetal alveoli
Correct Answer: The ductus arteriosus closes
Explanation:Within a few hours of birth, the foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, and umbilical vessels all close. The foramen ovale, which allows blood to bypass the lungs by shunting from the right atrium to the left atrium, closes as the lungs become functional and the left atrial pressure exceeds the right atrial pressure. The ductus arteriosus, which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, also closes to form the ligamentum arteriosum, allowing blood to circulate into the pulmonary artery and become oxygenated. After a few days, Haemoglobin F is replaced by Haemoglobin A, which has a lower affinity for oxygen and may cause physiological jaundice in the newborn due to the breakdown of fetal blood cells. The first few breaths help to expel lung fluid from the fetal alveoli. If the ductus arteriosus fails to close, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can lead to serious health complications such as pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, and arrhythmias.
During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits the diabetic foot clinic and has his foot pulses checked. During the examination, the healthcare provider palpates the posterior tibial pulse and the dorsalis pedis pulse. What artery does the dorsalis pedis artery continue from?
Your Answer: Tibioperoneal trunk
Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery
Explanation:The dorsalis pedis artery in the foot is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery.
At the level of the pelvis, the common iliac artery gives rise to the external iliac artery.
The lateral compartment of the leg is supplied by the peroneal artery, also known as the fibular artery.
A branch of the popliteal artery is the tibioperoneal trunk.
The anterior tibial artery is formed by the popliteal artery.
The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked you, a foundation doctor on the surgical ward, with explaining the procedure to him. You are aware that the bypass will involve using the left internal thoracic artery to supply the affected coronary vessel. Can you identify the artery from which the left internal thoracic artery arises?
Your Answer: Left axillary artery
Correct Answer: Left subclavian artery
Explanation:The left internal thoracic artery originates from the left subclavian artery near its source and runs down the chest wall beneath the ribs to supply blood to the front of the chest and breasts. During coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), the proximal portion of the ITA is preserved while the distal end is grafted beyond the atherosclerotic segment of the affected coronary vessel to restore blood flow to the heart.
The left axillary artery is a continuation of the left subclavian artery and is referred to as the axillary artery beyond the lateral border of the first rib. It becomes the brachial artery after passing the lower border of the teres major muscle.
The left common carotid artery emerges from the aortic arch and divides into the internal and external carotid arteries at the fourth cervical vertebrae.
The aortic arch is a continuation of the ascending aorta and branches off into the right brachiocephalic trunk, the left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery before continuing as the descending aorta.
The thyrocervical trunk, which arises from the subclavian artery, is a brief vessel that gives rise to four branches: the inferior thyroid artery, suprascapular artery, ascending cervical artery, and transverse cervical artery.
Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)
Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure commonly used to treat coronary artery disease. The procedure involves using multiple grafts, with the internal mammary artery being increasingly used instead of the saphenous vein due to its lower likelihood of narrowing. The surgery requires the use of a heart-lung bypass machine and systemic anticoagulation. Suitability for the procedure is determined by cardiac catheterisation or angiography. The surgery is carried out under general anaesthesia, and patients typically stay in the hospital for 7-10 days, with a return to work within 3 months.
Complications of CABG include atrial fibrillation (30-40% of cases, usually self-limiting) and stroke (2%). However, the prognosis for the procedure is generally positive, with 90% of operations being successful. Further revascularisation may be needed in 5-10% of cases after 5 years, but the mortality rate is low, at 1-2% at 30 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Correct
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Which one of the following statements relating to the basilar artery and its branches is false?
Your Answer: The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest of the cerebellar arteries arising from the basilar artery
Explanation:The largest of the cerebellar arteries that originates from the vertebral artery is the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. The labyrinthine artery, which is thin and lengthy, may emerge from the lower section of the basilar artery. It travels alongside the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves into the internal auditory meatus. The posterior cerebral artery is frequently bigger than the superior cerebellar artery and is separated from the vessel, close to its source, by the oculomotor nerve. Arterial decompression is a widely accepted treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of increased urinary frequency and lower abdominal pain. She has a medical history of hypertension that is managed with a high dose of ramipril.
Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the results indicate a urinary tract infection. You prescribe a 5-day course of trimethoprim.
What blood test will require monitoring in this patient?Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Explanation:Patients taking ACE-inhibitors should be cautious when using trimethoprim as it can lead to life-threatening hyperkalaemia, which may result in sudden death. Therefore, it is essential to monitor the potassium levels regularly by conducting urea and electrolyte tests.
When using trimethoprim with methotrexate, it is crucial to monitor the complete blood count regularly due to the increased risk of myelosuppression. However, if the patient is only taking trimethoprim, there is no need to monitor troponins and creatine kinase.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old female is referred to the cardiologist by her GP due to experiencing postural dyspnoea and leg oedema for a few months. The cardiologist conducts an echocardiogram and finds out that her left ventricular ejection fraction is 34%. Based on her clinical presentation, she is diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure.
To alleviate her symptoms and improve her long-term prognosis, the patient is prescribed several medications. However, she visits the GP after two weeks, complaining of a dry, tickling cough that she attributes to one of her new medications.
Which medication is most likely causing this new symptom in the patient?Your Answer: Ramipril (ACE inhibitor)
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with complaints of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, shortness of breath on exertion, and orthopnoea. During physical examination, bilateral pitting oedema and malar flush are observed. On auscultation, bibasal crepitations and a grade IV/VI mid-diastolic rumbling murmur following an opening snap are heard, loudest in the left 5th intercostal space midclavicular line with radiation to the axilla.
The patient is stabilized and scheduled for echocardiography to confirm the underlying pathology. Additionally, Swan-Ganz catheterization is performed to measure the mean pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). What are the most likely findings?Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation, normal PCWP
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis, raised PCWP
Explanation:Mitral stenosis results in an elevation of left atrial pressure, which in turn causes an increase in pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). This is a typical manifestation of acute heart failure associated with mitral stenosis, which is commonly caused by rheumatic fever. PCWP serves as an indirect indicator of left atrial pressure, with a normal range of 6-12 mmHg. However, in the presence of mitral stenosis, left atrial pressure is elevated, leading to an increase in PCWP.
Understanding Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is a measurement taken using a Swan-Ganz catheter with a balloon tip that is inserted into the pulmonary artery. The pressure measured is similar to that of the left atrium, which is typically between 6-12 mmHg. The primary purpose of measuring PCWP is to determine whether pulmonary edema is caused by heart failure or acute respiratory distress syndrome.
In modern intensive care units, non-invasive techniques have replaced PCWP measurement. However, it remains an important diagnostic tool in certain situations. By measuring the pressure in the pulmonary artery, doctors can determine whether the left side of the heart is functioning properly or if there is a problem with the lungs. This information can help guide treatment decisions and improve patient outcomes. Overall, understanding PCWP is an important aspect of managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 73-year-old woman, is currently admitted to the medical ward after experiencing chest pain. A recent blood test revealed low levels of potassium. The doctors explained that potassium plays a crucial role in the normal functioning of the heart and any changes in its concentration can affect the heart's ability to contract and relax properly.
How does potassium contribute to a normal cardiac action potential?Your Answer: This electrolyte has no direct role in the normal cardiac action potential
Correct Answer: A slow influx of the electrolyte causes a plateau in the myocardial action potential
Explanation:Calcium causes a plateau in the cardiac action potential, prolonging contraction and reflected in the ST-segment of an ECG. A low concentration of calcium ions can result in a prolonged QT-segment. Sodium ions cause depolarisation, potassium ions cause repolarisation, and their movement maintains the resting potential. Calcium ions also bind to troponin-C to trigger muscle contraction.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 63-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain that feels like crushing. He is sweating heavily and feels nauseous. Upon conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in multiple chest leads and sinus bradycardia. It is known that myocardial infarction can cause sinus bradycardia. Can you identify the arterial vessel that typically supplies blood to both the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries, which branch off from the aorta. The right coronary artery supplies blood to the right side of the heart, while the left coronary artery supplies blood to the left side of the heart.
Occlusion, or blockage, of the right coronary artery can cause inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which is indicated on an electrocardiogram (ECG) by changes in leads II, III, and aVF. This type of MI is particularly associated with arrhythmias because the right coronary artery usually supplies the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes.
The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is one of the two branches of the left coronary artery. It runs along the front of the heart’s interventricular septum to reach the apex of the heart. One or more diagonal branches may arise from the LAD. Occlusion of the LAD can cause anteroseptal MI, which is evident on an ECG with changes in leads V1-V4.
The right marginal artery branches off from the right coronary artery near the bottom of the heart and continues along the heart’s bottom edge towards the apex.
The left circumflex artery is the other branch of the left coronary artery. It runs in the coronary sulcus around the base of the heart and gives rise to the left marginal artery. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery is typically associated with lateral MI.
The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery and runs along the heart’s obtuse margin.
The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a sudden and severe headache, describing it as the worst she has ever experienced. She has a medical history of hypertension and polycystic kidney disease (PKD). The emergency physician diagnoses a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which is a common complication of her PKD.
What is the gold standard investigation for intracranial vascular disease?Your Answer: Non-contrast CT of the head
Correct Answer: Cerebral angiography
Explanation:The gold standard investigation for intracranial vascular disease is cerebral angiography, which can diagnose intracranial aneurysms and other vascular diseases by visualizing arteries and veins using contrast dye injected into the bloodstream. This technique can also create 3-D reconstructed images that allow for a comprehensive view of the cerebral vessels and accompanying pathology from all angles.
Individuals with PKD are at an increased risk of cerebral aneurysms, which can lead to subarachnoid hemorrhages.
Flow-Sensitive MRI (FS MRI) is a useful tool that combines functional MRI with images of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow. It can aid in planning the surgical removal of skull base tumors, spinal cord tumors, or tumors causing hydrocephalus.
While contrast and non-contrast CT scans are commonly used as the first line of investigation for intracranial lesions, they are not the gold standard and are superseded by cerebral angiography.
Understanding Cerebral Blood Flow and Angiography
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by the central nervous system, which can adjust its own blood supply. Various factors can affect cerebral pressure, including CNS metabolism, trauma, pressure, and systemic carbon dioxide levels. The most potent mediator is PaCO2, while acidosis and hypoxemia can also increase cerebral blood flow to a lesser degree. In patients with head injuries, increased intracranial pressure can impair blood flow. The Monro-Kelly Doctrine governs intracerebral pressure, which considers the brain as a closed box, and changes in pressure are offset by the loss of cerebrospinal fluid. However, when this is no longer possible, intracranial pressure rises.
Cerebral angiography is an invasive test that involves injecting contrast media into the carotid artery using a catheter. Radiographs are taken as the dye works its way through the cerebral circulation. This test can be used to identify bleeding aneurysms, vasospasm, and arteriovenous malformations, as well as differentiate embolism from large artery thrombosis. Understanding cerebral blood flow and angiography is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits the clinic for his regular blood work. The GP requests the medical student to perform venepuncture and obtain blood samples. The student seizes this chance to brush up on their knowledge of vascular anatomy. They plan to draw blood from the median cubital vein located in the antecubital fossa. While aware that the median cubital vein is linked to the cephalic vein, they cannot recall the name of the other vein it connects to. Can you identify the other vein?
Your Answer: Basilic vein
Explanation:The upper limb has both superficial and deep veins. Among the superficial veins are the cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins. The median cubital vein, which connects the cephalic and basilic veins, is situated in the antecubital fossa and is the preferred site for venepuncture because it is easy to locate and access. However, deep veins like the brachial, ulnar, and radial veins are not suitable for venepuncture as they are located beneath the deep fascia.
The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections
The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.
After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.
Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible over the aortic region. The patient also reports experiencing dyspnoea and angina. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Differentiating Aortic Stenosis from Other Cardiac Conditions
Aortic stenosis is a common cardiac condition that can be identified through auscultation. However, it is important to differentiate it from other conditions such as aortic sclerosis, HOCM, pulmonary stenosis, and aortic regurgitation. While aortic sclerosis may also present with an ejection systolic murmur, it is typically asymptomatic. The presence of dyspnoea, angina, or syncope would suggest a diagnosis of aortic stenosis instead. HOCM would not typically cause these symptoms, and pulmonary stenosis would not be associated with a murmur at the location of the aortic valve. Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, would present with a wide pulse pressure and an early diastolic murmur. Therefore, careful consideration of symptoms and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate between these cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Correct
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A 55-year-old male complains of central chest pain. During examination, a mitral regurgitation murmur is detected. An ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1 to V6, but no ST elevation is observed in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior myocardial infarct
Explanation:An anterior MI is the most probable diagnosis, given the absence of ST changes in the inferior leads. Aortic dissection is therefore less probable.
The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of aortic stenosis presents with anaemia. Is there a rare association with aortic stenosis that could explain the anaemia in this patient? This is particularly relevant for elderly patients.
Your Answer: Epistaxis
Correct Answer: Angiodysplasia
Explanation:Aortic Stenosis and Angiodysplasia: A Possible Association
There have been numerous reports suggesting a possible link between aortic stenosis and angiodysplasia, which can result in blood loss and anemia. The exact mechanism behind this association is not yet fully understood. However, it is worth noting that replacing the stenotic valve often leads to the resolution of gastrointestinal blood loss. This finding highlights the importance of early detection and management of aortic stenosis, as it may prevent the development of angiodysplasia and its associated complications. Further research is needed to fully elucidate the relationship between these two conditions and to identify potential therapeutic targets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Correct
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A routine ECG is performed on a 24-year-old man. Which segment of the tracing obtained indicates the repolarization of the atria?
Your Answer: None of the above
Explanation:During the QRS complex, the process of atrial repolarisation is typically not discernible on the ECG strip.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of chest pain that has been present for a week. The pain worsens when he breathes in and is relieved when he sits forward. He also has a non-productive cough. He recently had a viral infection. An ECG was performed and showed global saddle-shaped ST elevation.
Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Acute pericarditis
Explanation:Chest pain that is relieved by sitting or leaning forward is often a symptom of acute pericarditis. This condition is commonly caused by a viral infection and may also present with flu-like symptoms, non-productive cough, and dyspnea. ECG changes may show a saddle-shaped ST elevation.
Cardiac tamponade, on the other hand, is characterized by Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds. Dyspnea and tachycardia may also be present.
A myocardial infarction is unlikely if the chest pain has been present for a week, as it typically presents more acutely and with constant chest pain regardless of body positioning. ECG changes would also occur in specific territories rather than globally.
A pneumothorax presents with sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, and sweating. No ECG changes would be observed.
A pulmonary embolism typically presents with acute onset tachypnea, fever, tachycardia, and crackles. Signs of deep vein thrombosis may also be present.
Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management
Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.
The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.
Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.
Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.
In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 32
Incorrect
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As a medical student in general practice, you come across a patient with poorly controlled hypertension. The decision is made to initiate Bendroflumethiazide therapy. What could be a possible contraindication for starting this medication?
Your Answer: Allergy to Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Gout may be a potential side effect of thiazides.
It is important to note that spironolactone and bendroflumethiazide belong to different drug classes, so being allergic to one does not necessarily mean the other cannot be prescribed.
Bendroflumethiazide is a type of diuretic that causes the body to lose potassium, so it may actually be prescribed in cases of refractory hyperkalemia rather than being avoided.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started 3 weeks ago and is localised to the back of the head. He rates it 8/10 on a pain scale and reports that it has gradually become worse. The patient has a medical history of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
Unfortunately, the patient passes away after suffering a brainstem stroke.
During the autopsy, a vertebral artery dissection is discovered at the point of entry into the cranial cavity.
Where is this location?Your Answer: Foramen ovale
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity.
Other foramina and their corresponding arteries include the stylomastoid foramen for the posterior auricular artery (stylomastoid branch), the foramen ovale for the accessory meningeal artery, and the foramen spinosum for the middle meningeal artery.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female is brought to the Emergency department with a severe crushing chest pain that was alleviated by sublingual GTN. The medical team diagnoses her with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). What test can distinguish between unstable angina and non-ST elevation MI (NSTEMI), both of which are types of ACS?
Your Answer: Chest radiograph
Correct Answer: Troponin level
Explanation:Acute Coronary Syndrome
Acute coronary syndrome is a term used to describe a range of conditions that affect the heart, including unstable angina, non-ST elevation MI (NSTEMI), and ST elevation MI (STEMI). The detection of raised cardiac enzymes is the definitive test in distinguishing between NSTEMI and unstable angina. If the enzymes are raised, it indicates myocardial tissue infarction, which is present in NSTEMI but not in unstable angina. Clinical history and exercise ECG testing are also important in distinguishing between these conditions. It is important to understand the differences between these conditions in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male university student presents to the emergency department with lightheadedness and a fall an hour earlier, associated with loss of consciousness. He admits to being short of breath on exertion with chest pain for several months. The patient denies vomiting or haemoptysis. The symptoms are not exacerbated or relieved by any positional changes or during phases of respiration.
He has no relevant past medical history, is not on any regular medications, and has no documented drug allergies. There is no relevant family history. He is a non-smoker and drinks nine unite of alcohol a week. He denies any recent travel or drug use.
On examination, the patient appears to be comfortable at rest. His heart rate is 68/min, blood pressure 112/84 mmHg, oxygen saturation 99% on air, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, temperature 36.7ºC.
An ejection systolic murmur is audible throughout the praecordium, loudest over the sternum bilaterally. No heaves or thrills are palpable, and there are no radiations. The murmur gets louder when the patient is asked to perform the Valsalva manoeuvre. The murmur is noted as grade II. Lung fields are clear on auscultation. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with bowel sounds present. His body mass index is 20 kg/m².
His ECG taken on admission reveals sinus rhythm, with generalised deep Q waves and widespread T waves. There is evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and findings suggest the possibility of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which is characterized by exertional dyspnea, chest pain, syncope, and ejection systolic murmur that is louder during Valsalva maneuver and quieter during squatting. The ECG changes observed are also consistent with HOCM. Given the patient’s young age, it is crucial to rule out this diagnosis as HOCM is a leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals.
Brugada syndrome, an autosomal dominant cause of sudden cardiac death in young people, may also present with unexplained falls. However, the absence of a family history of cardiac disease and the unlikely association with the murmur and ECG changes described make this diagnosis less likely. It is important to note that performing Valsalva maneuver in a patient with Brugada syndrome can be life-threatening due to the risk of arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation.
Chagas disease, a parasitic disease prevalent in South America, is caused by an insect bite and has a long dormant period before causing ventricular damage. However, the patient’s age and absence of exposure to the disease make this diagnosis less likely.
Myocardial infarction can cause central chest pain and ECG changes, but it is rare for it to present with falls. Moreover, the ECG changes observed are not typical of myocardial infarction. The patient’s young age and lack of cardiac risk factors also make this diagnosis less likely.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of exertional dyspnea and is diagnosed with heart failure. Afterload-induced increases can lead to systolic dysfunction in heart failure.
What factors worsen his condition by increasing afterload?Your Answer: Increased venous return
Correct Answer: Ventricular dilatation
Explanation:Ventricular dilation can increase afterload, which is the resistance the heart must overcome during contraction. Afterload is often measured as ventricular wall stress, which is influenced by ventricular pressure, radius, and wall thickness. As the ventricle dilates, the radius increases, leading to an increase in wall stress and afterload. This can eventually lead to heart failure if the heart is unable to compensate. Conversely, decreased systemic vascular resistance and hypotension can decrease afterload, while increased venous return can increase preload. Mitral valve stenosis, on the other hand, can decrease preload.
The stroke volume refers to the amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricle during each cycle of cardiac contraction. This volume is usually the same for both ventricles and is approximately 70ml for a man weighing 70Kg. To calculate the stroke volume, the end systolic volume is subtracted from the end diastolic volume. Several factors can affect the stroke volume, including the size of the heart, its contractility, preload, and afterload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a day case procedure. The surgery proves to be more challenging than expected, and a drain is inserted at the surgical site. During recovery, the patient experiences a significant loss of 1800ml of visible blood into the drain. Which of the following outcomes is not expected?
Your Answer: Decreased stimulation from atrial pressure receptors
Correct Answer: Release of aldosterone via the Bainbridge reflex
Explanation:The Bainbridge reflex is a response where the heart rate is elevated due to the activation of atrial stretch receptors following a sudden infusion of blood.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of swollen ankles and difficulty walking. She has previously experienced fluid retention due to her heart failure. During the examination, soft heart sounds are heard and pitting edema is observed in both lower limbs up to 15 cm above the ankles. The decision is made to increase her daily furosemide dose from 40mg to 80 mg. Which part of the nephron does furosemide target?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Explanation:Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It is commonly used to treat fluid retention in patients with heart failure. Other diuretic agents work on different parts of the nephron, such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors in the proximal and distal tubules, thiazide diuretics in the distal convoluted tubule, and potassium-sparing diuretics like amiloride and spironolactone in the cortical collecting ducts. Understanding the mechanism of action of diuretics can help clinicians choose the most appropriate medication for their patients.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag sepsis, possibly originating from the urinary tract. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is recorded as 90/60mmHg, and he exhibits cool, mottled skin peripherally. To increase his preload and stroke volume, a fluid bolus is administered. What other physiological parameter is likely to be observed?
Your Answer: Decreased mean arterial pressure
Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure
Explanation:When stroke volume increases, pulse pressure also increases. This is important to consider in the management of shock, where intravenous fluids can increase preload and stroke volume. Factors that affect stroke volume include preload, cardiac contractility, and afterload. Pulse pressure can be calculated by subtracting diastolic blood pressure from systolic blood pressure.
Decreased cardiac output is not a result of increased stroke volume, as cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to an increase in cardiac output.
Similarly, decreased mean arterial pressure is not a result of increased stroke volume, as mean arterial pressure is calculated by multiplying cardiac output by total peripheral resistance. An increase in stroke volume would lead to an increase in mean arterial pressure.
Lastly, increased heart rate is not a direct result of increased stroke volume, as heart rate is calculated by dividing cardiac output by stroke volume. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to a decrease in heart rate.
Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old is suffering from tonsillitis and experiencing significant pain. Which nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the tonsillar fossa?
Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The tonsillar fossa is primarily innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve, with a smaller contribution from the lesser palatine nerve. As a result, patients may experience ear pain (otalgia) after undergoing a tonsillectomy.
Tonsil Anatomy and Tonsillitis
The tonsils are located in the pharynx and have two surfaces, a medial and lateral surface. They vary in size and are usually supplied by the tonsillar artery and drained by the jugulodigastric and deep cervical nodes. Tonsillitis is a common condition that is usually caused by bacteria, with group A Streptococcus being the most common culprit. It can also be caused by viruses. In some cases, tonsillitis can lead to the development of an abscess, which can distort the uvula. Tonsillectomy is recommended for patients with recurrent acute tonsillitis, suspected malignancy, or enlargement causing sleep apnea. The preferred technique for tonsillectomy is dissection, but it can be complicated by hemorrhage, which is the most common complication. Delayed otalgia may also occur due to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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