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  • Question 1 - You suspect your classmate is being bullied by their teacher. They look miserable...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect your classmate is being bullied by their teacher. They look miserable all the time and whenever their teacher is around they freeze and look tearful.
      Which is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Report your colleague’s consultant to the deanery

      Correct Answer: Speak to your colleague in private and ask if everything is OK

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions to Take When Concerned About a Colleague’s Treatment by a Senior

      When you suspect that a colleague is being mistreated by a senior, it is important to take appropriate actions. Confronting the consultant or threatening your colleague is not the right approach. Instead, the first step should be to speak to your colleague in private and ask if everything is okay. This will help you understand the situation better and avoid jumping to conclusions. Reporting the consultant to the deanery without evidence or threatening your colleague to report their consultant is unprofessional and could cause more harm than good. Ignoring the situation is also not advisable. It is important to address any concerns about mistreatment in the workplace and support your colleagues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      43022.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the mechanism of action of teriparatide in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of teriparatide in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of the RANK ligand (RANKL)

      Correct Answer: Enhance osteoblast activity

      Explanation:

      The Role of Parathyroid Hormone in Calcium Regulation and Bone Health

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s calcium levels and bone health. It facilitates the absorption of calcium from the gut, reabsorption of calcium from the renal tubule, and bone resorption through osteoclastic activity. However, chronically high levels of PTH can lead to rapid bone resorption and osteoporosis in conditions like primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Interestingly, short bursts of high-concentration PTH treatment can stimulate osteoblast activity more than osteoclast activity, promoting bone formation. Teriparatide, a medication that mimics PTH, is a second- or third-line treatment for osteoporosis. While it is more expensive than bisphosphonates, it may be a suitable option for patients who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates or have recurrent fractures despite treatment.

      Overall, PTH is a vital hormone in regulating calcium levels and maintaining bone health. While high levels of PTH can be detrimental to bone health, short bursts of PTH treatment can promote bone formation. Teriparatide is a potential treatment option for osteoporosis in select patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of worsening joint pains and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of worsening joint pains and fever over the past 3 weeks. The fever occurs every evening and can reach up to 39.5ºC but subsides by the morning. He experiences pain and swelling in his shoulders, wrists, and metacarpophalangeal joints that aggravates with the fever. Although his girlfriend has noticed a salmon-pink rash on his back, no rash is visible during examination. He also reports a persistent sore throat. He denies any weight loss or night sweats and has no significant medical history. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Still's disease

      Explanation:

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old man with a history of dementia was admitted to your medical...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man with a history of dementia was admitted to your medical ward from a nursing home in Scotland a week ago. A swallow assessment was performed after the patient was noticed to have difficulty eating and drinking; which concluded that the patient was at high risk of aspiration. The care team therefore wish to make him nil by mouth and start intravenous (IV) fluids. You have explained the situation to him and asked for his consent, which he refused. You are not content that he has fully understood the gravity of the situation, as a result of his dementia. You note that the patient does not have a welfare attorney or guardian with power to consent.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to proceed in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Issue a certificate under section 47 of the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 and begin the treatment

      Explanation:

      How to Proceed with Medical Treatment for an Incapacitated Adult in Scotland

      When an adult lacks capacity and there is no welfare attorney or guardian with power to consent, medical treatment decisions can be difficult. However, in Scotland, the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 provides a solution. Under section 47 of the Act, a medical practitioner can issue a certificate of incapacity in relation to the treatment in question. This authorizes the practitioner or others under their direction to provide reasonable interventions related to the treatment authorized.

      It is important to note that medical treatment is defined as any healthcare procedure designed to promote or safeguard the physical or mental health of the adult. Therefore, if the treatment is necessary to safeguard or promote the patient’s health, a section 47 certificate should be issued and the treatment commenced.

      It is not necessary to contact the nursing home or seek consent from relatives. Instead, the medical practitioner can proceed with treatment under the principle of necessity, as authorized by the Act. There is no need to apply to a court to make a decision.

      In summary, when faced with a medical treatment decision for an incapacitated adult in Scotland, the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 provides a clear path forward. By issuing a section 47 certificate and proceeding with necessary treatment, medical practitioners can safeguard and promote the health of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice?

      Your Answer: Miller

      Correct Answer: Macintosh

      Explanation:

      Types of Laryngoscopes

      Laryngoscopes are medical instruments used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation. There are several types of laryngoscopes, each with its own unique features. The Miller, Oxford, and Wisconsin laryngoscopes have straight blades, while the Macintosh and McCoy laryngoscopes have curved blades. The McCoy laryngoscope is typically used for difficult intubations, as its blade tip is hinged and can be operated by a lever mechanism on the handle. Overall, the choice of laryngoscope depends on the individual patient and the specific needs of the intubation procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted with haemoptysis and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a 4-cm cavitating lung lesion in the right middle lobe.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Lung Cancer and Cavitating Lesions

      Lung cancer can be classified into different subtypes based on their histology and response to treatments. Among these subtypes, squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type that causes cavitating lesions on a chest X-ray. This occurs when the tumour outgrows its blood supply and becomes necrotic, forming a cavity. Squamous cell carcinomas are usually centrally located and can also cause ectopic hormone production, leading to hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of cavitating lesions include pulmonary tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, rheumatoid nodules, and septic emboli. Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is an uncommon subtype of adenocarcinoma that does not commonly cavitate. Small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma also do not commonly cause cavitating lesions.

      Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is the most common type of lung cancer and is usually caused by smoking. It typically originates in the peripheral lung tissue and can also cavitate, although it is less common than in squamous cell carcinoma. Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant ingests an excessive amount of lithium. After being stabilised, her baby is delivered without complications. However, during routine neonatal examinations, a pansystolic murmur is detected. Further evaluation through cardiac echocardiogram shows tricuspid incompetence with a large right atrium, a small right ventricle, and a low insertion of the tricuspid valve. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that results in the ‘atrialisation’ of the right ventricle. This condition is characterized by a low insertion of the tricuspid valve, which causes a large right atrium and a small right ventricle, leading to tricuspid incompetence. It is important to note that Ebstein’s anomaly is not the same as Fallot’s tetralogy, coarctation of the aorta, or transposition of the great arteries.

      Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.

      Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which causes a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.

      The clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that is worse on inspiration. Patients may also have a right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.

      In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms. It is often associated with other conditions such as PFO or ASD and can be diagnosed through clinical examination and imaging tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A breast cancer screening programme involved 1000 patients who underwent mammograms. Out of...

    Incorrect

    • A breast cancer screening programme involved 1000 patients who underwent mammograms. Out of these, 120 patients were recalled for further investigations due to being a high-risk group. Among the recalled patients, 18 were found to have breast cancer. Meanwhile, 880 patients were not recalled, and 45 of them were diagnosed with breast cancer. What is the percentage of positive predictive value for the patients who were recalled in this screening programme?

      Your Answer: 28.50%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Statistics of a Medical Screening Test

      Medical screening tests are an important tool in detecting diseases early on. However, it is important to understand the statistics behind these tests to accurately interpret the results. Here are some key terms to know:

      Positive Predictive Value: The percentage of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease. Calculated as true positives/(true positives + false positives) x 100%.

      Disease Prevalence: The percentage of cases of the disease within one population.

      Negative Predictive Value: The percentage of patients who test negative for the screening test that are true negatives, ie do not have the disease. Calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false negatives) x 100%.

      Sensitivity: The ability of the test to correctly identify the patients who have a disease. Calculated as true positives/(true positives + false negatives) x 100%.

      Specificity: The ability of the test to identify true negatives, specifically people without the disease in question. Calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false positives) x 100%.

      Understanding these statistics can help healthcare professionals and patients make informed decisions about further testing and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      124.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What role does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) play in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • What role does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) play in the body?

      Your Answer: Promotion of water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the kidney

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of the release of glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      The Adrenal Cortex and Pituitary Gland

      The adrenal cortex is composed of two layers, the cortical and medullary layers. The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone, while the zona fasciculata secretes glucocorticoids and the zona reticularis secretes adrenal androgens. However, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens. The release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is stimulated by ACTH.

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, is secreted from the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption. Growth hormone, secreted by the anterior pituitary, promotes the growth of soft tissues. Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary is under inhibitory control from dopamine.

      In summary, the adrenal cortex and pituitary gland play important roles in regulating hormone secretion and bodily functions. The adrenal cortex is responsible for the secretion of aldosterone, glucocorticoids, and adrenal androgens, while the pituitary gland secretes ADH, growth hormone, and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
      In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Add prednisolone for 3 days

      Correct Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. Atrovent® nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 12-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes of arthralgia affecting multiple sites. During physical examination, swelling and tenderness are observed in the right ankle joint, while tenderness on motion and pain are present over the bilateral wrist and left sacroiliac joints. The patient had visited his GP two months ago with symptoms of vomiting, diarrhoea, and fever, for which he received supportive treatment. Synovial fluid analysis from the aspirated ankle joint reveals a high white cell count and no organisms present in the culture. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this case is reactive arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that occurs after a distant infection in the gastrointestinal or urogenital area. It is characterized by joint pain, urethritis, and uveitis, and is more common in individuals who have the HLA-B27 gene. The infections that commonly trigger reactive arthritis are caused by Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Campylobacter organisms.

      Other possible diagnoses were ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms. Behcet’s disease, which presents with oral and genital ulcers and uveitis, was unlikely due to the lack of ulcers or visual symptoms. Septic arthritis, which causes joint swelling and pain, was also considered but was less likely because it typically affects only one joint and is accompanied by fever and other signs. Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus were also considered but were ruled out due to the absence of their characteristic symptoms.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      110.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Your next patient is a 23-year-old woman who presents with symptoms of depression....

    Correct

    • Your next patient is a 23-year-old woman who presents with symptoms of depression. She reports being allergic to all selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and requests dothiepin and temazepam. Upon examination, you observe that she appears thin and disheveled. Additionally, she exhibits rhinorrhea, watery eyes, and frequent yawning. What is the probable underlying issue?

      Your Answer: Heroin abuse

      Explanation:

      Most drug abusers consume multiple types of drugs, and although Dothiepin has sedative effects, it can be extremely hazardous when taken in excessive amounts.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A nursing student faints in the dissection room, falling straight backwards and hitting...

    Incorrect

    • A nursing student faints in the dissection room, falling straight backwards and hitting her head hard on the floor. She admits that she had no breakfast prior to attending dissection, and a well-meaning technician gives her a piece of chocolate. She complains that the chocolate tastes funny and vomits afterwards. Formal neurological assessment reveals anosmia, and computerised tomography (CT) of the head and neck reveals an anterior base of skull fracture affecting the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
      What is the level of interruption to the olfactory pathway likely to be in a nursing student?

      Your Answer: The olfactory tract

      Correct Answer: The first-order sensory neurones

      Explanation:

      The Olfactory Pathway: Neuronal Path and Potential Disruptions

      The olfactory pathway is responsible for our sense of smell and is composed of several neuronal structures. The first-order sensory neurones begin at the olfactory receptors in the nasal cavity and pass through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone to synapse with second-order neurones at the olfactory bulb. A fracture of the cribriform plate can disrupt these first-order neurones, leading to anosmia and a loss of taste sensation. However, the olfactory bulb is supported and protected by the ethmoid bone, making it less likely to be affected by the fracture. The second-order neurones arise in the olfactory bulb and form the olfactory tract, which divides into medial and lateral branches. The lateral branch terminates in the piriform cortex of the frontal lobe, which is further from the ethmoid bone and less likely to be disrupted. Understanding the neuronal path of the olfactory pathway can help identify potential disruptions and their effects on our sense of smell and taste.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of left shoulder pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of left shoulder pain. The pain is confined to the shoulder and has not spread to other areas. She reports injuring her shoulder while attempting shoulder exercises at the gym recently. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal in temperature and color, without signs of swelling. Active and passive external rotation are significantly limited by pain. Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction are also limited by pain, but to a lesser extent. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cervical nerve root entrapment

      Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Adhesive capsulitis is the correct answer as it is commonly seen in middle-aged females, diabetic patients, and following trauma. The classic impairment in adhesive capsulitis is external rotation, both on active and passive movement. On the other hand, calcific tendonosis would present with bursitis, causing pain, restriction in movement, and a hot and swollen shoulder. Cervical nerve root entrapment would cause pain in the neck and/or shoulder, with possible radiation to the arm and impaired neck range of movement. Supraspinatus tendonosis and torn rotator cuff would primarily affect abduction, not external rotation.

      Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)

      Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.

      Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the term used to describe the force exerted by a muscle...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the force exerted by a muscle that causes a portion of the bone to detach from its point of insertion?

      Your Answer: Avulsion fracture

      Explanation:

      Types of Fractures

      Avulsion fracture happens when a muscle pulls a part of the bone away from its usual attachment site due to a breaking force. On the other hand, pathological fracture occurs in a bone that is weakened or damaged by a disease. Meanwhile, torus fracture, also known as greenstick or ripple fracture, is a type of fracture that occurs on one side of the bone and is commonly seen in children. Lastly, a stress fracture is a microscopic fracture that results from repeated jarring and overuse of a bone. These types of fractures have different causes and characteristics, but they all require proper medical attention to ensure proper healing and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive dysfunction of a chloride ion channel

      Correct Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man

      Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has since entered into a new relationship, but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar affective disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship, but it is troubled by her frequent outbursts of anger. These symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by intense and rapidly changing emotions, difficulties with relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder, dependent personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder are not likely diagnoses based on the information provided.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A pharmaceutical company is attempting to create a new medication for Parkinson's disease....

    Correct

    • A pharmaceutical company is attempting to create a new medication for Parkinson's disease. They evaluate numerous potential molecules to determine the most encouraging chemicals for further research.

      What is the name of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Screening

      Explanation:

      The Challenging Process of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex and challenging process that involves various approaches to finding an effective agent. In the past, medications were discovered by chance, such as the antimalarial properties of cinchona bark that led to the development of quinine-based drugs. However, modern drug development processes involve identifying key receptors and carefully engineering molecules that can target them directly.

      One of the common approaches in drug development is identifying key receptors and screening thousands of candidate molecules that are theoretically likely to bind to them based on their chemical structure. These candidate molecules undergo a screening process to test their effectiveness and potency in interacting with the target receptor. Only those molecules that show promising characteristics will be taken forward into the drug development process. However, despite showing promise at this stage, the vast majority of candidate molecules that pass the screening test will never become pharmaceuticals.

      Biological agents are also used in drug development, which involves engineering antibodies that can target specific proteins involved in the pathological process. This approach has shown promising results in treating various diseases, including cancer and autoimmune disorders.

      In conclusion, drug development is a challenging process that requires a combination of scientific knowledge, creativity, and perseverance. The identification of key receptors and the screening of candidate molecules are just some of the approaches used in this process. Despite the challenges, the development of new drugs is essential in improving the quality of life for patients and advancing medical science.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, recurrent urinary tract infections and stress...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, recurrent urinary tract infections and stress incontinence. She is found to have a cystocoele. The woman had four children, all vaginal deliveries. She also suffers from osteoarthritis and hypertension. Her body mass index (BMI) is 32 and she smokes 5 cigarettes per day.
      What would your first line treatment be for this woman?

      Your Answer: Advise smoking cessation, weight loss and pelvic floor exercises

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Symptomatic Cystocoele: Lifestyle Modifications, Medications, and Surgeries

      Symptomatic cystocoele can be treated through various options, depending on the severity of the condition. The first line of treatment focuses on lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation and weight loss. Topical oestrogen may also be prescribed to post- or perimenopausal women suffering from vaginal dryness, urinary incontinence, recurrent urinary tract infections, or superficial dyspareunia. Inserting a ring pessary is the second line of treatment, which needs to be changed every six months and puts the patient at risk of ulceration. Per vaginal surgery is the third line of treatment, which is only possible if the cystocoele is small and puts the patient at risk of fibroids and adhesions. Hysterectomy is not recommended as it increases the risk of cystocoele due to the severance of the uterine ligaments and reduction in support following removal of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of swelling in the joints...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of swelling in the joints of her hands for the past 4 months. She reports stiffness in the morning that lasts for an hour before improving throughout the day. There is no pain or swelling in any other part of her body. Upon examination, there is tenderness and swelling in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands. An x-ray of her hands and feet is taken, and she is given a dose of intramuscular methylprednisolone and started on methotrexate.

      What is the most crucial additional treatment she should be offered?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Correct Answer: Folate to reduce the risk of bone marrow suppression

      Explanation:

      Prescribing folate alongside methotrexate is an effective way to decrease the risk of myelosuppression. This patient’s symptoms suggest that she may have rheumatoid arthritis, which is often treated with methotrexate as a first-line option. However, methotrexate can inhibit dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme involved in folate metabolism, which can lead to bone marrow suppression. To prevent this, folate is prescribed alongside methotrexate to ensure that the patient’s red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are not reduced to dangerous levels.

      B12 supplementation is not necessary in this case, as methotrexate is not known to cause deficiencies in B12. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may be considered if blood tests or symptoms indicate a deficiency, but they are not necessary at this time. Similarly, bisphosphonates are not needed as the patient is not at significant risk of osteoporosis due to her short-term use of corticosteroids.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is being assessed for her first pregnancy. Her baby is currently in a breech presentation. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital,...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presented 9 months after discharge from hospital, following a myocardial infarction. He had no further chest pain but had developed swelling of the breasts, which was uncomfortable on occasion. Upon examination, tender bilateral gynaecomastia was observed.
      Which medication he is currently taking is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and congestive heart failure. However, it has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning that even small changes in dosage can cause significant side effects. Common side effects include dizziness, skin reactions, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Gynaecomastia, or breast enlargement in males, is a rare side effect of digoxin. Signs of digoxin toxicity include drowsiness, confusion, bradycardia, shortness of breath, and blurred vision. Other medications that can cause gynaecomastia include anti-androgens, 5-a reductase inhibitors, exogenous estrogens, and certain chemotherapy agents.

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to control heart rate in atrial fibrillation, treat hypertension and congestive heart failure, and prevent secondary heart attacks. Side effects of bisoprolol and beta-blockers in general include vivid dreams, mood changes, bronchospasm in asthmatics, dizziness, and nausea.

      Aspirin is an anti-platelet medication that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, tinnitus, and Reye’s syndrome.

      Eplerenone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat heart failure and post-MI. It can cause hyperkalemia, diarrhea, constipation, dizziness, hypotension, and hyponatremia. Unlike spironolactone, another aldosterone antagonist, eplerenone does not have anti-androgenic, estrogenic, or progestogenic properties.

      Simvastatin is an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol. Side effects include muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis, hepatitis, hair thinning, abdominal pain, and tiredness. Other cardiovascular drugs that may cause gynaecomastia include spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, amiodarone, and calcium channel blockers. Many drugs can cause gynaecomastia, including anti-androgens, antimicrobial medications, anti-ulcer drugs, hormonal therapies, psychoactive drugs, and drugs of abuse. Aspirin is generally well-tolerated at anti-platelet dosages, with bleeding being the main adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer

      This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.

      Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of pain in the right upper quadrant that has been bothering him for the past 5 hours. During examination, his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm, temperature is 38.5ºC, and he displays signs of jaundice. What is the probable causative organism for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In pharmacokinetics, how is the rate of elimination or metabolism of an active...

    Incorrect

    • In pharmacokinetics, how is the rate of elimination or metabolism of an active drug from the body calculated?

      Your Answer: Bioactivity

      Correct Answer: Clearance

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics: How the Body Processes Drugs

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the processes involved in how the body processes drugs. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Metabolism and excretion are responsible for removing active drugs from the body. Metabolism converts drugs into inactive metabolites, while excretion removes the drug or its metabolite from the body. Renal excretion is the most common method of drug excretion, but some drugs may also be excreted in the bile or faeces.

      Clearance is the rate at which active drugs are removed from the circulation. It involves both renal excretion and hepatic metabolism, but in practice, clearance usually measures only the renal excretion of a drug. The glomerular filtration rate affects drug clearance, but even individuals with normal kidney function can have widely varying rates of drug clearance. The structure and distribution of a drug can also affect its clearance.

      In summary, pharmacokinetics is the study of how the body processes drugs, involving absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Clearance is the rate at which active drugs are removed from the circulation, and it involves both renal excretion and hepatic metabolism. The glomerular filtration rate and drug structure and distribution can affect drug clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing pain on the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing pain on the lateral side of her left thigh for the past two weeks. The pain has been gradually worsening and extends downwards to just above her left knee. She reports that the pain is more intense when she sleeps on her left side and sometimes wakes her up at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes point tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the left hip, which triggers the radiation of the pain down the thigh. The pain is exacerbated when the hip is passively externally rotated. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Correct Answer: Trochanteric bursitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) comes in with a swollen and painful right knee. Upon examination, there is joint effusion and pyrexia, and frank pus is aspirated. What is the most probable infecting organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Organisms in Septic Arthritis

      Septic arthritis is a serious condition that occurs when a joint becomes infected. The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas spp can also cause septic arthritis, but it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users. Escherichia coli is another pathogen that can cause septic arthritis, but it is less common than S. aureus. In children under the age of two, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common organism causing septic arthritis. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a common cause of arthritis in the United States, but it is uncommon in Western Europe. It is important to identify the causative organism in order to provide appropriate treatment for septic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food getting stuck and needing to be washed down with a large drink. Achalasia of the oesophagus is suspected. Which nerve supplies the muscularis externa of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerves

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerves

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerves are part of the tenth pair of cranial nerves and work with sympathetic nerves to form the oesophageal plexus. They have a parasympathetic function, stimulating peristalsis and supplying smooth muscle. The lower oesophageal sphincter, which relaxes to allow food into the stomach, is influenced by the vagus nerve. Oesophageal achalasia can occur when there is increased tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter, incomplete relaxation, and lack of peristalsis, leading to dysphagia and regurgitation.

      The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed cranial nerves that supply motor fibres to the stylopharyngeus muscle and parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland. They also form the pharyngeal plexus with the vagus nerve, supplying the palate, larynx, and pharynx.

      The greater splanchnic nerves contribute to the coeliac plexus, which supplies the enteric nervous system and the adrenals. The intercostal nerves arise from the anterior rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves and supply various structures in their intercostal space. The phrenic nerves supply the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old pharmaceutical representative is admitted to the Emergency Department after collapsing during...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old pharmaceutical representative is admitted to the Emergency Department after collapsing during a presentation about one of his company's medicines. He experienced acute stridor, shortness of breath, and swollen lips and throat suggestive of angio-oedema. Treatment with hydrocortisone and adrenaline was effective. Further questioning revealed that he had recently started taking a new antihypertensive medication. The following investigations were conducted: Haemoglobin, White cell count (WCC), Platelets, Sodium (Na+), Potassium (K+), and Creatinine. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his presentation?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Common Blood Pressure Medications and Their Side Effects

      Ramipril, Amlodipine, Atenolol, Bendroflumethiazide, and Indapamide are all medications commonly used to treat high blood pressure. However, each medication comes with its own set of side effects.

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause cough in some patients and increase the risk of angio-oedema. Antihistamines are not effective in treating angio-oedema caused by Ramipril, but fresh frozen plasma can be used. Other side effects of Ramipril include dizziness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, chest pain, weakness, and a deterioration in renal function.

      Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that can cause peripheral edema, nausea, stomach pains, dizziness, palpitations, and flushing.

      Atenolol is a β-blocker that can cause constipation, dry mouth, cold hands and feet, vivid nightmares, dizziness, postural symptoms, and tiredness.

      Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal side effects, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, and indigestion, as well as headache, dizziness, numbness/tingling, and blurred vision.

      Indapamide is a thiazide-like medication that can cause urinary frequency, dizziness, postural symptoms, constipation or diarrhea, tiredness, headache, and nausea.

      It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ethics And Legal (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (4/6) 67%
Musculoskeletal (2/5) 40%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Surgery (2/2) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed