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  • Question 1 - A 3-year-old girl wakes up crying in the middle of the night. This...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl wakes up crying in the middle of the night. This typically occurs shortly after she has fallen asleep. Her parents report that she sits up in bed and appears to be awake but does not acknowledge them. The episodes last for a few minutes before the child falls back asleep. The parents have checked her pulse during these episodes and note that it is very rapid. This started happening around six months ago and lasted for about two weeks before resolving on its own. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Night terrors

      Explanation:

      Night terrors are a type of sleep disorder that typically occur during the first few hours of sleep. They are characterized by sudden and intense feelings of fear, panic, of terror that can cause the person to scream, thrash around, of even try to escape from their bed. Unlike nightmares, which occur during REM sleep and are often remembered upon waking, night terrors occur during non-REM sleep and are usually not remembered. Night terrors are most common in children, but can also occur in adults. They are thought to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, and may be triggered by stress, anxiety, of sleep deprivation. Treatment for night terrors may include improving sleep hygiene, reducing stress, and in some cases, medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the closest estimate of heritability in schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the closest estimate of heritability in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 55%

      Explanation:

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a characteristic feature of Argyll Robertson pupils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic feature of Argyll Robertson pupils?

      Your Answer: They show a sluggish response to both light and accommodation

      Correct Answer: Dilation is typically poor with mydriatic agents

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained

      The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What factor has been demonstrated to have a notable impact on the QTc...

    Incorrect

    • What factor has been demonstrated to have a notable impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Prune juice

      Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused,...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused, maintaining a positive relationship with their partner, and having no desire to permanently identify as the opposite gender. What diagnosis would be most appropriate for this individual's situation?

      Your Answer: Dual-role transvestism

      Explanation:

      Types of Gender and Sexual Identity

      Dual-role transvestism refers to the act of wearing clothing typically associated with the opposite sex without experiencing discomfort with one’s biological gender of a desire to permanently live as the opposite sex. This behavior is not accompanied by sexual arousal, which distinguishes it from fetishistic transvestism. Fetishistic transvestism, on the other hand, involves wearing clothing of the opposite sex for the purpose of sexual arousal. Transsexualism is a desire to live as a member of the opposite sex, often accompanied by discomfort with one’s biological gender and a desire for gender reassignment. Sexual dysfunction encompasses a range of difficulties with sexual desire and performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the most probable cause of negative consequences when consuming alcohol? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable cause of negative consequences when consuming alcohol?

      Your Answer: Possessing very inactive forms of alcohol catalase

      Correct Answer: Possessing very active forms of alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      The accumulation of acetaldehyde in the bloodstream is responsible for the negative consequences of alcohol consumption, which can occur when alcohol dehydrogenase is active of aldehyde dehydrogenase is inactive.

      Genetics and Alcoholism

      Alcoholism tends to run in families, and several studies confirm that biological children of alcoholics are more likely to develop alcoholism even when adopted by parents without the condition. Monozygotic twins have a greater concordance rate for alcoholism than dizygotic twins. Heritability estimates range from 45 to 65 percent for both men and women. While genetic differences affect risk, there is no “gene for alcoholism,” and both environmental and social factors weigh heavily on the outcome.

      The genes with the clearest contribution to the risk for alcoholism and alcohol consumption are alcohol dehydrogenase 1B (ADH1B) and aldehyde dehydrogenase 2 (ALDH2). The first step in ethanol metabolism is oxidation to acetaldehyde, by ADHs. The second step is metabolism of the acetaldehyde to acetate by ALDHs. Individuals carrying even a single copy of the ALDH2*504K display the “Asian flushing reaction” when they consume even small amounts of alcohol. There is one significant genetic polymorphism of the ALDH2 gene, resulting in allelic variants ALDH2*1 and ALDH2*2, which is virtually inactive. ALDH2*2 is present in about 50 percent of the Taiwanese, Han Chinese, and Japanese populations. It is extremely rare outside Asia. Nearly no individuals of European of African descent carry this allele. ALDH2*504K has repeatedly been demonstrated to have a protective effect against alcohol use disorders.

      The three different class I gene loci, ADH1A (alpha), ADH1B (beta), and ADH1C (gamma) are situated close to each other in the region 4q2123. The alleles ADH1C*1 and ADH1B*2 code for fast metabolism of alcohol. The ADH1B*1 slow allele is very common among Caucasians, with approximately 95 percent having the homozygous ADH1B*1/1 genotype and 5 percent having the heterozygous ADH1B*1/2 genotype. The ADH1B*2 allele is the most common allele in Asian populations. In African populations, the ADH1B*1 allele is the most common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is a true statement about Erikson's theory of human development? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Erikson's theory of human development?

      Your Answer: It accords with the 'epigenetic principle'

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - One statement that is false regarding the genetics of ADHD is: ADHD is...

    Incorrect

    • One statement that is false regarding the genetics of ADHD is: ADHD is caused by a single gene mutation.

      Your Answer: Concordance rates for monozygotic twins are higher than those of dizygotic twins

      Correct Answer: ADHD has been associated with the neuregulin 1 gene

      Explanation:

      While ADHD has been linked to various genes, neuregulin 1 is not among them. However, it has been suggested to play a role in schizophrenia.

      ADHD and Genetics

      Decades of research have shown that genetics play a crucial role in the development of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and its comorbidity with other disorders. However, twin estimates of heritability being less than 100% suggest that environmental factors also play a role. Parents and siblings of a child with ADHD are more likely to have ADHD themselves, but the way ADHD is inherited is complex and not related to a single genetic fault. The heritability of ADHD is around 74%, and longitudinal studies show that two-thirds of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood. Adoption studies suggest that the familial factors of ADHD are attributable to genetic factors rather than shared environmental factors. The heritability is similar in males and females, and studies suggest that the diagnosis of ADHD is the extreme of a continuous distribution of ADHD symptoms in the population. Several candidate genes, including DAT1, DRD4, DRD5, 5 HTT, HTR1B, and SNAP25, have been identified as significantly associated with ADHD.

      Source: Faraone (2019) Genetics of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Molecular Psychiatry volume 24, pages 562–575 (2019).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Self-injurious behaviour is linked to a lack of which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • Self-injurious behaviour is linked to a lack of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase

      Explanation:

      Niemann-Pick disease is caused by a deficiency in sphingomyelinase.

      Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that causes the overproduction and accumulation of uric acid in the body, leading to various health problems such as gouty arthritis, kidney stones, and subcutaneous tophi. The condition primarily affects males and is caused by mutations in the HPRT gene located on the X-chromosome.

      People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome typically experience motor disability, including severe dystonia, hypotonia, and choreoathetosis, which can make it difficult of impossible for them to walk of sit without assistance. They may also exhibit self-injurious behavior, such as biting and head-banging, which is the most common and distinctive behavioral problem associated with the condition. Intellectual disability is common, but severe cognitive impairment is rare.

      The absence of the HPRT enzyme, which is responsible for recycling purine bases, leads to the accumulation of uric acid and affects the development of specific neural pathways in the brain, particularly the mesotelencephalic dopamine pathways. This disruption is likely responsible for the motor disability and behavioral peculiarities associated with the condition.

      Treatment for self-injurious behavior typically involves the use of protective restraints applied to the limbs, trunk, of head to prevent self-hitting of self-biting. Dental extraction may be necessary in cases of lip of tongue biting. Behavior modification methods that involve extinction may also be used, but neuroleptics may be required during particularly stressful of difficult behavior periods. However, these medications should only be used transiently due to their sedative effects and potential side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35 year old anxious man, during the course of his therapy, says...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old anxious man, during the course of his therapy, says that he is calm but the whole world is anxious. Which of the following defense mechanisms does this illustrate?:

      Your Answer: Projective identification

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is the least likely to cause discontinuation symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least likely to cause discontinuation symptoms?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What medication would be most strongly recommended for a patient with schizophrenia and...

    Incorrect

    • What medication would be most strongly recommended for a patient with schizophrenia and olanzapine induced weight gain who did not respond well to aripiprazole and continues to experience distressing auditory hallucinations?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Lurasidone

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In the basal ganglia, what structures make up the lenticular nucleus, including the...

    Correct

    • In the basal ganglia, what structures make up the lenticular nucleus, including the globus pallidus and which other component?

      Your Answer: Putamen

      Explanation:

      Located in the epithalamus at the center of the brain, the pineal gland is an endocrine gland. The basal ganglia, also known as basal nuclei, consist of four primary components: the caudate, nucleus accumbens, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, and substantia nigra. The lenticular (of lentiform) nucleus is formed by the globus pallidus and putamen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      109.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In which region of the monkey's cortex were mirror neurons initially identified? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which region of the monkey's cortex were mirror neurons initially identified?

      Your Answer: Primary somatosensory cortex

      Correct Answer: Premotor cortex

      Explanation:

      Visuomotor neurons known as mirror neurons are situated in the premotor cortex. These neurons were initially identified in a specific region of the premotor cortex in monkeys called area F5, but have since been observed in the inferior parietal lobule as well (Rizzolatti 2001).

      Mirror Neurons: A Model for Imitation Learning

      Mirror neurons are a unique type of visuomotor neurons that were first identified in the premotor cortex of monkeys in area F5. These neurons fire not only when the monkey performs a specific action but also when it observes another individual, whether it is a monkey of a human, performing a similar action. This discovery has led to the development of a model for understanding imitation learning.

      Mirror neurons offer a fascinating insight into how humans and animals learn by imitation. They provide a neural mechanism that allows individuals to understand the actions of others and to replicate those actions themselves. This process is essential for social learning, as it enables individuals to learn from others and to adapt to their environment.

      The discovery of mirror neurons has also led to new research in the field of neuroscience, as scientists seek to understand how these neurons work and how they can be used to improve our understanding of human behavior. As we continue to learn more about mirror neurons, we may be able to develop new therapies for individuals with social and communication disorders, such as autism.

      Overall, mirror neurons are a fascinating area of research that has the potential to revolutionize our understanding of human behavior and learning. By studying these neurons, we may be able to unlock new insights into how we learn, communicate, and interact with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which drug class is most likely to result in QTc interval prolongation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug class is most likely to result in QTc interval prolongation?

      Your Answer: Antiepileptics

      Correct Answer: Antimalarials

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the contribution of Crow to the understanding of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the contribution of Crow to the understanding of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: He was the first to treat schizophrenia with ECT

      Correct Answer: He divided patients with schizophrenia into type I and type II

      Explanation:

      Historical Classification of Schizophrenia

      The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.

      In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’

      Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.

      In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What waveform represents a frequency range of 8-12Hz? ...

    Incorrect

    • What waveform represents a frequency range of 8-12Hz?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the truth about the discontinuation symptoms that are linked to antidepressants?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about the discontinuation symptoms that are linked to antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suicidal thoughts are associated with discontinuation of paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Discontinuation symptoms are common when stopping most antidepressants, typically appearing within 5 days of treatment cessation. However, these symptoms are more likely to occur with short half-life drugs like paroxetine, especially when doses are missed. It’s important to note that discontinuing paroxetine may lead to suicidal thoughts, so patients should be informed of the potential risks associated with poor compliance.

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the candidate gene for schizophrenia that is also associated with Velocardiofacial...

    Incorrect

    • What is the candidate gene for schizophrenia that is also associated with Velocardiofacial disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COMT

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
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  • Question 21 - Which statement about drug distribution in the elderly is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about drug distribution in the elderly is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Water soluble drugs show increased volumes of distribution in the elderly

      Explanation:

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An important function of hepatic metabolism is to make a drug: ...

    Incorrect

    • An important function of hepatic metabolism is to make a drug:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: More water soluble

      Explanation:

      Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion

      Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.

      Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.

      Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the pathway for cerebrospinal fluid to return from the subarachnoid space...

    Incorrect

    • What is the pathway for cerebrospinal fluid to return from the subarachnoid space to the vascular system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid villi

      Explanation:

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Formation, Circulation, and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. It is constantly reabsorbed, so only a small amount is present at any given time. CSF occupies the space between the arachnoid and pia mater and passes through various foramina and aqueducts to reach the subarachnoid space and spinal cord. It is then reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi and enters the dural venous sinuses.

      The normal intracerebral pressure (ICP) is 5 to 15 mmHg, and the rate of formation of CSF is constant. The composition of CSF is similar to that of brain extracellular fluid (ECF) but different from plasma. CSF has a higher pCO2, lower pH, lower protein content, lower glucose concentration, higher chloride and magnesium concentration, and very low cholesterol content. The concentration of calcium and potassium is lower, while the concentration of sodium is unchanged.

      CSF fulfills the role of returning interstitial fluid and protein to the circulation since there are no lymphatic channels in the brain. The blood-brain barrier separates CSF from blood, and only lipid-soluble substances can easily cross this barrier, maintaining the compositional differences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 24 - What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Language and knowledge

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 25 - What would be the most suitable method to evaluate the extent of a...

    Incorrect

    • What would be the most suitable method to evaluate the extent of a 32-year-old man's depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HAMD

      Explanation:

      The Geriatric Mental State Schedule (GMSS) is a tool utilized to detect signs of depression among older adults.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 27 - In what setting is the Clifton Assessment Procedure used as an assessment tool?...

    Incorrect

    • In what setting is the Clifton Assessment Procedure used as an assessment tool?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nursing homes for the elderly

      Explanation:

      Clifton Assessment Procedure (CAPE) is a valuable tool for evaluating the quality of life, cognitive impairments, and physical dependency levels in elderly individuals. It is used to identify areas of unmet needs and can be administered in both hospital and community settings. The assessment takes approximately 15-25 minutes to complete and comprises two scales: the cognitive assessment scale and the behavior rating scale. The cognitive assessment scale evaluates orientation, basic cognition, and psychomotor performance, while the behavior rating scale assesses physical dependency and behavioral problems. The CAPE can differentiate between organic brain disease and functional psychiatric disorders and predict the likelihood of hospital discharge. It is commonly used to determine the most appropriate placement for elderly individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Class and Mental Disorder

      There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 29 - What is the origin of agoraphobia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the origin of agoraphobia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escape conditioning is involved

      Explanation:

      Beck identified two cognitive distortions, catastrophization and selective abstraction, which play a role in the development of depression. These distortions involve magnifying negative events and selectively focusing on negative aspects, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Aetiology
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  • Question 30 - Which statement about serotonin is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about serotonin is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can cross the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 31 - Which receptors are affected by fluoxetine that are believed to be responsible for...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptors are affected by fluoxetine that are believed to be responsible for causing insomnia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT2

      Explanation:

      Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) receptors are primarily G protein receptors, except for 5-HT3, which is a ligand-gated receptor. It is important to remember that 5-HT3 is most commonly associated with nausea. Additionally, 5-HT7 is linked to circadian rhythms. The stimulation of 5-HT2 receptors is believed to be responsible for the side effects of insomnia, agitation, and sexual dysfunction that are associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - At what age does puberty need to begin for it to be considered...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does puberty need to begin for it to be considered precocious in girls?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Puberty

      Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 33 - Under which category of memory is priming classified? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under which category of memory is priming classified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nondeclarative memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with chronic schizophrenia on a stable dose of 2mg risperidone for 2 years, who develops worsening symptoms and is given an increased dose of 4 mg risperidone, what is the most likely cause of his current presentation of stiffness, fever, breathlessness, and sweating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 35 - What is a true statement about the neocortex? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the neocortex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It contains both pyramidal and nonpyramidal cells

      Explanation:

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 36 - What is the term used to describe a segment of DNA that does...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a segment of DNA that does not code for proteins and is not translated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intron

      Explanation:

      Splicing of mRNA

      After the transcription of DNA into mRNA, the mRNA undergoes a crucial process known as splicing. This process involves the removal of certain portions of the mRNA, called introns, leaving behind the remaining portions known as exons. The exons are then translated into proteins. The resulting spliced form of RNA is referred to as mature mRNA. This process of splicing is essential for the proper functioning of genes and the production of functional proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 37 - How can the doctor-patient relationship be structured to prioritize a collaborative decision-making process?...

    Incorrect

    • How can the doctor-patient relationship be structured to prioritize a collaborative decision-making process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interpretive

      Explanation:

      Models of Doctor-Patient Relationship

      There are four distinct models of doctor-patient relationship that have been identified. The first is the paternalistic of autocratic model, which assumes that the doctor knows best and makes all decisions regarding treatment. The patient is expected to simply comply with the doctor’s orders. The second model is the informative model, where the doctor provides information to the patient and leaves the decision-making process entirely up to them. The third model is the interpretive model, where the doctor takes the time to understand the patient’s circumstances and helps them make a decision based on their unique situation. This model involves shared decision-making and active participation from the patient. Finally, the deliberative model involves the doctor acting as a friend to the patient and attempting to steer them in a particular course of action that they believe is in the patient’s best interest. However, ultimately, the choice is left up to the patient. Understanding these different models can help doctors and patients work together more effectively to achieve the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 38 - How can the principle of Premack be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the principle of Premack be described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High frequency behaviours can be used to reinforce low frequency behaviour

      Explanation:

      Premack’s Principle

      Premack’s principle is a concept that suggests that preferred behaviors can be utilized to reinforce unpreferred behaviors. This principle is based on the observation that high-probability behaviors, which are frequently performed under conditions of free choice, can be used to reinforce low-probability behaviors. For instance, parents can tell their children that they can have pudding only after they finish their main course. Similarly, children can be allowed to go out and play only after they have completed their homework. By using this principle, individuals can increase the likelihood of performing less preferred behaviors by linking them to more preferred behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 39 - Which statement accurately describes modafinil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes modafinil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It lacks the euphoric effects of amphetamines

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 40 - What is the tool used to evaluate the intelligence of children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the tool used to evaluate the intelligence of children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: WISC

      Explanation:

      The WISC, a commonly utilized IQ assessment for children, consists of ten distinct evaluations that generate performance and verbal IQ scores, as well as an overall IQ score. NART, on the other hand, is a measure of premorbid IQ, while Rivermead assesses visual memory. WAIS is the adult version of the Wechsler intelligence scale, and the Wisconsin card sorting test evaluates executive function, specifically the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 41 - Who is credited with creating the term 'bipolar'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with creating the term 'bipolar'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kleist

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 42 - What is a correct statement about the blood brain barrier? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about the blood brain barrier?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasally administered drugs can bypass the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.

      When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.

      It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 43 - What is the commonly used scale in research studies to assess symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the commonly used scale in research studies to assess symptoms of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PANSS

      Explanation:

      The PANSS scale is a commonly utilized tool in schizophrenia research to assess both positive and negative symptoms. The BDI measures depression using the Beck inventory, while the Calgary scale is specifically designed to rate depression in individuals with schizophrenia. CIWA is a scale used to evaluate the severity of alcohol withdrawal, and LUNSER is a rating scale for neuroleptic side effects developed by Liverpool University.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 44 - What type of MRI scan is available? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of MRI scan is available?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DTI

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 45 - Prior to initiating lithium treatment for an adult with a learning disability and...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to initiating lithium treatment for an adult with a learning disability and comorbid affective disorder, which baseline investigation should be conducted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      There is controversy surrounding the question, likely due to its poor wording. However, some sources suggest that the correct answer is EEG. This may be based on a one-time recommendation in the Frith Prescribing Guidelines from 2005, which suggests that an EEG is necessary before starting lithium due to its potential to lower the seizure threshold, which is particularly relevant for individuals with LD who are prone to seizures. However, this recommendation has not been supported by NICE, the BNF, of the Maudsley Guidelines, so it should be viewed with caution. NICE and the Maudsley do recommend that all individuals have an ECG before starting lithium, so choosing that answer would be a safe choice.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 46 - What is the estimated degree of genetic influence on autism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated degree of genetic influence on autism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 47 - A woman is arrested by the police for strangling her husband. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is arrested by the police for strangling her husband. She believes he has been replaced by an impostor. Select the appropriate delusional syndrome:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capgras

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 48 - What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 49 - What is the highest ranking life event on the social readjustment rating scale...

    Incorrect

    • What is the highest ranking life event on the social readjustment rating scale according to Holmes and Rahe's research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Death of spouse

      Explanation:

      Holmes and Rahe (1967) developed the social readjustment rating scale, which consisted of 43 life events of different levels of severity that appeared to occur before the onset of patients’ illnesses. The researchers analyzed 5000 patient records and found that the death of a spouse was the most serious life event, while a minor violation of the law was the least serious. Although this measure aimed to measure the impact of life events, it has received numerous criticisms, such as its failure to consider individual circumstances and its incomplete list of life events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 50 - What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The use of valproate can lead to pancreatitis, which is a known and potentially fatal complication.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 51 - Which brain system enables the integration of emotional sensory information between the cortex...

    Incorrect

    • Which brain system enables the integration of emotional sensory information between the cortex and hypothalamus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papez circuit

      Explanation:

      In 1937, James Papez proposed a neural circuit that explained how emotional experiences occur in the brain. According to Papez, sensory messages related to emotional stimuli are first received by the thalamus, which then directs them to both the cortex (stream of thinking) and hypothalamus (stream of feeling). The cingulate cortex integrates this information from the hypothalamus and sensory cortex, leading to emotional experiences. The output via the hippocampus and hypothalamus allows cortical control of emotional responses. This circuit has since been reconceptualized as the limbic system.

      The medial longitudinal fasciculus carries fibres from cranial nerves III, IV and IV. The nucleus accumbens plays a major role in the reward circuit, while the somatosensory cortex is involved in processing pain. The basal ganglia are involved in voluntary motor control.

      Overall, the Papez circuit theory provides a framework for understanding the functional neuroanatomy of emotion. It highlights the importance of the limbic system in emotional experiences and the role of various brain regions in processing different aspects of emotional stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 52 - At what Tanner stage does menarche typically occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what Tanner stage does menarche typically occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Puberty

      Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 53 - What is the meaning of the term autochthonous delusion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of the term autochthonous delusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A primary delusion

      Explanation:

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 54 - What is located within Brodmann area 22? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is located within Brodmann area 22?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 55 - What is the opioid system modulator that is prescribed to decrease alcohol consumption?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the opioid system modulator that is prescribed to decrease alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nalmefene

      Explanation:

      Nalmefene is a medication that affects the opioid system by partially activating the κ receptor and blocking the μ and σ receptors. It is believed to reduce the pleasurable effects of alcohol by targeting the mesolimbic system and opioid receptors, helping individuals decrease their alcohol consumption.

      Acamprosate works by targeting NMDA and GABA receptors, which can reduce the urge to drink alcohol.

      Disulfiram inhibits the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which is involved in breaking down alcohol. If someone drinks alcohol while taking disulfiram, they may experience a severe and potentially deadly reaction due to the buildup of acetaldehyde. Disulfiram is typically used by individuals who have stopped drinking and want to maintain their sobriety.

      Naltrexone is a medication that blocks opioid receptors and can be used to treat both opioid and alcohol addiction.

      Naloxone is a short-acting medication that blocks opioid receptors and is used in emergency situations to treat opioid overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 56 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 57 - What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: RR interval

      Explanation:

      The Bazett formula adjusts the QT interval for heart rate by taking the square root of the R-R interval and dividing the QT interval by it.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 58 - Which of the following neuroanatomical structures is larger on the left in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neuroanatomical structures is larger on the left in a healthy right-handed female aged 25-30 years?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transverse temporal gyrus

      Explanation:

      The Heschl gyrus, also known as the transverse temporal gyrus, is a component of the primary auditory complex located in the temporal lobe. It is noteworthy that the left Heschl gyrus is typically larger than the right. This structure is responsible for processing incoming auditory information and is unique in its mediolateral orientation. The brain hemispheres exhibit structural differences, with the left hemisphere (in over 90% of right-handed individuals) specializing in language function. Another structure within the primary auditory complex, the planum temporale, is also typically larger on the left side (up to ten times larger). Conversely, the amygdala, caudate nucleus, cingulate sulcus, and hippocampus are typically larger on the right side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 59 - A 30-year-old woman is evaluating her character traits. She is responding to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is evaluating her character traits. She is responding to a series of statements using a scale ranging from 'strongly disagree' to 'strongly agree'.

      Which personality assessment tool is she utilizing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Personality assessment inventory (PAI)

      Explanation:

      There are several different types of personality assessments available. The personality assessment inventory (PAI) is a self-report test with 344 items and 22 scales, using a Likert-type format. Likert items ask respondents to rate their level of agreement of disagreement with a statement. The 16 personality factor questionnaire (16 PF) is a self-report questionnaire with true/false format, measuring 16 different personality dimensions. The Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI) is an objective measure of personality in adults, with 566 true/false items. The Beck depression inventory is a self-report inventory with 21 multiple choice questions, used to measure the severity of depression. Finally, the thematic apperception test (TAT) is a projective measure of personality, using 20 stimulus cards depicting scenes of varying ambiguity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 60 - What is a known risk factor for QT prolongation when analyzing an ECG?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known risk factor for QT prolongation when analyzing an ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalemia

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 61 - Which condition is marked by an increased appetite and being overweight? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is marked by an increased appetite and being overweight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Unique Characteristics

      Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is a deletion of genetic material from the paternal chromosome 15. This condition is a classic example of imprinting, where the expression of certain genes is dependent on whether they are inherited from the mother of father. The syndrome is characterized by several unique features, including hyperphagia (excessive eating) and obesity, short stature, delayed puberty, hypogonadism, infertility, learning difficulties, and compulsive behavior such as skin picking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 62 - Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Motor Behaviours Associated with Utilization Behaviour

      Utilization behaviour (UB) is a condition where patients exhibit exaggerated and inappropriate motor responses to environmental cues and objects. This behaviour is automatic and instrumentally correct, but not contextually appropriate. For instance, a patient may start brushing their teeth when presented with a toothbrush, even in a setting where it is not expected. UB is caused by frontal lobe lesions that result in a loss of inhibitory control.

      Other motor abnormalities associated with UB include imitation behaviour, where patients tend to imitate the examiner’s behaviour, and the alien hand sign, where patients experience bizarre hand movements that they cannot control. Manual groping behaviour is also observed, where patients automatically manipulate objects placed in front of them. The grasp reflex, which is normal in infants, should not be present in children and adults. It is an automatic tendency to grip objects of stimuli, such as the examiner’s hand.

      Environmental Dependency Syndrome is another condition associated with UB. It describes deficits in personal control of action and an overreliance on social and physical environmental stimuli to guide behaviour in a social context. For example, a patient may start commenting on pictures in an examiner’s office, believing it to be an art gallery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 63 - Which of the following statements most accurately defines tangentiality? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements most accurately defines tangentiality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a disorder of the form of thought

      Explanation:

      Karl Jaspers, a German psychiatrist and philosopher, first described tangentiality as a formal thought disorder where the patient deviates from the topic at hand and introduces new but related words. Although the examiner can usually follow the patient’s train of thought, the patient often loses track of the interviewer’s question. While tangentiality is not specific to any particular mental disorder, it can be present in conditions such as mania, hypomania, and schizophrenia. Other examples of formal thought disorder include loosening of associations, circumstantiality, thought block, perseveration, and flight of ideas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 64 - What is a frequently observed side effect of varenicline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a frequently observed side effect of varenicline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasopharyngitis

      Explanation:

      Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy

      Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 65 - Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the arrhythmogenic potential of tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 66 - A client in their 60s reports experiencing a tremor that fluctuates significantly. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A client in their 60s reports experiencing a tremor that fluctuates significantly. Upon observation, you observe that the tremor subsides when the client is distracted. What type of tremor do you suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic tremor

      Explanation:

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 67 - Which of the following accurately defines a pseudohallucination? Please rephrase the question slightly...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately defines a pseudohallucination? Please rephrase the question slightly and maintain the paragraph spacing.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A hallucination without the quality of a normal percept

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations are often distinguished from true hallucinations by their lack of a genuine perceptual quality, although this distinction can be challenging to apply in practice. True hallucinations can be induced by illicit drug use. extracampine hallucinations, which are typically visual and occur outside of the normal sensory field, are considered true hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are not exclusive to schizophrenia and can manifest in various sensory modalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 68 - All of the following contribute to the sleep enhancing properties of mirtazapine except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following contribute to the sleep enhancing properties of mirtazapine except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 2 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine is known to enhance sleep through its effects on various receptors, including 5HT2, 5HT3, and H1, as well as alpha 1 antagonist. However, its alpha 2 antagonist may actually inhibit the release of norepinephrine and potentially diminish the sleep-enhancing effects of the drug at higher dosages. Therefore, doses of 30mg of less are typically used to treat insomnia. (Source: Foundations of Psychiatric Sleep Medicine, Cambridge University Press, 2011, p.224)

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 69 - What substance belongs to the category of catecholamines? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance belongs to the category of catecholamines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines are a group of chemical compounds that have a distinct structure consisting of a benzene ring with two hydroxyl groups, an intermediate ethyl chain, and a terminal amine group. These compounds play an important role in the body and are involved in various physiological processes. The three main catecholamines found in the body are dopamine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline. All of these compounds are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Overall, catecholamines are essential for maintaining proper bodily functions and are involved in a wide range of physiological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 70 - What is another name for the forebrain in the developing embryo? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is another name for the forebrain in the developing embryo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prosencephalon

      Explanation:

      Neurodevelopment: Understanding Brain Development

      The development of the central nervous system begins with the neuroectoderm, a specialized region of ectoderm. The embryonic brain is divided into three areas: the forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon). The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, while the hindbrain subdivides into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

      The telencephalon, of cerebrum, consists of the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal ganglia. The diencephalon includes the prethalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and pretectum. The mesencephalon comprises the tectum, tegmentum, ventricular mesocoelia, cerebral peduncles, and several nuclei and fasciculi.

      The rhombencephalon includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum, which can be subdivided into a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In humans, eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus. Rhombomeres Rh7-Rh4 form the myelencephalon, while Rh3-Rh1 form the metencephalon.

      Understanding neurodevelopment is crucial in comprehending brain development and its complexities. By studying the different areas of the embryonic brain, we can gain insight into the formation of the central nervous system and its functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 71 - Which waves are present at the onset of stage 2 sleep, in addition...

    Incorrect

    • Which waves are present at the onset of stage 2 sleep, in addition to k-complexes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigma

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 72 - In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what century did psychiatry become established as a distinct medical field?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18th century

      Explanation:

      Psychiatry emerged as a distinct medical field in the late 1700s, leading to the establishment of specialized asylums designed to provide therapeutic care for individuals with mental illnesses who were previously confined in institutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 73 - Which syndrome is also referred to as Trisomy 18? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which syndrome is also referred to as Trisomy 18?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aneuploidy: Abnormal Chromosome Numbers

      Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result from errors during meiosis. Typically, human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but aneuploidy can lead to extra of missing chromosomes. Trisomies, which involve the presence of an additional chromosome, are the most common aneuploidies in humans. However, most trisomies are not compatible with life, and only trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) survive to birth. Aneuploidy can result in imbalances in gene expression, which can lead to a range of symptoms and developmental issues.

      Compared to autosomal trisomies, humans are more able to tolerate extra sex chromosomes. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, is the most common sex chromosome aneuploidy. Individuals with Klinefelter’s and XYY often remain undiagnosed, but they may experience reduced sexual development and fertility. Monosomies, which involve the loss of a chromosome, are rare in humans. The only viable human monosomy involves the X chromosome and results in Turner’s syndrome. Turner’s females display a wide range of symptoms, including infertility and impaired sexual development.

      The frequency and severity of aneuploidies vary widely. Down’s syndrome is the most common viable autosomal trisomy, affecting 1 in 800 births. Klinefelter’s syndrome affects 1-2 in 1000 male births, while XYY syndrome affects 1 in 1000 male births and Triple X syndrome affects 1 in 1000 births. Turner syndrome is less common, affecting 1 in 5000 female births. Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are rare, affecting 1 in 6000 and 1 in 10,000 births, respectively. Understanding the genetic basis and consequences of aneuploidy is important for diagnosis, treatment, and genetic counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 74 - Among the listed antipsychotics, which one has the greatest likelihood of causing extrapyramidal...

    Incorrect

    • Among the listed antipsychotics, which one has the greatest likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 75 - Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral...

    Incorrect

    • Can you identify the brain structure that is not found in both cerebral hemispheres?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomical Structures

      The pineal gland is a unique structure in the brain that is not present bilaterally. It is a small endocrine gland responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone derived from serotonin. Along with the pituitary gland and circumventricular organs, the pineal gland is one of the few unpaired structures in the brain.

      In contrast, the caudate nucleus is a paired structure located within the basal ganglia. It is present bilaterally and plays a crucial role in motor control and learning.

      The midbrain contains the Mammillary body, which is also a paired structure involved in long-term memory formation. These structures work together to help us remember and recall past experiences.

      Finally, the supraoptic nucleus is duplicated in each cerebral hemisphere. This structure is involved in regulating water balance and plays a critical role in maintaining homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 76 - Which process breaks down dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which process breaks down dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: COMT and both forms of MAO

      Explanation:

      COMT and both types of MAO are responsible for the metabolism of dopamine.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 77 - Which statement accurately describes late onset Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes late onset Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The APOE3 variant is considered the neutral variant

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 78 - At what stage of development, as described by Mahler, is separation anxiety typically...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of development, as described by Mahler, is separation anxiety typically initially noticed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Separation-individuation first subphase - Differentiation

      Explanation:

      Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 79 - Who is recognized as the originator of the mental age concept? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is recognized as the originator of the mental age concept?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binet

      Explanation:

      Mental Age and IQ

      The concept of mental age (MA) was introduced by Alfred Binet in 1905. It involves administering a series of tests to a person of child, which are then ranked according to the age at which people are expected to complete them. The mental age can be used to calculate the intelligence quotient (IQ) using the formula: IQ = MA/CA x 100, where CA is the chronological age. An IQ of 100 indicates that the mental and chronological ages are equal. IQ tends to remain stable throughout life. The Stanford-Binet test was the first IQ test, while the WAIS-IV (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale) is the most commonly used IQ test today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 80 - Which of the following is not assessed in the MMSE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not assessed in the MMSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Executive function

      Explanation:

      Although individuals with executive cognitive dysfunction may receive a normal score on the MMSE, they can still experience significant impairments in their daily functioning.

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 81 - A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to take antipsychotic medication for a new episode of psychosis. She has had a positive response to haloperidol in the past. What is the most crucial test to monitor potential side effects of this medication combination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      When using methadone and haloperidol together, it is important to closely monitor the QTc interval due to their significant effect on it. EEG and electrolyte screening are not necessary. While liver function tests may be useful to perform periodically, they are not the primary concern with this combination. It is important to be cautious of respiratory depression when using high doses of methadone in combination with other sedative medications, but respiratory function tests are unlikely to provide helpful information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 82 - What is a frequently observed side-effect of lisdexamfetamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a frequently observed side-effect of lisdexamfetamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased appetite

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 83 - Among the following groups, which has the highest occurrence of individuals with poor...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following groups, which has the highest occurrence of individuals with poor metabolism of CYP2D6?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Africans and African-Americans

      Explanation:

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 84 - A 28-year-old man with a recent onset of seizures and a family history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a recent onset of seizures and a family history of epilepsy is referred for an EEG. He is currently taking oral carbamazepine. His EEG reveals mild diffuse instability.
      What is the most probable cause for this EEG finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antipsychotic medication

      Explanation:

      EEG waveforms may be slightly disrupted by antipsychotic medication, while sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is linked to specific periodic sharp wave complexes (PSWC) during the middle and late stages of the illness. Generalized seizures would exhibit more pronounced irregularities, whereas temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) would display anomalous activity originating from a single temporal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 85 - A community center in a low-income neighborhood notices a rise in delinquent behavior...

    Incorrect

    • A community center in a low-income neighborhood notices a rise in delinquent behavior among teenagers. To address this issue, they implement a comprehensive program aimed at preventing the development of mental health disorders. What type of prevention strategy is being utilized in this community center?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indicated prevention

      Explanation:

      The four types of prevention strategies for mental health are indicated, universal, selective, and tertiary. Indicated prevention focuses on individuals who show early signs of biological markers of mental disorder but do not meet diagnostic criteria. Universal prevention targets the general public of a whole population group. Selective prevention targets individuals of subgroups with higher risk factors. Tertiary prevention aims to manage long-term health problems in individuals who already have a mental disorder, with the goal of preventing further deterioration and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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  • Question 86 - How is clinical research currently guided worldwide in terms of ethical recommendations? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is clinical research currently guided worldwide in terms of ethical recommendations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Helsinki declaration

      Explanation:

      The Significance of the Declaration of Helsinki in Biomedical Research Ethics

      The Declaration of Helsinki, created by the World Medical Association in 1964, outlines the fundamental ethical principles that govern biomedical research involving human subjects. Over the years, it has undergone several revisions and continues to serve as a cornerstone of good medical practice. Its importance lies in its ability to provide a framework for ethical decision-making in research, ensuring that the rights, safety, and well-being of human subjects are protected. The Declaration of Helsinki is a crucial document that guides researchers, clinicians, and policymakers in their efforts to conduct ethical and responsible research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 87 - A 72-year-old male reports feeling distressed after hearing his deceased wife's voice in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male reports feeling distressed after hearing his deceased wife's voice in his head, asking him to come join her. He clarifies that he heard it internally and not as an external sound. What type of perceptual abnormality is reflected in his experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudohallucinations

      Explanation:

      – Pseudohallucinations are figurative and not real
      – They are located in the inner subjective space
      – Auditory hallucinations are concrete, tangible, and real
      – They are located in the outside objective space
      – Autoscopy is the experience of seeing oneself
      – Reflex hallucination is where a stimulus in one modality produces hallucination in another modality
      – Hypnopompic hallucinations occur when waking up from sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 88 - How can a group of genetic defects causing a single condition be described?...

    Incorrect

    • How can a group of genetic defects causing a single condition be described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heterogeneity

      Explanation:

      Pleiotropy refers to a genetic phenomenon where a single gene has an impact on multiple observable traits. This occurs because the gene produces a product that is utilized by various cells. An instance of pleiotropy is the human condition known as PKU (phenylketonuria).

      Understanding Heterogeneity in Genetic Diseases

      Heterogeneity is a term used to describe the presence of different genetic defects that can cause the same disease. This phenomenon is commonly observed in genetic disorders, where multiple mutations can lead to the same clinical presentation. For instance, the ABO blood group system is an example of heterogeneity, where different combinations of alleles can result in the same blood type.

      Understanding heterogeneity is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of genetic diseases. Identifying the specific genetic defect responsible for a particular disease can help tailor therapies and predict disease progression. However, the presence of heterogeneity can also complicate diagnosis and treatment, as different mutations may require different approaches.

      Overall, heterogeneity highlights the complexity of genetic diseases and underscores the need for personalized medicine approaches that take into account individual genetic variations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 89 - How would you describe Broca's aphasia in a speech? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you describe Broca's aphasia in a speech?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-fluent aphasia

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 90 - What is the term used to describe a section of DNA in a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a section of DNA in a gene that does not undergo protein translation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intron

      Explanation:

      Splicing of mRNA

      After the transcription of DNA into mRNA, the mRNA undergoes a crucial process known as splicing. This process involves the removal of certain portions of the mRNA, called introns, leaving behind the remaining portions known as exons. The exons are then translated into proteins. The resulting spliced form of RNA is referred to as mature mRNA. This process of splicing is essential for the proper functioning of genes and the production of functional proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 91 - What is the accurate information about neurasthenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate information about neurasthenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is still retained as a category in ICD-10 classification

      Explanation:

      In 1869, George Miller Beard introduced the term ‘neurasthenia’ in an article published in the Boston Medical and Surgical Journal. He described anxiety as a key symptom of this condition, which he defined as a lack of nerve force. However, later interpretations of neurasthenia focused more on a state of fatigue and irritability rather than anxiety. While some classification systems have omitted neurasthenia, it remains a commonly used diagnosis in many countries and is still included as a category in ICD-10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 92 - What is a personality disorder that falls under cluster A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a personality disorder that falls under cluster A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paranoid

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

      UK Epidemiology

      The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 93 - What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zuclopenthixol decanoate

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 94 - At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage...

    Incorrect

    • At what developmental stage, as described by Piaget, would a 3-year-old child engage in symbolic play but struggle with understanding others' perspectives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preoperational

      Explanation:

      The preoperational stage, according to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, is characterized by children engaging in symbolic play but not yet being able to comprehend logic. Piaget identified four main stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage occurs from birth to two years old, during which the child experiences the world through their senses. The concrete operational stage occurs from seven to eleven years old, during which the child can think logically and is no longer egocentric. The formal operational stage occurs from eleven to sixteen years old, during which the child develops abstract reasoning. It is important to note that the Freudian stage of psychosexual development known as latency is not relevant to Piaget’s theory and is therefore not included in his stages of cognitive development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 95 - Which option is incorrectly categorized? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is incorrectly categorized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine - Benzoxazole

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine belongs to the thienobenzodiazepine class.

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 96 - How does atomoxetine work in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • How does atomoxetine work in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 97 - What is the condition that occurs due to the deterioration of the caudate...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition that occurs due to the deterioration of the caudate nucleus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Huntington's

      Explanation:

      The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders

      The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.

      The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.

      However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.

      In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 98 - What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of an atypical antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 99 - The patient's use of words is unclear and may indicate disorganized thinking of...

    Incorrect

    • The patient's use of words is unclear and may indicate disorganized thinking of difficulty expressing themselves. Which of the following best describes this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neologism

      Explanation:

      Neologism pertains to the creation of novel terms, while paraphasia involves the replacement of one word with another, such as saying orange instead of banana. Asyndesis, on the other hand, refers to a breakdown in the distinction between different concepts.

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 100 - In the field of neurology, which specific region of the brain did the...

    Incorrect

    • In the field of neurology, which specific region of the brain did the case of Phineas Gage contribute to our understanding of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The Case of Phineas Gage and the Importance of the Frontal Lobe

      Phineas Gage was a railroad worker who experienced a traumatic accident where an iron pole went through his frontal lobe. Despite surviving the incident, his personality underwent a significant change. This case was crucial in advancing our knowledge of the frontal lobe’s function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 101 - Acamprosate provides a benefit to individuals with alcohol dependence by acting as an...

    Incorrect

    • Acamprosate provides a benefit to individuals with alcohol dependence by acting as an allosteric modulator at a specific receptor.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GABA-A

      Explanation:

      Allosteric modulators are substances that bind to a receptor and alter the way the receptor responds to stimuli.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 102 - Based on the child's abilities to walk unassisted, stand on their tiptoes, and...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the child's abilities to walk unassisted, stand on their tiptoes, and build a tower of six cubes independently, what would be your estimated age for the child if their development is typical, considering they are unable to sort objects into basic categories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 months

      Explanation:

      Children typically take their first steps between 9 and 12 months of age, and are typically able to walk independently by around 15 months. At the age of two, children are expected to be able to build a tower of six cubes. Sorting objects into categories is a skill that typically develops around the age of three.

      The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants

      Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.

      Child Development Milestones:
      4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
      6 weeks Begins social smiling*
      3 months Holds head steady on sitting
      6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
      7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
      9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
      12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
      18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
      2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
      3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
      4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
      5 years Copies a triangle, skips

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 103 - What is the most common cause of QTc prolongation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram can moderately prolong QTc (>10 msec), while aripiprazole and paliperidone have no effect. Haloperidol and pimozide have a high effect, and quetiapine and amisulpride have a moderate effect. Clozapine, risperidone, and olanzapine have a low effect (<10 msec prolongation). Lamotrigine, mirtazapine, and SSRIs (excluding citalopram) do not have an effect on QTc interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 104 - What type of memory failure is typically associated with the inability to remember...

    Incorrect

    • What type of memory failure is typically associated with the inability to remember where one has placed their car keys?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absent-mindedness

      Explanation:

      The reason behind absent-mindedness is typically due to insufficient activation of the left inferior prefrontal and parahippocampal regions during the initial encoding process, resulting in shallow processing.

      Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure

      Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.

      However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.

      Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.

      Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 105 - What SPECT finding is indicative of Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What SPECT finding is indicative of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased temporal perfusion

      Explanation:

      Given the medial temporal lobe atrophy commonly observed in Alzheimer’s disease, a reduction in perfusion of the temporal lobe would be anticipated.

      Alzheimer’s disease can be differentiated from healthy older individuals by using SPECT imaging to detect temporal and parietal hypoperfusion, according to studies such as one conducted by W. Jagust in 2001. Additionally, SPECT imaging has proven to be a useful tool in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and Lewy body dementia, as demonstrated in a study by Vaamonde-Gamo in 2005. The image provided shows a SPECT scan of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease compared to one with Lewy body dementia, with the latter showing lower perfusion in the occipital cortex and the former showing lower perfusion in medial temporal areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 106 - From which substance is gamma-aminobutyric acid synthesized? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which substance is gamma-aminobutyric acid synthesized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glutamate

      Explanation:

      Glutamate is the precursor for the synthesis of GABA.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 107 - What is a true statement about the endocannabinoid system? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the endocannabinoid system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CB2 receptors are expressed at much lower levels in the central nervous system compared to CB1

      Explanation:

      The Endocannabinoid System and its Role in Psychosis

      The endocannabinoid system (ECS) plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological functions in the body, including cognition, sleep, energy metabolism, and inflammation. It is composed of endogenous cannabinoids, cannabinoid receptors, and proteins that transport, synthesize, and degrade endocannabinoids. The two best-characterized cannabinoid receptors are CB1 and CB2, which primarily couple to inhibitory G proteins and modulate different neurotransmitter systems in the brain.

      Impairment of the ECS after cannabis consumption has been linked to an increased risk of psychotic illness. However, enhancing the ECS with cannabidiol (CBD) has shown anti-inflammatory and antipsychotic outcomes in both healthy study participants and in preliminary clinical trials on people with psychotic illness of at high risk of developing psychosis. Studies have also found increased anandamide levels in the cerebrospinal fluid and blood, as well as increased CB1 expression in peripheral immune cells of people with psychotic illness compared to healthy controls. Overall, understanding the role of the ECS in psychosis may lead to new therapeutic approaches for treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 108 - Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minuchin

      Explanation:

      Family therapy has been shaped by various influential figures, each with their own unique approach. Salvador Minuchin is known for his structural model, which emphasizes the importance of family hierarchy, rules, and boundaries. Gregory Bateson, on the other hand, is associated with paradoxical therapy. Murray Bowen is linked to the family systems approach, while Jay Haley is known for his strategic systemic therapy. Finally, the Milan systemic approach is associated with Mara Selvini Palazzoli. Each of these figures has contributed to the development of family therapy, and their approaches continue to be used and adapted by therapists today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 109 - What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent type of Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Down Syndrome: Causes and Risk Factors

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of extra genetic material from chromosome 21. There are three different types of Down syndrome, each with its own cause and inheritance pattern. The most common form, full trisomy 21, is not inherited and accounts for 95% of cases. It occurs when there is a failure of chromosome 21 to separate properly during cell division, resulting in an extra copy of the chromosome. This can happen randomly, with the extra chromosome coming from the mother 88% of the time and from the father 12% of the time.

      The second type, translocation Down syndrome, is inherited and accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 breaks off and attaches to another chromosome, resulting in extra genetic material. This type of Down syndrome is caused by a balanced translocation, which means that the parent carrying the translocation has no signs of symptoms of the disorder.

      The third type, mosaic Down syndrome, is not inherited and also accounts for 2-3% of cases. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in fetal development, resulting in some cells having an extra copy of chromosome 21 while others do not.

      The risk of having a child with Down syndrome increases as a mother gets older. At age 35, the risk is 1 in 385; at age 40, the risk is 1 in 106; and at age 45, the risk is 1 in 30. It is important for women to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss them with their healthcare provider if they are planning to have a child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 110 - In what category of antipsychotics does risperidone fall under? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what category of antipsychotics does risperidone fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzisoxazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in various ways, including by chemical structure and generation. The two main generations are typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) antipsychotics. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic and belongs to the benzisoxazole class. It works as an antagonist for dopamine D2, 5-HT 2a, histamine-1 receptor, and alpha 1-adrenoceptor. Other antipsychotics belong to different structural categories, such as butyrophenones (e.g. haloperidol), dibenzodiazapines (e.g. clozapine), dibenzothiazapines (e.g. quetiapine), Thienobenzodiazepine (e.g. olanzapine), phenothiazines (e.g. chlorpromazine, trifluoperazine, thioridazine), thioxanthenes (e.g. flupentixol), diphenylbutylpiperidine (e.g. pimozide), substituted benzamides (e.g. sulpiride), and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone) (e.g. aripiprazole).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 111 - What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be used in both males and females

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 112 - What is a true statement about the Brief Psychosis Rating Scale (BPRS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the Brief Psychosis Rating Scale (BPRS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be used for patients who are unable to read of write

      Explanation:

      Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale: An Instrument for Evaluating Psychopathology in Psychiatric Patients

      The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) is a widely used tool for assessing psychopathology in psychiatric patients. It was developed in the 1960s by Overall and Gorham, using factor analysis, to evaluate the severity of schizophrenic states and provide clinicians with a quick way to assess patient change. Initially, the BPRS consisted of 16 items, but two more items were added to create the standard 18-item version. Later, an expanded 24-item version was introduced to measure additional aspects of schizophrenia, such as bizarre behavior, self-neglect, suicidality, elevated mood, motor hyperactivity, and distractibility.

      The BPRS is rated by a clinician, who assesses each item on a 7-point scale of severity. Higher scores indicate greater severity of symptoms. The assessment relies on a combination of self-report and observation. Several variables are rated based on observation, while the rest are assessed through a short interview. The total score severity, using the 18-item version, has been estimated as mildly ill (31), moderately ill (41), and markedly ill (53). The administration of the BPRS can take 10-40 minutes, and versions have been validated for use in both children and older adults. As it is clinician-administered, the BPRS does not require patients to be able to read of write.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 113 - What is the term used to describe genes that are located close to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe genes that are located close to each other on a chromosome and are unlikely to be separated by crossing over?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linked

      Explanation:

      Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics

      In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.

      To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 114 - What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      By week 12 of embryonic development, the lip and palate region is usually completely developed. Cleft lip and palate are primarily caused by the use of anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and steroids as medications.

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 115 - At what point does Piaget's formal operational stage commence? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what point does Piaget's formal operational stage commence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Logical thinking and hypothesis testing

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 116 - A teenager presents to A&E in distress. She claims that she has been...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents to A&E in distress. She claims that she has been transformed into a wolf by a witch doctor. What type of delusion does this represent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lycanthropic

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 117 - In which area of the skull is the structure located in the anterior...

    Incorrect

    • In which area of the skull is the structure located in the anterior cranial fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cribriform plate

      Explanation:

      The ethmoid bone contains the cribriform plate, which acts as a barrier between the nasal cavity and the brain.

      Cranial Fossae and Foramina

      The cranium is divided into three regions known as fossae, each housing different cranial lobes. The anterior cranial fossa contains the frontal lobes and includes the frontal and ethmoid bones, as well as the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes and includes the greater wing of the sphenoid, sella turcica, and most of the temporal bones. The posterior cranial fossa contains the occipital lobes, cerebellum, and medulla and includes the occipital bone.

      There are several foramina in the skull that allow for the passage of various structures. The most important foramina likely to appear in exams are listed below:

      – Foramen spinosum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the middle meningeal artery.
      – Foramen ovale: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
      – Foramen lacerum: located in the middle fossa and allows for the passage of the small meningeal branches of the ascending pharyngeal artery and emissary veins from the cavernous sinus.
      – Foramen magnum: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of the spinal cord.
      – Jugular foramen: located in the posterior fossa and allows for the passage of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI.

      Understanding the location and function of these foramina is essential for medical professionals, as they play a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 118 - This is an example of a verbal fluency test, which assesses a person's...

    Incorrect

    • This is an example of a verbal fluency test, which assesses a person's ability to generate words within a specific category of starting with a particular letter. The man demonstrated good verbal fluency for words starting with F, but his performance decreased when asked to generate words starting with A. This could indicate a difficulty with cognitive flexibility of retrieval of information.

      For instance, during clinical assessment, a 70-year-old woman is asked to name animals beginning with the letter B, which she does, naming ten words in one minute. She is then asked to name animals beginning with the letter G and replies, goat, giraffe....

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perseveration

      Explanation:

      To assess recall failure, the clinician typically asks the client to remember and then recall three objects after a delay. In the scenario described, the client’s difficulty cannot be attributed to a failure to maintain attention on the task, as their performance over the previous minute does not support this interpretation. However, the client’s perseveration in providing examples of words beginning with F suggests a possible issue with set-shifting, while expressive dysphasia may be identified through failure in speech of naming of objects during cognitive assessment. Disorientation, on the other hand, is typically evaluated through ten questions at the beginning of a mini-mental state examination of through screening questions during clinical assessment, and refers to a lack of recognition of place, time, of person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
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  • Question 119 - What is the enzyme responsible for converting 5-hydroxytryptophan into serotonin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme responsible for converting 5-hydroxytryptophan into serotonin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 120 - What is the concept of Conventional Ethics according to Lawrence Kohlberg? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the concept of Conventional Ethics according to Lawrence Kohlberg?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To gain approval from others

      Explanation:

      Attachment theory is a framework that emphasizes the importance of secure emotional bonds and resources in shaping an individual’s development and behavior. It highlights the significance of early relationships and experiences in shaping one’s sense of security and ability to form healthy relationships later in life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 121 - What is the term used to describe the feeling of being unfamiliar with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the feeling of being unfamiliar with a person of situation that is actually known?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jamais vu

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 122 - A child psychologist is conducting an evaluation of a new client who seems...

    Incorrect

    • A child psychologist is conducting an evaluation of a new client who seems to be suppressing of denying some past traumatic events. The psychologist wants to administer a projective personality assessment to the child.
      What would be the most appropriate assessment to use in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Holtzman inkblot technique (HIT)

      Explanation:

      Personality assessment can be approached in two ways: objective and projective. Objective assessment involves structured, standardized measurement tools that typically require self-reporting. This approach uses direct questions to gather information about a person’s opinion of themselves. In contrast, projective assessment involves unstructured and often ambiguous stimuli to elicit responses that reveal information about a person’s personality. The Holtzman inkblot technique (HIT) is an example of a projective measure, while the Eysenck personality questionnaire (EPQ), Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI), and Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI) are all examples of objective measures. The EPQ, PAI, and MCMI all use a true of false self-reporting format to gather information about a person’s personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 123 - In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the...

    Incorrect

    • In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the highest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Young men

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 124 - Whose work on imprinting had a significant impact on the field of attachment?...

    Incorrect

    • Whose work on imprinting had a significant impact on the field of attachment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorenz

      Explanation:

      Imprinting – A Rapid, Unreinforced, Irreversible Attachment in Animals and Humans

      Imprinting is a fascinating phenomenon observed in some animals and humans, where a phase-sensitive attachment is formed towards the first conspicuous object seen after birth of hatching. Konrad Lorenz’s classic experiment with Greylag geese demonstrated that imprinting consists of three stages – following response, attachment development, and sexual preference formation. Imprinting is a rapid process that can occur within minutes, and it does not require any reinforcement to happen. It also occurs during a clearly defined period known as the critical period, and once it happens, it is irreversible.

      Imprinting has been observed in various species, including birds, mammals, and even humans. In humans, imprinting can occur during the early stages of life and can influence social and emotional development. For example, infants may develop an attachment towards their primary caregiver, which can shape their future relationships and social interactions.

      Overall, imprinting is a fascinating and complex phenomenon that highlights the importance of early experiences in shaping an individual’s behavior and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 125 - What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition has been linked to a more affluent social status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Status and Psychiatric Disorders

      Research has shown that certain psychiatric disorders are more prevalent in lower social classes. These disorders include schizophrenia, personality disorder, alcohol dependence, and major depression. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa has been found to be more common in higher social classes. These findings suggest a relationship between social status and mental health, with individuals from lower social classes being at a higher risk for certain psychiatric disorders. This information can be useful in developing targeted interventions and support for individuals from lower social classes who may be struggling with mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 126 - On which chromosome is the candidate gene DISC1, which has been linked to...

    Incorrect

    • On which chromosome is the candidate gene DISC1, which has been linked to schizophrenia, located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 127 - Which of the following is not included in the evaluation of the Edinburgh...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not included in the evaluation of the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoughts to harm the baby

      Explanation:

      Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)

      The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a 10-item self-report questionnaire designed to screen for postnatal depression in primary care settings. It should only be used to assess a women’s mood over the past seven days and cannot be used to diagnose depression. The EPDS excludes some symptoms common in the perinatal period, such as tiredness and irritability, as they do not differentiate between depressed and non-depressed postnatal women. Women are asked to select one of four responses that most closely represents how they have felt over the past seven days. Scores for the 10 items are added together, with a score of 0-9 indicating a low likelihood of depression, 10-12 indicating a moderate likelihood, and 13 of more indicating a high likelihood. The statements include feelings of happiness, sadness, anxiety, and thoughts of self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 128 - What is the initial stage in Mahler's model of child development that aligns...

    Incorrect

    • What is the initial stage in Mahler's model of child development that aligns with the first four weeks of a newborn's life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autistic

      Explanation:

      Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 129 - Which of the following is not commonly linked to restless legs syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not commonly linked to restless legs syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      RLS is not a risk factor for COPD, but COPD is a risk factor for sleep apnoea.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 130 - What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position? ...

    Incorrect

    • What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 131 - A 60-year-old woman presents with cognitive impairment, perseveration, and disinhibition. What neurological signs...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with cognitive impairment, perseveration, and disinhibition. What neurological signs are likely to be observed during her examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palmomental reflex

      Explanation:

      Frontal lobe pathology can result in the elicitation of frontal release signs, such as palmomental reflexes. Ataxia may be present in conditions like normal pressure hydrocephalus, while cogwheel rigidity is commonly found in extrapyramidal syndromes. Contralateral hemisphere dysfunction can lead to postural arm drift. These signs occur when the frontal lobe’s normal inhibition of these responses is released. For more information, see Kipps and Hodges’ article Cognitive assessment for clinicians.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 132 - What is the term used to describe the automatic obedience observed in catatonia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the automatic obedience observed in catatonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitgehen

      Explanation:

      Mitmachen and Mitgehen are two types of reflexive compliance. Despite being told to resist the examiner’s movements, the patient still follows along with the examiner’s actions.

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 133 - What is the recommended duration of treatment for patients with schizophrenia who are...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended duration of treatment for patients with schizophrenia who are starting on an antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-2 years

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Duration of Treatment

      The NICE guidelines do not provide a specific recommendation on the duration of treatment for schizophrenia. However, they do caution patients about the risks of stopping medication.

      According to the guidelines, patients should be informed that there is a high risk of relapse if they stop taking their medication within the next 1-2 years. This suggests that long-term treatment may be necessary to manage symptoms and prevent relapse. It is important for patients to understand the potential consequences of stopping medication and to work closely with their healthcare provider to develop a treatment plan that meets their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 134 - What is a true statement about pregabalin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about pregabalin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a high bioavailability

      Explanation:

      Pregabalin: Pharmacokinetics and Mechanism of Action

      Pregabalin is a medication that acts on the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system. It is known for its anticonvulsant, analgesic, and anxiolytic properties. By decreasing presynaptic calcium currents, it reduces the release of excitatory neurotransmitters that contribute to anxiety. Despite being a GABA analogue, it does not affect GABA receptors of metabolism.

      Pregabalin has predictable and linear pharmacokinetics, making it easy to use in clinical practice. It is rapidly absorbed and proportional to dose, with a time to maximal plasma concentration of approximately 1 hour. Steady state is achieved within 24-48 hours, and efficacy can be observed as early as day two in clinical trials. It has a high bioavailability and a mean elimination half-life of 6.3 hours.

      Unlike many medications, pregabalin is not subject to hepatic metabolism and does not induce of inhibit liver enzymes such as the cytochrome P450 system. It is excreted unchanged by the kidneys and does not bind to plasma proteins. This means that it is unlikely to cause of be affected by pharmacokinetic drug-drug interactions.

      While there is some potential for abuse of pregabalin, the euphoric effects disappear with prolonged use. Overall, pregabalin is a safe and effective medication for the treatment of various conditions, including anxiety and neuropathic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 135 - Which medication has been associated with the occurrence of extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication has been associated with the occurrence of extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      EPSEs have been linked to the use of fluoxetine, and all of the treatment options are utilized to address them.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 136 - Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In zero order reactions, elimination is independent of concentration

      Explanation:

      In zero order kinetics, the elimination of a drug occurs at a constant rate regardless of its concentration in the plasma. This results in a linear relationship between the plasma concentration and time from peak concentration. Unlike drugs that follow first order kinetics, drugs that follow zero order kinetics do not have a fixed half-life.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 137 - What is the mechanism of action of memantine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 138 - What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 139 - A middle-aged man with memory impairment is observed to wear his watch on...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man with memory impairment is observed to wear his watch on his left wrist and then to put on another watch and wear it on his right wrist.

      What phenomenon is being demonstrated in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perseveration

      Explanation:

      Common Behavioral Symptoms in Dementia

      Perseveration is a behavior where a person repeatedly carries out an action beyond its normal usefulness. This behavior is often observed in individuals with dementia. Another behavior seen in dementia is Ambitendency, where a person alternates between two different actions. Echopraxia is an automatic imitation of the interviewer’s movement, even when asked not to. Mannerism is a repetitive action that appears to have some functional significance, such as saluting. Lastly, stereotypy is a repeated, regular movement that appears to have no significance. These behaviors can be challenging for caregivers to manage and may require specialized interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 140 - What is the least dependable indicator of long-term alcohol misuse? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the least dependable indicator of long-term alcohol misuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal striae

      Explanation:

      Hepatomegaly

      Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 141 - What is a significant byproduct of clozapine metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a significant byproduct of clozapine metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: N-desmethylclozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 142 - What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the Hawthorne effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alterations in behaviour due to subjective awareness of being observed

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne Effect and Its Impact on Research

      The Hawthorne effect is a type of observer bias that occurs when individuals modify their behavior because they believe they are being observed. This phenomenon can have a significant impact on research outcomes, as subjects may alter their actions of responses in an attempt to please the observer of researcher. For instance, if a person knows they are being watched while performing a task, they may complete it more quickly of with greater accuracy than they would otherwise. As a result, researchers must be aware of the Hawthorne effect and take steps to minimize its influence on their studies. Failure to do so can lead to inaccurate of misleading results, which can have serious consequences for the validity of the research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 143 - Which condition related to catatonia involves the patient being placed in uncomfortable positions...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition related to catatonia involves the patient being placed in uncomfortable positions that are sustained for a significant amount of time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Waxy flexibility

      Explanation:

      Waxy flexibility involves the examiner imposing postures on the patient, while posturing involves spontaneous postures. On the other hand, mitgehen is a type of automatic obedience where the examiner can easily move the patient’s body with a gentle touch, but unlike waxy flexibility, the body part quickly returns to its original position.

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 144 - What EEG alterations are observed in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What EEG alterations are observed in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Periodic sharp wave complexes

      Explanation:

      The typical EEG pattern for CJD includes periodic sharp wave complexes, which is a diagnostic criterion. Lewy body dementia may show generalized slow wave activity, but if it is more prominent in the temporal and parietal regions, it may indicate Alzheimer’s disease. Toxic encephalopathies, such as lithium toxicity, may show periodic triphasic waves on EEG. For more information, see Smith SJ’s article EEG in neurological conditions other than epilepsy: when does it help, what does it add? (2005).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 145 - Based on the information provided, it is most likely that the 25-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the information provided, it is most likely that the 25-year-old male with schizophrenia, who has no significant medical history, is experiencing symptoms of dehydration and hypoglycemia due to excessive fluid intake and lack of food intake. He has become lethargic and is vomiting, which are common symptoms of dehydration. His low blood glucose level of 4.3 mmol/L indicates that he has not eaten in a while and is experiencing hypoglycemia. It is important to address his dehydration and hypoglycemia promptly to prevent further complications.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient is experiencing hyponatremia due to psychogenic polydipsia, while diabetes mellitus can be ruled out as their blood glucose level is normal. Additionally, lithium toxicity is an unlikely cause as lithium is not typically prescribed for schizophrenia treatment.

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 146 - What are the things that a person prescribed an MAOI should avoid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the things that a person prescribed an MAOI should avoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soy sauce

      Explanation:

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 147 - In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left...

    Incorrect

    • In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Planum temporale

      Explanation:

      Cerebral Asymmetry in Planum Temporale and its Implications in Language and Auditory Processing

      The planum temporale, a triangular region in the posterior superior temporal gyrus, is a highly lateralized brain structure involved in language and music processing. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is up to ten times larger in the left cerebral hemisphere than the right, with this asymmetry being more prominent in men. This asymmetry can be observed in gestation and is present in up to 70% of right-handed individuals.

      Recent research suggests that the planum temporale also plays an important role in auditory processing, specifically in representing the location of sounds in space. However, reduced planum temporale asymmetry has been observed in individuals with dyslexia, stuttering, and schizophrenia. These findings highlight the importance of cerebral asymmetry in the planum temporale and its implications in language and auditory processing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 148 - What category of behavior does saluting fall under? ...

    Incorrect

    • What category of behavior does saluting fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mannerisms

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 149 - What EEG finding has consistently been associated with the use of clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What EEG finding has consistently been associated with the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased alpha, increased theta, increased delta

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 150 - As an examining physician, have you ever encountered a situation where you can...

    Incorrect

    • As an examining physician, have you ever encountered a situation where you can easily move a patient's arm upwards with minimal pressure, despite their attempts to resist? And once you stop applying pressure, the arm returns to its original position? If so, what is this sign called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitgehen

      Explanation:

      Mitgehen is a type of extreme cooperation that is observed in catatonia, where the patient moves their body in the direction of even the slightest pressure. It is crucial that the patient has been instructed to resist manipulation. This phenomenon is also referred to as the ‘angle poise lamp sign’ and is a form of automatic obedience. Catalepsy is another sign seen in catatonia, where patients maintain unusual postures for extended periods of time. In contrast, cataplexy is a sudden loss of muscle tone that leads to collapse and is commonly observed in narcolepsy. Gegenhalten is an involuntary resistance to passive movements. Mitmachen is a milder form of automatic obedience, where the patient’s body can be moved into any position without resistance when instructed to resist manipulation. Mitmachen is less severe than mitgehen, as the pressure required to elicit movements in mitgehen is very minimal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 151 - What is the outcome of bilateral dysfunction in the medial temporal lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the outcome of bilateral dysfunction in the medial temporal lobes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Periods of hypersomnia and altered behavior are characteristic of Kleine-Levin syndrome.

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 152 - In what society is the fear of 'losing face' and the desire to...

    Incorrect

    • In what society is the fear of 'losing face' and the desire to avoid it associated with a significant number of suicides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: South Asian

      Explanation:

      Mediterranean countries typically have lower suicide rates compared to South Asian cultures, where the public loss of credibility, of losing face, is often catastrophize and can lead to a higher incidence of suicide, as seen in Sri Lanka.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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  • Question 153 - Which statement accurately describes the placebo effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the placebo effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placebo response tends to be greater in milder forms of illness

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 154 - Which condition is most commonly associated with the presence of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most commonly associated with the presence of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies containing alpha-synuclein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.

      Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.

      In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.

      Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 155 - What is the primary role of the dentate gyrus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary role of the dentate gyrus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episodic memory

      Explanation:

      A gyrus is a ridge on the cerebral cortex, and there are several important gyri to be aware of in exams. These include the angular gyrus in the parietal lobe for language, mathematics, and cognition; the cingulate gyrus adjacent to the corpus callosum for emotion, learning, and memory; the fusiform gyrus in the temporal lobe for face and body recognition, as well as word and number recognition; the precentral gyrus in the frontal lobe for voluntary movement control; the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe for touch; the lingual gyrus in the occipital lobe for dreaming and word recognition; the superior frontal gyrus in the frontal lobe for laughter and self-awareness; the superior temporal gyrus in the temporal lobe for language and sensation of sound; the parahippocampal gyrus surrounding the hippocampus for memory; and the dentate gyrus in the hippocampus for the formation of episodic memory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 156 - A 35-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia exhibits significant thought disorder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia exhibits significant thought disorder and unpredictable conduct. He is presently residing in a shelter for the homeless and has been observed to have inadequate self-maintenance and social abilities. Based on this information, which subtype of schizophrenia according to ICD-10 is indicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hebephrenic

      Explanation:

      Hebephrenic schizophrenia is a type of schizophrenia that is classified in the ICD-10 as having a greater emphasis on thought disorder than hallucinations, with erratic of disorganized behavior being prominent. The DSM-IV equivalent is disorganized schizophrenia. Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by abnormalities in psychomotor function. Paranoid schizophrenia is characterized by paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations. Simple schizophrenia is not a suitable option because it is a subtype of schizophrenia that is characterized by a decline in functioning as the only clear symptom. Undifferentiated schizophrenia refers to a presentation of schizophrenia that does not fit into a specific subtype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 157 - Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 158 - Which of the following is the most probable outcome of muscarinic receptor antagonism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most probable outcome of muscarinic receptor antagonism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Memory impairment

      Explanation:

      The sole anticholinergic side effect is memory impairment, while the remaining choices are instances of cholinergic side effects.

      Receptors and Side-Effects

      Histamine H1 Blockade:
      – Weight gain
      – Sedation

      Alpha 1 Blockade:
      – Orthostatic hypotension
      – Sedation
      – Sexual dysfunction
      – Priapism

      Muscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
      – Agitation
      – Delirium
      – Memory impairment
      – Confusion
      – Seizures

      Muscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
      – Dry mouth
      – Ataxia
      – Blurred vision
      – Narrow angle glaucoma
      – Constipation
      – Urinary retention
      – Tachycardia

      Each receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 159 - Which antidepressant specifically targets the inhibition of noradrenaline reuptake and does not have...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant specifically targets the inhibition of noradrenaline reuptake and does not have significant affinity for 5-HT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reboxetine

      Explanation:

      Reboxetine, Atomoxetine, and Maprotiline are all important Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (NRIs) that specifically target noradrenaline.

      Antidepressants: Mechanism of Action

      Antidepressants are a class of drugs used to treat depression and other mood disorders. The mechanism of action of antidepressants varies depending on the specific drug. Here are some examples:

      Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSa). It works by blocking certain receptors in the brain, including 5HT-1, 5HT-2, 5HT-3, and H1 receptors. It also acts as a presynaptic alpha 2 antagonist, which stimulates the release of noradrenaline and serotonin.

      Venlafaxine and duloxetine are both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They work by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Reboxetine is a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of noradrenaline, which increases its availability in the brain.

      Bupropion is a noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI). It works by blocking the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, which increases their availability in the brain.

      Trazodone is a weak serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI) and 5HT agonist. It works by increasing the availability of serotonin in the brain.

      St John’s Wort is a natural supplement that has been used to treat depression. It has a weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) effect and a weak SNRI effect.

      In summary, antidepressants work by increasing the availability of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as serotonin, noradrenaline, and dopamine. The specific mechanism of action varies depending on the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 160 - What is an example of a biogenic amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a biogenic amine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histamine

      Explanation:

      Biogenic Amines: Understanding the Neurotransmitters

      Biogenic amines are a class of compounds that are derived from amino acids. These compounds play a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline, and dopamine), serotonin, and histamine. A useful mnemonic to remember these neurotransmitters is HANDS (Histamine, Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, Dopamine, Serotonin).

      Catecholamines are involved in the body’s response to stress and are responsible for the fight or flight response. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are catecholamines that are released by the adrenal glands in response to stress. Dopamine is involved in the reward system of the brain and is associated with pleasure and motivation.

      Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in mood regulation, appetite, and sleep. It is also involved in the regulation of pain and the perception of pain.

      Histamine is involved in the immune response and is responsible for the symptoms of allergies. It is also involved in the regulation of sleep and wakefulness.

      Understanding the role of biogenic amines in the nervous system is crucial for the development of treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 161 - How can an individual's race be distinguished from their ethnicity based on certain...

    Incorrect

    • How can an individual's race be distinguished from their ethnicity based on certain factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biological measurement

      Explanation:

      The concept of ‘race’ is based on physical traits and is believed to have a biological foundation, while ‘ethnicity’ is the preferred term used by researchers studying different cultures to describe groups of people who share a common identity, ancestry, and history, as well as some shared beliefs. It is important to note that a particular race, such as Caucasian, can encompass multiple ethnicities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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  • Question 162 - A teenage girl shoplifts a piece of jewelry from a boutique. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl shoplifts a piece of jewelry from a boutique. She is apprehended and when her mother asks her why she did it, she explains that she believed it was acceptable because she didn't think she would be caught. Based on Kohlberg's theory, which stage of moral development does she seem to exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obedience and punishment orientation

      Explanation:

      His actions are influenced by his anticipation of receiving punishment of not.

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 163 - Which of the following is associated with the anti-psychiatry movement? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with the anti-psychiatry movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Szasz

      Explanation:

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 164 - A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night....

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night. She spots what appears to be a figure of a person in the distance and decides to cross the street. Upon approaching, she realizes that it was just a shadow created by a nearby streetlight. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An illusion

      Explanation:

      An affect illusion is when a person’s perception is distorted by the shadow cast from a tree. Hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when there is no external stimulus present. It is important to note that a delusion is a belief, rather than a perception.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 165 - How do mental health services contribute to social inclusion? ...

    Incorrect

    • How do mental health services contribute to social inclusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consult service users and carers about how to provide services

      Explanation:

      1. Social inclusion is a key goal of mental health policy in the UK and Europe.
      2. Achieving social inclusion requires significant social change.
      3. Mental health services can promote social inclusion in certain circumstances.
      4. Consulting with service users and carers is one strategy to promote social inclusion in psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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  • Question 166 - What brain structure is involved in the reward system and receives dopaminergic input...

    Incorrect

    • What brain structure is involved in the reward system and receives dopaminergic input from the ventral tegmental area through the mesolimbic dopamine pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Brain Anatomy

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions responsible for different functions. The major areas of the cerebrum (telencephalon) include the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe, insula, corpus callosum, fornix, anterior commissure, and striatum. The cerebrum is responsible for complex learning, language acquisition, visual and auditory processing, memory, and emotion processing.

      The diencephalon includes the thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary, pineal gland, and mammillary body. The thalamus is a major relay point and processing center for all sensory impulses (excluding olfaction). The hypothalamus and pituitary are involved in homeostasis and hormone release. The pineal gland secretes melatonin to regulate circadian rhythms. The mammillary body is a relay point involved in memory.

      The cerebellum is primarily concerned with movement and has two major hemispheres with an outer cortex made up of gray matter and an inner region of white matter. The cerebellum provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for smooth, coordinated movements and agility needed for daily life.

      The brainstem includes the substantia nigra, which is involved in controlling and regulating activities of the motor and premotor cortical areas for smooth voluntary movements, eye movement, reward seeking, the pleasurable effects of substance misuse, and learning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 167 - What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which messenger...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which messenger RNA (mRNA) is synthesized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transcription

      Explanation:

      Transcription is the process of converting DNA into messenger RNA (mRNA) and takes place in the nucleus of a cell. RNA is similar to DNA, but with a ribose sugar backbone instead of deoxyribose, and uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).

      After transcription, the mRNA is transported out of the nucleus and undergoes translation in the cytoplasm to form a protein. Ribosomes bind to the mRNA, and transfer RNA (tRNA) reads the genetic code to create the protein.

      Recombination is the process of DNA detaching from one chromosome and attaching to another, resulting in new variations of chromosomes. In eukaryotes, this typically occurs during meiosis between homologous chromosome pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 168 - Who is responsible for creating the term 'antidepressant'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is responsible for creating the term 'antidepressant'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lurie

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 169 - Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks 5HT2A, 5HT2C and 5HT3 serotonin receptors

      Explanation:

      Duloxetine boosts serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels by functioning as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). On the other hand, Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and specific serotonergic agent (NaSSA) that acts as an alpha 2 antagonist, increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 170 - Which aspect is not assessed through the Clock Drawing Test? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which aspect is not assessed through the Clock Drawing Test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orientation to time

      Explanation:

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 171 - What accurately describes Maslow's initial hierarchy of needs consisting of 5 levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • What accurately describes Maslow's initial hierarchy of needs consisting of 5 levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self actualisation involves the most complex form of needs

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 172 - Whilst walking through the park, a teenager makes a hurtful comment towards their...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst walking through the park, a teenager makes a hurtful comment towards their friend. The friend feels too upset to confront them but points out the beautiful flowers in the garden. What defense mechanism is being demonstrated in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      This scenario highlights the distinction between projection and projective identification. The woman is projecting her own sadness onto the cows, as she is unable to acknowledge of process her emotions. In projective identification, the recipient of the projection internalizes and identifies with the projected feelings. However, since it is impossible for the cows to experience human emotions, the correct term for this situation is projection.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 173 - A 45-year-old woman presents to a dual-diagnosis outpatient clinic for psychiatric evaluation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to a dual-diagnosis outpatient clinic for psychiatric evaluation. She reports an increase in her alcohol consumption over the past week due to frustration with her colleagues and partner. Over the past two weeks, she has been more productive at work, leading to conflicts with her colleagues whom she accuses of holding her back. She frequently argues with her partner, who accuses her of being too friendly with male colleagues. She has experienced similar episodes in the past, lasting about a month and occurring twice a year. During these times, she drinks more alcohol than usual as she finds it difficult to relax and fall asleep in the evenings. She is concerned that her alcohol consumption could have negative health consequences if this pattern continues. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II bipolar affective disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a hypomanic episode, which is characterized by increased concentration, productivity, over-familiarity, possible increased sexual drive, and poor sleep. Her alcohol use is likely a result of her mood disturbance. Although she has shown increased irritability and alcohol consumption, she has been able to maintain her employment and there is no evidence of psychosis. Based on these symptoms, the patient can be diagnosed with hypomania, rather than cyclothymia of depressive disorder. It is common for individuals with bipolar affective disorder to have comorbid substance misuse. However, the patient’s alcohol use appears to be secondary to her disrupted sleep and other signs of mood disturbance, rather than harmful alcohol use disorder. It is important to note that the patient does not meet the criteria for type I bipolar disorder, as she has not experienced episodes of mania of severe disruption to social functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 174 - What is the BMI of a girl who visited the clinic due to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the BMI of a girl who visited the clinic due to concerns from her GP about her lack of eating, and has a weight of 50 kg and a height of 165cm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18 of above

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of Obesity

      Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.

      Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.

      Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 175 - A senior citizen with bipolar disorder complains of nausea and vomiting, confusion, and...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen with bipolar disorder complains of nausea and vomiting, confusion, and difficulty with coordination. You suspect lithium toxicity despite a normal level of lithium in the blood. What tests can be done to confirm this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: EEG

      Explanation:

      Confirmation of lithium toxicity cannot be solely based on a normal serum lithium level. EEG is a more reliable method, as it can detect diffuse slowing and triphasic waves, which are characteristic features of lithium toxicity. CT and MRI brain scans are not helpful in confirming lithium toxicity. While ECG may show changes such as arrhythmias and flattened of inverted T-waves, they are not sufficient to confirm lithium toxicity. A lumbar puncture can rule out an infectious cause for the symptoms but cannot confirm lithium toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 176 - Where do macroscopic abnormalities typically appear in the brains of individuals with dyslexia?...

    Incorrect

    • Where do macroscopic abnormalities typically appear in the brains of individuals with dyslexia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Planum temporale

      Explanation:

      Brain Abnormalities in Dyslexia

      Individuals with dyslexia often exhibit a loss of the typical left-right asymmetry at the planum temporale in the temporal lobe. However, this abnormality can also be observed in the brains of individuals without dyslexia, making it a sensitive but not specific marker for the disorder. None of the other brain regions mentioned are associated with dyslexia. The pineal gland, located in the epithalamus, secretes melatonin. The third interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus is larger in heterosexual men compared to homosexual men and heterosexual women. The medulla oblongata is located in the brainstem, and the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus relays visual information from the retina to the occipital cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 177 - A 62-year-old man experiences a stroke caused by a ruptured berry aneurysm in...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man experiences a stroke caused by a ruptured berry aneurysm in the middle cerebral artery, resulting in damage to the temporal lobe. What tests would you anticipate to show abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Copying intersecting pentagons

      Explanation:

      When the parietal lobe is not functioning properly, it can cause constructional apraxia. This condition makes it difficult for individuals to replicate the intersecting pentagons, which is a common cognitive test included in Folstein’s mini-mental state examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 178 - Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In Zero order reactions the half-life decreases as the concentration falls

      Explanation:

      In contrast to first order reactions, drugs that exhibit zero order kinetics do not have a fixed half-life, as the rate of drug elimination remains constant regardless of the drug concentration in the plasma. The relationship between time and plasma concentration in zero order kinetics is linear, whereas in first order reactions, the half-life remains constant.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 179 - An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of...

    Incorrect

    • An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of the following medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The previously assumed higher risk is now uncertain and may not actually exist. We include this question to ensure that you are aware of the past association, as it may still be present in exam materials that have not been revised.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 180 - Which structure is most commonly observed to have pallor in individuals with Lewy...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is most commonly observed to have pallor in individuals with Lewy body dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.

      Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.

      In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.

      Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 181 - What is a true statement about failures in memory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about failures in memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocking can occur with both semantic and episodic memory

      Explanation:

      Memory: Encoding, Storage, Retrieval, and Failure

      Memory is a complex process that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Encoding refers to how information is placed into memory, and it can be improved by organizing data using techniques such as chunking and mnemonics. Storage refers to keeping information in memory, which can be short-term of long-term. Retrieval refers to getting information back from memory when needed, and it can be affected by primacy and recency effects.

      However, memory is not infallible, and there are seven ways in which it tends to fail. Transience refers to the decreasing accessibility of memory over time, while absent-mindedness is characterized by lapses of attention and forgetting to do things. Blocking is the temporary inaccessibility of stored information, while suggestibility involves the incorporation of misinformation into memory due to leading questions of deception.

      Bias refers to retrospective distortions produced by current knowledge and beliefs, while persistence involves unwanted recollections that people cannot forget, such as the intrusive memories of post-traumatic stress disorder. Finally, misattribution refers to the attribution of memories to incorrect sources of believing that one has seen of heard something that they have not, such as in the case of deja vu of cryptomnesia.

      Overall, memory is a complex and active process that can be affected by various factors, leading to failures in encoding, storage, retrieval, and attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 182 - Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 183 - Levinson's theory of development identifies the midlife transition as occurring during which time...

    Incorrect

    • Levinson's theory of development identifies the midlife transition as occurring during which time frame?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40-45

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 184 - A 28-year-old woman has a history of drug addiction, but has been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has a history of drug addiction, but has been in recovery for the past year. She is now interested in becoming a bus driver and is undergoing training. What is the most probable outcome when she applies for a Group 2 (lorry/bus) licence through the DVLA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He will be refused a vocational licence to drive a lorry/bus

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has guidelines for obtaining a vocational licence for Group 2 entitlement (LGV/PCV), which state that a licence will not be granted if there has been a history of alcohol dependence within the past three years. Alcohol dependence is a condition that develops after repeated alcohol use and includes a strong desire to consume alcohol, difficulty controlling its use, continued use despite harmful consequences, increased tolerance, and sometimes physical withdrawal symptoms. Indicators of alcohol dependence may include a history of withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, detoxification, and/of alcohol-related seizures. For Group 1 entitlement (car, motorcycle), confirmed alcohol dependence requires licence revocation of refusal until a one-year period free from alcohol problems has been achieved. Abstinence and normalization of blood parameters, if relevant, will typically be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 185 - What is the definition of the term 'prolixity'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the term 'prolixity'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A less severe form of flight of ideas

      Explanation:

      Prolixity is a minor form of flight of ideas that can occur during hypomania. It is characterized by a decrease in clang and verbal associations, and a more focused direction of thought. The speed of thought is also not as rapid as in other forms of flight of ideas.

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 186 - If there is no plasma assay available for the drug, measuring prolactin levels...

    Incorrect

    • If there is no plasma assay available for the drug, measuring prolactin levels may be helpful in verifying adherence to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum prolactin levels are a known side effect of Risperidone. Similarly, Amisulpride, Haloperidol, Paliperidone, and Sulpiride are also antipsychotics that can cause increased prolactin levels. However, Aripiprazole, Clozapine, Olanzapine, and Quetiapine are typically not associated with elevated prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 187 - Which inhibitory neurotransmitter's receptor is blocked by strychnine, resulting in strychnine poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which inhibitory neurotransmitter's receptor is blocked by strychnine, resulting in strychnine poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glycine

      Explanation:

      The primary neurotransmitters that promote neural activity are glutamate and aspartate, while the primary neurotransmitters that inhibit neural activity are GABA and glycine.

      Glycine and its Antagonist Strychnine

      Glycine is a neurotransmitter that binds to a receptor, which increases the permeability of the postsynaptic membrane to chloride ions. This results in hyperpolarization of the membrane, making it less likely to depolarize and thus, glycine acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

      On the other hand, strychnine is a glycine antagonist that can bind to the glycine receptor without opening the chloride ion-channel. This inhibition of inhibition leads to spinal hyperexcitability, which is why strychnine is a poison. The binding of strychnine to the glycine receptor prevents glycine from performing its inhibitory function, leading to an increase in the likelihood of depolarization and causing hyperexcitability. Therefore, the effects of glycine and strychnine on the glycine receptor are opposite, with glycine acting as an inhibitor and strychnine acting as an excitatory agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 188 - A 45-year-old man experiences intense anxiety when approaching bridges of overpasses. He attributes...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man experiences intense anxiety when approaching bridges of overpasses. He attributes this to an episode several years ago when he witnessed a car accident on a bridge. Since then, he has had repetitive, intense imagery of himself of others falling off the bridge and into the water below. He is distressed by these thoughts and tries to avoid bridges of overpasses whenever possible. He recognizes the thoughts as his own but fears they represent a desire to harm himself of others, which he does not want to do at any other time. What is the best way to describe his anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessive thought

      Explanation:

      A woman is experiencing an obsessive thought that manifests as persistent imagery, which she cannot control. She tries to suppress the thought, indicating the development of compulsive behavior. She may also experience autoscopic hallucinations, where she sees a hallucinatory double of herself. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that she uses to alleviate anxiety caused by obsessive experiences, which can be either motor of cognitive. Additionally, she may experience ruminative cognitions, which are repetitive thoughts that do not lead to any conclusion. In some cases, she may also experience thought insertion, where she attributes the source of the image to an external force.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 189 - What is the most prominent characteristic linked to transient global amnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prominent characteristic linked to transient global amnesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Memory deficits are global

      Explanation:

      Other organic amnesic syndromes, such as Korsakoff’s syndrome (whether caused by alcohol of not), may exhibit confabulation, but in transient global amnesia, there is only a temporary loss of recent memory and impaired new learning, without any other cognitive abnormalities. Patients remain alert and responsive, and their personal identity is not affected. The prevailing theory is that this amnesia is caused by a temporary dysfunction in the limbic-hippocampus circuits that are essential for memory formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
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  • Question 190 - What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulpiride

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 191 - A woman is eager to quit drinking alcohol but is hesitant to use...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is eager to quit drinking alcohol but is hesitant to use antabuse. She is advised to visualize a scenario in her mind whenever she feels the urge to drink, where she is drinking by herself in her home and sobbing because her loved ones have abandoned her due to her addiction to alcohol. What is the name of this method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Covert sensitisation

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 192 - Which domain is not included in the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which domain is not included in the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reasoning and judgement

      Explanation:

      A limitation of the ACE-III is that it does not have a dedicated assessment for evaluating reasoning and decision-making abilities.

      The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia

      The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.

      The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 193 - What is the preferred method for identifying alcohol dependence and risky drinking in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred method for identifying alcohol dependence and risky drinking in primary care settings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      In primary care settings, AUDIT is a reliable tool for identifying both hazardous drinking and alcohol dependence, while CAGE is primarily effective in detecting dependence.

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 194 - You are requested to conduct a liaison psychiatry evaluation on a 78-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to conduct a liaison psychiatry evaluation on a 78-year-old woman admitted to a medical ward with a COPD flare-up and suspected depression.
      What are some characteristics of depression in the elderly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypochondriacal symptoms may be more frequently reported than sadness of low mood

      Explanation:

      There is a lower likelihood of elderly patients reporting feelings of sadness compared to younger patients with depression, and they may instead present with physical complaints. Depression rates in the elderly are often linked to physical health issues rather than just aging. There is no evidence to suggest that elderly depressed patients have a higher risk of developing dementia. The prognosis for depression in the elderly is similar to that of younger patients, and venlafaxine is safe to use in this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 195 - What is a true statement about multiple sclerosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mean age of onset is between 20 and 40

      Explanation:

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 196 - What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid...

    Incorrect

    • What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid potential complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Pseudocholinesterase Deficiency

      Pseudocholinesterase deficiency, also known as butyrylcholinesterase deficiency, is a medical condition that can lead to increased sensitivity to certain drugs. This condition affects approximately 1 in 3200 to 1 in 5000 people, with higher prevalence in certain populations such as the Persian Jewish community and Alaska Natives. Interestingly, this condition does not cause any noticeable symptoms until an abnormal drug reaction occurs.

      It is important for individuals with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid certain drugs, including donepezil, galantamine, procaine, succinylcholine, and pilocarpine. By avoiding these drugs, individuals with this condition can reduce their risk of experiencing adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 197 - Who developed a stage theory of child development and coined the term schema...

    Incorrect

    • Who developed a stage theory of child development and coined the term schema to refer to the manner in which children structure their learning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jean Piaget

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 198 - A middle-aged individual who has been struggling with addiction for several years successfully...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged individual who has been struggling with addiction for several years successfully completes a rehabilitation program and begins to pursue career opportunities. Which of Rapoport's principles would this situation align with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Democracy

      Explanation:

      The culture of empowerment in a therapeutic community involves democratisation, which is demonstrated through voting, decision-making, and achieving seniority. This is essential in developing an individual’s sense of agency and ability to carry out meaningful actions. Rapoport’s four principles, which define the work of a therapeutic community, include permissiveness, democracy, reality confrontation, and communalism. These principles are updated by Haigh, with containment corresponding to permissiveness, communication to communalism, involvement to reality confrontation, and agency to democracy. Overall, the therapeutic community aims to provide support, establish rules and boundaries, confront reality, and foster a sense of shared responsibility among its members.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 199 - What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Habituation

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 200 - Which of the following medications has a chemical composition that closely resembles diazepam?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications has a chemical composition that closely resembles diazepam?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Chlordiazepoxide belongs to the benzodiazepine class of drugs and shares a similar chemical structure with diazepam.
      Clomethiazole is a type of hypnotic that is not classified as a benzodiazepine.
      Chloroquine is primarily used as an antimalarial medication.
      Chlorphenamine is an antihistamine drug.
      Chlorpromazine is classified as a typical antipsychotic medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (2/3) 67%
Genetics (0/3) 0%
Classification And Assessment (0/3) 0%
Psychopharmacology (0/4) 0%
Diagnosis (1/1) 100%
Psychological Development (2/2) 100%
Passmed