-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 78-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of fresh red blood in his stool, tenesmus, and a change in bowel habit that has persisted for 7 weeks. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes amlodipine and amlodipine without any allergies. During a digital rectal examination, an irregular mass is detected in the anterior aspect of the rectum. The patient is immediately referred for a flexible sigmoidoscopy, which reveals an adenocarcinoma in the anal canal below the pectinate line.
In this patient, what is the lymph node region where metastatic spread is most likely to occur initially?Your Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes
Explanation:The lymphatic drainage of the anal canal below the pectinate line is provided by the superficial inguinal nodes. These nodes also drain the lower limbs, scrotum/vulva, and the rectum below the pectinate line. The ileocolic nodes primarily drain the ileum and proximal ascending colon, while the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the hindgut structures. The internal iliac nodes drain the inferior rectum, anal canal above the pectinate line, and pelvic viscera. The para-aortic nodes do not directly drain the portion of the rectum below the pectinate line, but they do drain the testes/ovaries.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy presents to the Emergency department with rectal bleeding and periumbilical pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant. The medical team suspects appendicitis but instead diagnoses Meckel's diverticulum. What is a true statement about this condition?
Your Answer: Affects more females than males
Correct Answer: Normally occurs 2 feet from the ileocaecal junction
Explanation:Meckel’s Diverticulum: A Congenital Bulge in the Small Bowel
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital bulge that occurs in the small bowel. It affects approximately 2% of the population and is typically 2 inches long. The diverticulum is located about 2ft from the ileocaecal junction and affects twice as many males as females. While most patients do not experience any symptoms, inflamed diverticula can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. However, painless rectal bleeding and a history of similar symptoms can help distinguish between the two conditions.
Overall, Meckel’s diverticulum is a relatively common condition that can cause discomfort and mimic other conditions. its features and potential symptoms can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Sophie, a 35-year-old female, is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being involved in a car accident.
Upon conducting several tests, an X-ray reveals that she has sustained a mid shaft humeral fracture.
What is the structure that is typically most vulnerable to injury in cases of mid shaft humeral fractures?Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which muscle is innervated by the cervical branch of the facial nerve?
Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid
Correct Answer: Platysma
Explanation:Platysma is innervated by the cervical branch of the facial nerve.
The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.
The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 43-year-old woman presents to the respiratory ward with an 8-day history of fever, dry cough, and shortness of breath. She recently returned from a vacation in southern Spain. The patient has a medical history of type 1 diabetes.
The chest x-ray shows bi-basal opacification. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 127 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 12.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120), and CRP 199 mg/L (< 5).
What type of culture medium is required to cultivate the probable causative agent?Your Answer: Charcoal yeast agar
Explanation:Charcoal yeast agar (with cysteine) is the correct culture medium for isolating Legionella pneumophila, the bacterium responsible for atypical pneumonia. This organism is commonly associated with individuals who have recently traveled and stayed in air-conditioned rooms, as seen in this patient’s clinical history. In addition to respiratory symptoms, Legionella pneumophila can also cause extra-pulmonary symptoms such as hyponatremia. Therefore, charcoal yeast agar is the appropriate medium for culturing this organism.
Bordet-Gengou agar, chocolate agar, and Loeffler’s media are all incorrect choices for this patient’s presentation as they are used for culturing different organisms such as Bordetella pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Corynebacterium diphtheriae, respectively.
Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which one of the following structures lies posterior to the femoral nerve in the femoral triangle?
Your Answer: Iliacus
Explanation:The femoral nerve is located in front of the iliacus muscle within the femoral triangle. Meanwhile, the iliacus and pectineus muscles are situated behind the femoral sheath.
The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.
To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Oliver is an 80-year-old man with known left-sided heart failure. He has a left ventricular ejection fraction of 31%. He has recently been admitted to the cardiology ward as the doctors are concerned his condition is worsening. He is short of breath on exertion and has peripheral oedema.
Upon reviewing his ECG, you note a right bundle branch block (RBBB) indicative of right ventricular hypertrophy. You also observe that this was present on an ECG of his on an emergency department admission last month.
What is the most likely cause of the RBBB in Oliver?Your Answer: Rheumatic heart disease
Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale
Explanation:A frequent underlying cause of RBBB that persists over time is right ventricular hypertrophy, which may result from the spread of left-sided heart failure to the right side of the heart. Oliver’s shortness of breath is likely due to an accumulation of fluid in the lungs, which can increase pulmonary perfusion pressure and lead to right ventricular strain and hypertrophy. This type of right heart failure that arises from left heart failure is known as cor-pulmonale. While a pulmonary embolism or rheumatic heart disease can also cause right ventricular strain, they are less probable in this case. Myocardial infarction typically presents with chest pain, which is not mentioned in the question stem regarding Oliver’s symptoms.
Right bundle branch block is a frequently observed abnormality on ECGs. It can be differentiated from left bundle branch block by remembering the phrase WiLLiaM MaRRoW. In RBBB, there is a ‘M’ in V1 and a ‘W’ in V6, while in LBBB, there is a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6.
There are several potential causes of RBBB, including normal variation which becomes more common with age, right ventricular hypertrophy, chronically increased right ventricular pressure (such as in cor pulmonale), pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, atrial septal defect (ostium secundum), and cardiomyopathy or myocarditis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female comes to you with a similar concern about her 'unsightly toe'. She has been hesitant to wear open-toed shoes due to the appearance of her toe. After taking some clippings and sending them to the lab, the results confirm onychomycosis. You decide to prescribe a 6-month course of terbinafine.
What is the mechanism of action of terbinafine?Your Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Squalene epoxidase inhibitor
Explanation:Terbinafine causes cellular death by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase, which is responsible for the biosynthesis of ergosterol – an essential component of fungal cell membranes.
Rifampicin suppresses RNA synthesis and causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Digoxin, which is not an antibiotic, inhibits Na+K+ATPase.
Quinolones prevent bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating by inhibiting DNA topoisomerase.
Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by binding to dihydrofolate reductase and preventing the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF), which is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of renal colic. Upon conducting tests, the following results are obtained:
Corrected Calcium 3.84 mmol/l
PTH 88 pg/ml (increased)
Her serum urea and electrolytes are within normal range.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this scenario is primary hyperparathyroidism, as serum urea and electrolytes are normal, making tertiary hyperparathyroidism less likely.
Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.
The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 75-year-old male presents to the GP clinic complaining of increased shortness of breath during physical activity and swelling in both ankles. The GP schedules an echocardiogram for him as an outpatient. During the echocardiogram, the patient's heart rate was 72 bpm and blood pressure was 136/88 mmHg. The results of the echocardiogram show an end-diastolic volume of 105ml and an end-systolic volume of 65ml. What is the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of this patient?
Your Answer: 40%
Explanation:Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old female presents to her family physician with complaints of post-coital pain. She initially attributed it to her age, but lately, she has been experiencing a constant dull pain in her pelvis. Additionally, she reports having a foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. Her medical and surgical history is unremarkable, but she mentions having multiple sexual partners during her teenage years and twenties. She has been smoking ten cigarettes a day for the past decade and does not consume alcohol. During the examination, the doctor discovers an irregular mass on her cervix. What is the primary mechanism behind the most significant risk factor for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Cigarette smoking produces dysplasia of the squamocolumnar junction leading to cervical cancer
Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16 and 18 produces oncoproteins which causes inhibition of the tumor suppressor genes causing cervical carcinoma
Explanation:The patient is displaying typical signs and symptoms of cervical carcinoma, with a constant dull pelvic pain indicating possible invasion of pelvic structures and nerves. The strongest risk factor for this patient is having had multiple sexual partners at a young age, which increases the likelihood of being infected with the human papillomavirus.
1: Multiple sexual partners are the strongest risk factor for cervical carcinoma due to the increased chance of contracting the human papillomavirus, specifically the 16 and 18 viral strains that inhibit the tumor suppressor genes p53 and RB, triggering carcinogenesis.
2: While cigarette smoking can have an oncogenic effect, it is not the primary risk factor in this case.
3: HIV is a risk factor for cervical carcinoma, but it is less common than the human papillomavirus.
4: The human papillomavirus is the primary risk factor, but it does not activate oncogenes. Instead, it inhibits tumor suppressor genes.
5: Age alone is not a risk factor for cervical carcinoma. However, an older person who has been exposed to the human papillomavirus may have a higher risk due to the longer exposure time for the virus to induce carcinogenesis via the inhibition of tumor suppressor genes.HPV Infection and Cervical Cancer
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, with subtypes 16, 18, and 33 being the most carcinogenic. Other common subtypes, such as 6 and 11, are associated with genital warts but are not carcinogenic. When endocervical cells become infected with HPV, they may undergo changes that lead to the development of koilocytes. These cells have distinct characteristics, including an enlarged nucleus, irregular nuclear membrane contour, hyperchromasia (darker staining of the nucleus), and a perinuclear halo. These changes are important diagnostic markers for cervical cancer and can be detected through Pap smears or other screening methods. Early detection and treatment of HPV infection and cervical cancer can greatly improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man visits the endocrinology clinic complaining of muscle cramps, headaches, and lethargy. During the clinic visit, his vital signs are heart rate 80/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 150/100 mmHg, temperature 36.5ºC, and saturations 99% on air. Recent blood tests reveal:
- Na+ 147 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
An adrenal mass is detected on his abdominal CT scan. Can you identify where the hormone responsible for his symptoms is produced?Your Answer: Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The correct answer is the zona glomerulosa. This patient is experiencing symptoms of hyperaldosteronism, which is likely caused by an adenoma in the zona glomerulosa, as indicated by the mass seen on CT scan (also known as Conn’s syndrome). The adenoma stimulates the production of aldosterone, leading to hypertension and hypokalemia.
The adrenal medulla produces catecholamines, such as adrenaline and noradrenaline.
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located in the kidney and produces renin in response to decreased renal perfusion.
The zona fasciculata is the middle layer of the adrenal cortex and is responsible for producing glucocorticoids, such as cortisol.
The zona reticularis is the innermost layer of the adrenal cortex and produces androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and undergoes a bronchoscopy. The carina is noted to be widened. Where does the trachea bifurcate?
Your Answer: T5
Explanation:The trachea divides into two branches at the fifth thoracic vertebrae, or sometimes the sixth in individuals who are tall.
Anatomy of the Trachea
The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.
In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.
In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male patient, who has recently returned from India, presents to the clinic with fever, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and two episodes of profuse, bloody stools. Physical examination indicates tenderness in the right upper quadrant but no guarding or rigidity. The vital signs show a heart rate of 96 beats/min, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, a temperature of 37.2ºC (98.96ºF), and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min. Ultrasound abdomen reveals a hypoechoic mass in the posterior liver. CT scan of the abdomen detects a low-density mass with peripheral enhancing rim consistent with an abscess on the posterior part of the right lobe of the liver.
What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation:Entamoeba histolytica is the cause of amoebiasis, a disease that affects a significant portion of the population and spreads through the faecal-oral route. While some patients may not show any symptoms, others may experience mild or severe symptoms such as fever, abdominal pain, profuse bloody diarrhoea, and liver or colonic abscess. Amoebic liver abscess typically appears as a single mass in the right lobe, sometimes multiple, with contents resembling ‘anchovy sauce’.
Bacillus cereus is an incorrect answer as it causes food poisoning through contaminated foods like rice, potatoes, and cheese, leading to watery diarrhoea.
Campylobacter jejuni can cause bloody diarrhoea, but it is usually preceded by prodromal symptoms like fever, rigours, dizziness, and body aches. It spreads through raw milk, undercooked poultry, and contaminated water.
Clostridium difficile is also incorrect as it causes antibiotic-associated diarrhoea, which occurs after antibiotic treatment alters the microbial flora of the large intestine, making it susceptible to infection by Clostridium difficile.
Understanding Amoebiasis
Amoebiasis is a disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica, a type of protozoan that spreads through the faecal-oral route. It is a prevalent disease, with an estimated 10% of the world’s population being chronically infected. The infection can be asymptomatic, cause mild diarrhoea, or severe amoebic dysentery. Amoebiasis can also lead to liver and colonic abscesses.
Amoebic dysentery is a severe form of the disease that causes profuse, bloody diarrhoea. The incubation period for this type of amoebiasis can be long, and stool microscopy may show trophozoites if examined within 15 minutes or kept warm. Treatment for amoebic dysentery is with metronidazole.
Amoebic liver abscess is another type of amoebiasis that usually appears as a single mass in the right lobe, although it may be multiple. The contents of the abscess are often described as ‘anchovy sauce,’ and the patient may experience fever and RUQ pain. Serology is positive in more than 90% of cases.
Treatment for invasive amoebiasis should be followed by a luminal amoebicide to eradicate the cystic stage, which is resistant to metronidazole and tinidazole, the drugs used against the invasive stage. Understanding the different types of amoebiasis and their symptoms is crucial in diagnosing and treating this disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of chronic fatigue, bloating, and intermittent diarrhea. She denies any recent changes in her diet, rectal bleeding, or weight loss. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are detected. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb 95g/L (Female: 115-160), Platelets 200 * 109/L (150-400), WBC 6.2 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), and raised IgA-tTG serology. What additional test should the GP arrange to confirm the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endomysial antibody (EMA)
Correct Answer: Endoscopic intestinal biopsy
Explanation:The preferred method for diagnosing coeliac disease is through an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. This should be performed if there is suspicion of the condition based on serology results. While endomysial antibody testing can be useful, it is more expensive and not as preferred as the biopsy. A stomach biopsy would not be helpful in diagnosing coeliac disease, as the condition affects the cells in the intestine. A skin biopsy would only be necessary if there were skin lesions indicative of dermatitis herpetiformis. Repeating the IgA-tTG serology test is not recommended for diagnosis.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 33-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for the past two months. She mentions having difficulty buttoning up her clothes with her right hand. During your examination, you observe that she struggles to pick up a pen with her index finger and thumb, indicating impairment of her pincer grip. Based on these findings, you suspect that she may have sustained damage to her anterior interosseous nerve.
What muscle is innervated by this nerve?Your Answer: Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation:The flexor pollicis longus muscle is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve, which is a branch of the median nerve. This nerve also innervates the pronator quadratus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles. If this nerve is damaged, it can result in weakness of the pincer grip, as observed in the patient. The ulnar nerve innervates the adductor pollicis muscle, while the radial nerve innervates the abductor pollicis longus muscle. The tibial nerve innervates the flexor digitorum brevis muscle.
The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies the deep muscles on the front of the forearm, excluding the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus. It runs alongside the anterior interosseous artery along the anterior of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, between the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus. The nerve supplies the whole of the flexor pollicis longus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and ends below in the pronator quadratus and wrist joint. The anterior interosseous nerve innervates 2.5 muscles, namely the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles are located in the deep level of the anterior compartment of the forearm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
What type of cell is found in higher quantities in the blood sample of an individual who has a viral infection?
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Correct Answer: Lymphocytes
Explanation:Blood Cell Types and Their Presence in Various Disorders
Lymphocytes are a type of blood cell that can be found in higher numbers during viral infections. Eosinophils, on the other hand, are present in response to allergies, drug reactions, or infections caused by flatworms and strongyloides. Monocytes are another type of blood cell that can be found in disorders such as EBV infection, CMML, and other atypical infections. Neutrophils are present in bacterial infections or in disorders such as CML or AML where their more immature blastoid form is seen. Lastly, platelets can be increased in infections, iron deficiency, or myeloproliferative disorders.
In summary, different types of blood cells can indicate various disorders or infections. By analyzing the presence of these cells in the blood, doctors can better diagnose and treat patients. It is important to note that the presence of these cells alone is not enough to make a diagnosis, and further testing may be necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with confused speech and weakness on the right side. During the examination, you observe weakness in the right upper limb, but no sensory loss. The patient appears perplexed when answering questions, and her speech is incoherent and nonsensical. What region of the brain is responsible for receptive dysphasia?
Your Answer: Primary motor cortex
Correct Answer: Wernicke's area
Explanation:Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis. Where is the appendix typically located in the body?
Your Answer: Pre ileal
Correct Answer: Retrocaecal
Explanation:The majority of appendixes are located in the retrocaecal position. In cases where removal of a retrocaecal appendix proves challenging, mobilizing the right colon can greatly enhance accessibility.
Appendix Anatomy and Location
The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.
McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions
McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man undergoes a routine ECG during his employment health check. The ECG reveals sinus arrhythmia with varying P-P intervals and slight changes in the ventricular rate. The P waves exhibit normal morphology, and the P-R interval remains constant. The patient has a history of asthma and has been using inhalers more frequently due to an increase in running mileage. What is the probable cause of this rhythm, and how would you reassure the patient about the ECG results?
Your Answer: Use of salbutamol inhaler before appointment
Correct Answer: Ventricular rate changes with ventilation
Explanation:Sinus arrhythmia is a natural occurrence that is commonly observed in young and healthy individuals. It is characterized by a fluctuation in heart rate during breathing, with an increase in heart rate during inhalation and a decrease during exhalation. This is due to a decrease in vagal tone during inspiration and an increase during expiration. The P-R interval remains constant, indicating no heart block, while the varying P-P intervals reflect changes in the ventricular heart rate.
While anxiety may cause tachycardia, it cannot explain the fluctuation in P-P intervals. Similarly, salbutamol may cause a brief increase in heart rate, but this would not result in varying P-P and P-R intervals. In healthy and fit individuals, there should be no variation in the firing of the sino-atrial node.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old patient complains of abdominal pain and a recent alteration in bowel movements. Upon conducting a colonic biopsy, the results reveal the presence of granulomas, inflammation lesions that extend to the submucosa and muscularis, and areas of unaffected mucosa in the rectum. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Inflammatory bowel disease should be considered in young adults with a change in bowel habit and raised inflammatory markers. Crohn’s disease has skip lesions and can affect anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis affects a continuous stretch of bowel starting in the rectum. Biopsy of Crohn’s shows intramural inflammation with lymphocyte infiltration and granulomas, while ulcerative colitis only causes intramural inflammation without granulomas. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome occurs after major reconstructive bowel surgery and can cause diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal distension, and pain. Cryptosporidiosis is a protozoan infection that can cause severe colitis in immunocompromised patients with AIDS. Whipple’s disease is a rare infection caused by Tropheryma whipplei and mainly presents with symptoms of malabsorption.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old child presents with a cleft palate, recurrent infections, and hypocalcemia. On chest x-ray, there is a decreased thymic shadow. The diagnosis is a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which embryological structure abnormal development is most likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: 1st and 2nd branchial arches
Correct Answer: 3rd and 4th branchial pouches
Explanation:Abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th branchial pouches is the underlying cause of 22q11 deletion syndromes, including DiGeorge syndrome. This patient exhibits clinical symptoms consistent with DiGeorge syndrome, which is characterized by the improper formation of these pouches.
The 3rd branchial pouch typically develops into the thymus and inferior parathyroids, while the 4th branchial pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroids. When the thymus fails to develop properly, it can result in a deficiency of T cells and recurrent infections. Additionally, inadequate parathyroid development can lead to hypocalcemia.
DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymic hypoplasia.
The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following nerves innervates the long head of the biceps femoris muscle?
Your Answer: Common peroneal division of sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Tibial division of sciatic nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal component of the sciatic nerve innervates the short head of biceps femoris, which may be absent at times. On the other hand, the tibial division of the sciatic nerve innervates the long head.
The Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.
What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?Your Answer: Cataract
Correct Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis
Explanation:Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.
One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.
While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.
Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.
In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. He reports a recent decline in his vision, including distortion of lines and loss of central vision, which was particularly noticeable tonight.
During the eye examination, you observe the presence of drusen and new vessel formation around the macula.
As part of his discharge plan, you schedule a follow-up appointment with an ophthalmologist, suspecting that monoclonal antibody treatment targeting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) may be necessary.
What type of monoclonal antibody functions through this mechanism of action?Your Answer: Omalizumab
Correct Answer: Bevacizumab
Explanation:Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). It is used to slow down the progression of wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD), which is the condition described in this case. Treatment with bevacizumab should begin within the first two months of diagnosis of wet ARMD.
Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets platelet IIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent blood clots in unstable angina or after coronary artery stenting.
Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is primarily used to treat inflammatory arthritis.
Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets the IgE receptor, reducing the IgE response. It is used to treat severe allergic asthma.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
An 82-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of stiffness and swelling in the joints of his right hand. Upon examination, you notice uniform swellings mainly affecting the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints, which are firm to the touch and not painful. The patient is in good overall health, and no other joints appear to be affected. There is no significant medical history to report.
What is the most probable clinical sign observed in this case?Your Answer: Heberden's nodes
Explanation:Heberden’s nodes are bony growths that occur on the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints and are associated with osteoarthritis. In contrast, Bouchard’s nodes are bony growths that occur on the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints. The Boutonniere deformity, on the other hand, is characterized by PIP joint flexion and DIP extension, and is caused by damage to the extensor tendon slip, often due to rheumatoid arthritis or trauma. Rheumatoid nodules are subcutaneous lumps that occur on areas of pressure and are associated with active rheumatoid arthritis disease. However, in this case, the asymmetrical presentation and lack of other joint involvement or systemic symptoms suggest that the correct answer is Heberden’s nodes.
Hand Diseases and Lumps
Dupuytren’s contracture is a hand disease that causes the fingers to bend towards the palm and cannot be fully extended. It is caused by contractures of the palmar aponeurosis and is more common in males over 40 years of age. Treatment is surgical, but the condition may recur and surgical therapies carry risks.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common hand disease that affects the median nerve at the carpal tunnel. It is more common in females and may be associated with other connective tissue disorders. Symptoms occur mainly at night and treatment is by surgical decompression or non-surgical options such as splinting.
There are also various hand lumps that can occur. Osler’s nodes are painful, red, raised lesions caused by immune complexes. Bouchard’s nodes are hard, bony outgrowths on the middle joints of fingers or toes and are a sign of osteoarthritis. Heberden’s nodes develop in middle age and cause a permanent bony outgrowth that skews the fingertip sideways. Ganglion is a fluid-filled swelling near a joint that is usually asymptomatic and may be excised if troublesome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of eye pain and an unusual posture. During the examination, it is observed that her neck is fixed in a backward and lateral position, and her eyes are deviated upwards. She is unable to control her gaze. The patient has a history of paranoid schizophrenia and is currently taking olanzapine. What is the probable reason behind her symptoms?
Your Answer: Catatonia
Correct Answer: Acute dystonic reaction
Explanation:Antipsychotics have the potential to cause acute dystonic reactions, with oculogyric crisis being a significant form. Symptoms may include jaw spasm, tongue protrusion, and the eyes rolling upwards.
The recommended treatment for an oculogyric crisis is typically the administration of IV procyclidine and discontinuation of the medication responsible for the reaction.
Akathisia is another side effect of antipsychotics, characterized by restlessness and an inability to remain still.
Tardive dyskinesia is a long-term side effect of antipsychotics that can manifest after several years of use. It often affects the face and involves involuntary, repetitive movements such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, and grimacing.
Parkinsonism is a term used to describe antipsychotic side effects that mimic Parkinson’s disease, including cogwheel rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Physiotherapy
Explanation:Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome
Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.
In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old man with a diagnosis of glioblastoma multiforme and resistance to chemotherapy is referred for a craniotomy to remove the mass-occupying lesion. What is the correct sequence of layers the surgeon must pass through, from most superficial to deepest, during the craniotomy which involves creating an opening through the scalp and meninges?
Your Answer: Periosteum, Loose Connective Tissue, Dura Mater, Arachnoid Mater, Pia Mater
Correct Answer: Loose Connective Tissue, Periosteum, Dura Mater, Arachnoid Mater, Pia Mater
Explanation:The outermost layer of the meninges is the dura mater.
To remember the layers of the scalp from superficial to deep, use the acronym SCALP: Skin, Connective tissue, Aponeurosis, Loose connective tissue, Periosteum.
To remember the layers of the meninges from superficial to deep, use the acronym DAP: Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, Pia mater.
The Three Layers of Meninges
The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A woman in her 40s is undergoing investigation for bowel cancer. During a colonoscopy, numerous small growths are found throughout her bowel, indicating the presence of an autosomal dominant familial condition that the clinician had suspected.
Which gene mutation is commonly associated with this diagnosis?Your Answer: PDGFR
Correct Answer: APC
Explanation:While a majority of human cancers are linked to p53 malfunction, it should be noted that the APC gene is specifically associated with FAP and not p53.
Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)