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  • Question 1 - What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn? ...

    Correct

    • What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. This results in a left to right shunt, which means that oxygen-rich blood from the left side of the heart flows into the right side of the heart and mixes with oxygen-poor blood. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and poor growth in infants.

      Coarctation is another heart condition where there is a narrowing of the aortic arch, which is the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can cause high blood pressure in the arms and head, while the lower body receives less blood flow. Symptoms may include headaches, dizziness, and leg cramps.

      Hyperbilirubinaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. Hyperbilirubinaemia is a condition where there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause yellowing of the skin and eyes.

      Lastly, Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can develop much later in life following a left to right shunt, such as in VSD. This occurs when the shunt reverses and becomes a right to left shunt, leading to low oxygen levels in the blood and cyanosis. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 17-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis is due for his yearly check-up. He...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis is due for his yearly check-up. He was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis 16 years ago. Despite having good exercise tolerance and minimal gastrointestinal symptoms, he has been hospitalized twice in the past year. His recent blood work shows iron-deficient anemia, and multiple sputum cultures have tested positive for Burkholderia species. His latest FEV1 is 55% of his predicted value. What aspect of his medical history poses the greatest risk for mortality?

      Your Answer: Burkholderia species on sputum culture

      Explanation:

      Increases the likelihood of death and illness to a greater extent.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 2-year-old boy is found to have a continuous murmur, with the loudest...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old boy is found to have a continuous murmur, with the loudest point at the left sternal edge. No cyanosis is observed, and a diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus is suspected. What pulse abnormality is commonly linked with this condition?

      Your Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      The pulse in patent ductus arteriosus is characterized by being large in volume, bounding, and collapsing.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. The mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. The mother is concerned as she has noticed some hair growing in her daughter's armpits, and although she has not shown any distress or had any other noticeable symptoms, the mother is worried that something is wrong as she is too young to begin going through puberty. On examination, the child has axillary hair growth bilaterally, and her breasts are of appropriate size for her age.

      Gonadotrophin assays show the following:
      FSH 0.2 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 3)
      LH 0.1 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 5)

      What is the most likely cause of this child's axillary hair growth?

      Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Correct Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      In cases of gonadotrophin independent precocious puberty (GIPP), both FSH and LH levels are low. This is in contrast to gonadotrophin dependent precocious puberty (GDPP), where FSH and LH levels are high and testes are larger than expected for age. GIPP is caused by increased levels of sex hormones, such as testosterone, which suppress LH and FSH. This can be due to ovarian, testicular, or adrenal causes, such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In boys with GIPP, testicular volume is typically normal or small. Adrenal hyperplasia is the only cause of GIPP, as all other causes would result in GDPP and increased levels of FSH and LH.

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth when speaking. Her mother gave the history of child’s irritation due to ear pain along with intermittent fever for the last 5 days. Her teacher reports that her speech is developmentally delayed. There is no past medical history or family history of illness. Audiogram shows conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis media with effusion

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is otitis media with effusion (OME), which is prevalent in younger children due to their shorter and more horizontal Eustachian tube, making it easier for bacteria to enter and harder for drainage. However, vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and otosclerosis are more likely to be diagnosed in middle-aged patients rather than young children. Foreign object insertion and perforated tympanic membrane are also possible causes of hearing loss, but not as common as OME in children. It is essential to identify the cause of hearing loss in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents complaining of sudden onset right-sided groin pain and inability to bear weight after a fall. On examination, he has a decreased range of motion and an antalgic gait. His heart rate is 96 bpm, blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, BMI is 31 kg/m², and he is afebrile. What is the most probable finding on examination for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reduced internal rotation of the leg in flexion

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) often results in a loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. This is likely the case for a boy with obesity aged between 10-15 years who is experiencing acute-onset right-sided groin pain and inability to weight bear following potential trauma. Attempting to internally rotate the leg while the hip is flexed would be limited in SCFE due to the anterior and external rotation of the femoral metaphysis. Therefore, reduced internal rotation of the leg in flexion is the correct option. Reduced external rotation of the leg in extension, reduced external rotation of the leg in flexion, and reduced internal rotation of the leg in extension are all incorrect options as they do not align with the typical presentation of SCFE.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born via caesarean section at 38 weeks with an APGAR score of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. There are no dysmorphic features or rashes on examination, and vital signs are within normal limits. The family history is significant for the father and older sibling having a condition that causes transient, asymptomatic episodes of jaundice. Laboratory results show a conjugated bilirubin level of 72 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), unconjugated bilirubin level of 10 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP level of 134 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT level of 58 u/L (normal range: 3-40), and γGT level of 197 u/L (normal range: 8-60). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rotor syndrome

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      The onset of biliary atresia is usually observed within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by symptoms such as jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. This condition occurs when fibrous blockages obstruct the biliary ducts outside the liver, which can eventually lead to liver failure. Patients typically exhibit high levels of conjugated bilirubin, hepatomegaly, and elevated liver transaminases (with GGT being the most elevated). Alagille syndrome is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the liver and heart, and is characterized by distinct facial features such as a broad forehead and pointed chin. Diagnosis is confirmed through genetic testing for mutations in the JAG1 gene. Dubin-Johnson syndrome and… (sentence incomplete)

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father, who reports that he has been complaining of a sore throat and has developed a skin rash over the past few days. During examination, you observe erythematous macules and papules measuring 3-4 mm on the dorsum of his hands and feet. You diagnose him with hand, foot and mouth disease. The father inquires if his son should stay home from school. What guidance will you provide regarding school exclusion?

      Your Answer: Stay off school until all symptoms have subsided

      Correct Answer: No need to stay off school if she feels well

      Explanation:

      Exclusion from a childcare setting or school is not necessary for a child with hand, foot and mouth disease, as long as they are feeling well.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father due to concerns about her breathing. The father reports that she has had a fever, cough, and runny nose for the past three days, and has been wheezing for the past 24 hours. On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9ºC, a heart rate of 126/min, a respiratory rate of 42/min, and bilateral expiratory wheezing is noted. The pediatrician prescribes a salbutamol inhaler with a spacer. However, two days later, the father returns with the child, stating that the inhaler has not improved her wheezing. The child's clinical findings are similar, but her temperature is now 37.4ºC. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Add in regular ipratropium bromide

      Correct Answer: Oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Child has viral-induced wheeze, treat with short-acting bronchodilator. If not successful, try oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroids.

      Understanding and Managing preschool Wheeze in Children

      Wheeze is a common occurrence in preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most effective management strategies.

      The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. Multiple trigger wheeze, on the other hand, can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. While episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, some children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.

      To manage preschool wheeze, parents who smoke should be strongly encouraged to quit. For episodic viral wheeze, treatment is symptomatic, with short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer as the first-line treatment. If symptoms persist, a trial of intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast), intermittent inhaled corticosteroids, or both may be recommended. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast) for 4-8 weeks may be recommended.

      Overall, understanding the classification and management of preschool wheeze can help parents and healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for children experiencing this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 35 year old pregnant woman undergoes routine pregnancy screening blood tests and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old pregnant woman undergoes routine pregnancy screening blood tests and is found to have an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level. This prompts investigation with ultrasound scanning. The scan reveals a fetus with an anterior abdominal wall defect and mass protruding through, which appears to still be covered with an amniotic sac. What is the standard course of action for managing this condition, based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vaginal delivery and immediate repair

      Correct Answer: Caesarian section and staged repair

      Explanation:

      If a fetus is diagnosed with exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to lower the risk of sac rupture. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein may indicate abdominal wall defects. The appropriate course of action is a caesarian section with staged repair, as this reduces the risk of sac rupture and surgery is not urgent. Immediate repair during caesarian section would only be necessary if the sac had ruptured. Vaginal delivery with immediate repair is only recommended for gastroschisis, as immediate surgery is required due to the lack of a protective sac. Therefore, the other two options are incorrect.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic by her father with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic by her father with a sore throat that worsens with swallowing, headaches, and malaise. He reports no coughing.

      Upon examination, her temperature is 38.5ºC, her heart rate is 100 bpm, and her tonsils are symmetrically enlarged and red, with white patches present. There is tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor's overall impression is that of an ill child.

      The patient has no medical history but is allergic to penicillin. What is the most appropriate immediate step in her management?

      Your Answer: Offer delayed antibiotic prescription

      Correct Answer: Immediate hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospital admission is necessary for a child with fevers who appears unwell to a paediatric healthcare professional, as this is considered a red flag indicating severe illness. In this case, the child has a Centor score of 4 and presents with tonsillitis symptoms, including tonsillar exudate, tender cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, and no cough. While antibiotic treatment may be warranted, the priority is to admit the child for assessment and management of their condition. Delayed antibiotic prescription or prescribing a specific antibiotic, such as clarithromycin or phenoxymethylpenicillin, would not be appropriate in this situation.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - The pediatrician is asked to review a 4 hour old term baby by...

    Incorrect

    • The pediatrician is asked to review a 4 hour old term baby by the nurse. The mother had no antenatal concerns and was not on any medication during pregnancy. The baby has not yet latched to the breast and appears lethargic. A heel prick blood sugar test was done and the result was as follows:
      Glucose 2.5 mmol/L (4.0-5.9)

      Upon examination, the baby was easily rousable and had a good suck. He had normal tone and cardiovascular examination was unremarkable. However, he had not passed urine or opened his bowels yet.

      What should be the first step in the pediatrician's management plan for this baby?

      Your Answer: Encourage the mother to give a formula feed to the baby

      Correct Answer: Ask the breastfeeding support team to come and support mum and baby with attempting a further feed now

      Explanation:

      It is common for newborns to experience transient hypoglycemia in the first few hours after birth. If a mother wishes to breastfeed, she should be provided with support and guidance on proper latching techniques and encouraged to engage in skin-to-skin contact with her baby. If the baby is having difficulty feeding, the mother can be taught how to hand express and provide colostrum through alternative methods. Blood glucose levels should be monitored before and after each feeding, without more than three hours between feeds. If the baby is asymptomatic, buccal glucose can be administered in conjunction with a feeding plan. However, if the baby has not yet had a feed and is mildly hypoglycemic, action should be taken and blood sugar levels should be checked again prior to the next feeding. It is important to provide mothers with information and support to encourage breastfeeding, rather than immediately suggesting formula feeding for a well, asymptomatic term baby. These guidelines are based on the BAPM Framework for Practice’s Identification and Management of Neonatal Hypoglycemia in the Full Term Infant (2017).

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 14-year-old girl presents with increased urinary frequency and thirst. Her initial observations...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with increased urinary frequency and thirst. Her initial observations and clinical examination revealed no abnormalities. On initial blood tests, the only abnormalities found are a urea of 10.5 mmol/l (normal range 2.5–6.5 mmol/l) and a borderline serum osmolality of 270 mOsmol/kg (normal range 270–295 mOsmol/kg). She subsequently had water deprivation testing. Time Investigation Result Normal range 0 hours Serum osmolality 270 mOsmol/kg 270–295 mOsmol/kg 4 hours – testing stopped Serum osmolality Urine osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg 285 mOsmol/kg 270–295 mOsmol/kg 350–1000 mOsmol/kg After administration of desmopressin Urine osmolality 287 mOsmol/kg 350–1000 mOsmol/kg. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the investigative results?

      Your Answer: Normal results

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating it from Primary Polydipsia and Cranial Diabetes Insipidus

      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the nephron fails to concentrate urine despite adequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) due to insensitivity of the ADH receptors. In contrast, primary polydipsia is characterized by normal ADH secretion and renal sensitivity to ADH, but compulsive water consumption leading to polyuria. Cranial diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, is caused by impaired ADH secretion.

      To differentiate between these conditions, a water deprivation test is conducted. In nephrogenic DI, after eight hours of water deprivation, serum osmolality increases while urine osmolality remains low. Administering 2 μg desmopressin has no effect as the ADH receptors remain insensitive. In primary polydipsia, ADH secretion increases during water deprivation, resulting in retention of water by the kidneys, leading to normal serum osmolality and increased urine osmolality. In cranial diabetes insipidus, serum osmolality increases after water deprivation, but administration of desmopressin should result in a return to normal serum osmolality and a concurrent rise in urine osmolality.

      In cases where the water deprivation test shows abnormal results, further testing may be required. However, in the case of nephrogenic DI, the abnormal results indicate impairment in osmolality regulation due to insensitivity of the renal ADH receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history of limping on her left side. Her parents state that she has been healthy except for a recent cough and her daycare provider has not noticed any injuries. During the physical exam, the child appears uncomfortable and in pain, but has normal range of motion in her left hip. What is the best course of action for management at this point?

      Your Answer: Urgent hospital assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 3 presents with an acute limp, it is crucial to arrange urgent assessment in secondary care. This is because they are at a higher risk of septic arthritis and child maltreatment, according to Nice Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Additionally, the diagnosis of transient synovitis should be made with extreme caution after ruling out serious causes of limp, as it is rare in this age group. Urgent referral for assessment is recommended due to the difficulty in examining and identifying subtle clinical signs.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with intense pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with intense pain in her left hip and an inability to bear weight. Her parents are worried about the potential for an infection. She had a cold a week ago, but has since recovered. She seems to be in good health. There has been no hip trauma. Blood tests show normal WBC and ESR levels. An ultrasound of the hip reveals a slight effusion in the joint capsule. What is the best course of action now?

      Your Answer: MRI of the hip

      Correct Answer: Recommend rest and analgesia

      Explanation:

      Transient synovitis typically resolves on its own and only requires rest and pain relief. This young boy appears to have transient synovitis as he is not showing any signs of systemic illness, which would suggest septic arthritis. Additionally, it is common for transient synovitis to occur after an infection, and the mild effusion present is not indicative of an infection. It is important to note that other options such as an x-ray or surgery are not necessary as transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition. An x-ray may have been considered if there was a history of trauma, but this is not the case here.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - Which one of the following is not a risk factor for developmental dysplasia...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

      Your Answer: Female sex

      Correct Answer: Afro-Caribbean origin

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A worried 28-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on...

    Incorrect

    • A worried 28-year-old mother expresses concern about a lump that has emerged on her infant's head, stating with certainty that it was not present at birth and was only noticed half an hour ago. The baby was delivered vaginally with forceps 10 hours ago at 39 weeks gestation.

      Upon examination, there is a clearly defined, soft swelling that does not cross suture lines and is located on the parietal bone. The baby appears to be in good health otherwise, with normal skin color and tone, as well as regular vital signs.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cephalhaematoma

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the newborn baby’s well-demarcated, fluctuant swelling that appeared two days after birth is cephalohaematoma. This is a haemorrhage between the skull and periosteum that occurs when blood vessels crossing the periosteum rupture. The swelling is limited by the individual bones and does not cross suture lines. It may take months to resolve as the blood clot is reabsorbed. Cephalohaematoma is more common in prolonged and/or instrumental deliveries and may lead to jaundice, anaemia or hypotension if severe. It may also indicate a linear skull fracture or risk of infection. Caput succedaneum, chignon, normal skull shape, and subgaleal haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses.

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - Fragile X is commonly associated with which of the following symptoms, except for:...

    Incorrect

    • Fragile X is commonly associated with which of the following symptoms, except for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small, firm testes

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 4-month-old baby boy is found to have developmental dysplasia of the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old baby boy is found to have developmental dysplasia of the right hip during an ultrasound scan. The hip was noted to be abnormal during clinical examination at birth. What is the probable treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pavlik harness (dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis)

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - You are requested to attend an elective Caesarean section for macrosomia and maternal...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to attend an elective Caesarean section for macrosomia and maternal diabetes. When should you evaluate the APGAR scores during the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1, 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines suggest that APGAR scores be regularly evaluated at both 1 and 5 minutes after birth. It is expected that the scores will show improvement over time, but if they remain low, they should be rechecked. The APGAR acronym stands for the assessment of Appearance (skin color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiratory effort.

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 6-month-old infant is brought to the Emergency Department with persistent vomiting for...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought to the Emergency Department with persistent vomiting for the past 2 days. The mother reports that the vomiting is forceful and occurs after every feed. Despite attempts to soothe the baby, the vomiting has not subsided. Upon examination, the infant appears to be in good health. The heart rate is 130 bpm, respiratory rate is 32/min, blood pressure is 95/65 mmHg, capillary refill is 2 seconds, and mucous membranes are slightly dry. The infant has no fever. The paediatric registrar is called to assess the infant and decides to admit the infant for further investigation. Which diagnostic test would be most helpful in determining the cause of the vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The baby in this situation displays typical indications of pyloric stenosis. If a young infant experiences projectile vomiting after each feeding, it is important to consider the possibility of pyloric stenosis. The most effective method to visualize the issue is through an ultrasound scan, which can identify the thickening of the circular pylorus muscles. This is also the safest and most straightforward diagnostic test for a young baby. Additionally, a thorough abdominal examination may uncover a detectable lump in the upper left quadrant.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 31-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant reaches out to you seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant reaches out to you seeking details about the newborn hearing screening program. She expresses concerns about potential harm to her baby's ears and is uncertain about giving consent for the screening. What specific test is provided to all newborns as part of this screening program?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Automated otoacoustic emission test

      Explanation:

      The automated otoacoustic emission test is the appropriate method for screening newborns for hearing problems. This test involves inserting a soft-tipped earpiece into the baby’s outer ear and emitting clicking sounds to detect a healthy cochlea. The auditory brainstem response test may be used if the baby does not pass the automated otoacoustic emission test. Play audiometry is only suitable for children between two and five years old, while pure tone audiometry is used for older children and adults and is not appropriate for newborns.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - You are requested to assess a 38-week-gestation boy in the postnatal ward who...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 38-week-gestation boy in the postnatal ward who is now 36-hours-old. The baby was delivered via forceps and has noticeable facial bruising. He is being formula-fed and is progressing well in the postnatal period except for an elevated transcutaneous bilirubin measurement. What could be the probable reason for the raised bilirubin level in this newborn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bruising

      Explanation:

      Elevated bilirubin levels can result from bruising during birth, which causes hemolysis. Bruising in the neonatal stage can also lead to increased bilirubin levels due to the breakdown of haemoglobin. Preterm babies and those who are breastfed are more likely to develop jaundice. The baby’s medical history and examination do not indicate any signs of infection. Jaundice is not associated with being male.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after feeding. They are administered 100% oxygen for 20 minutes and an arterial blood gas is performed.

      pH 7.40 7.36 - 7.42
      PaO2 11.5 kPa 10.0 - 12.5
      PaCO2 5.8 kPa 5.1 - 5.6

      On auscultation, the infant has no murmur but a loud single S2. On palpation, there is a prominent ventricular pulse.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      The oxygen level is below 15 kPa, indicating a cyanotic heart defect. The most likely defect to present soon after birth is transposition of the great arteries, which is consistent with the examination findings. Pulmonary valve stenosis may also cause cyanosis if the lesion is large enough and is associated with Noonan syndrome. It produces a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect but typically presents between 1 and 6 months of age. It is characterized by a loud ejection systolic murmur that is most prominent at the left upper sternal edge and radiates to the axillae.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.

      To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and alfa-fetoprotein (AFP) ...

    Incorrect

    • Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and alfa-fetoprotein (AFP)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a condition that usually manifests within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. It is a common cause of prolonged neonatal jaundice that appears after two weeks. Other symptoms include an enlarged liver and spleen, abnormal growth, and heart murmurs if there are associated cardiac abnormalities. Conjugated bilirubin levels are abnormally high, while bile acids and aminotransferases are also typically elevated, but cannot be used to distinguish between biliary atresia and other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Although bile duct stenosis may present similarly, it is less frequent.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 9-month-old male is found unresponsive by his father at home. The father...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old male is found unresponsive by his father at home. The father immediately calls for emergency services and begins to assess his son's condition. One of the first things the father does is check his son's pulse.
      Where should the father check for the pulse during this assessment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachial and femoral

      Explanation:

      When assessing for a pulse in infants, the recommended areas to check are the femoral and brachial arteries. This is because the carotid pulse may be difficult to palpate due to the short neck of infants. Checking for a central pulse is important as peripheral pulses may be weaker and harder to feel, especially in unwell patients with peripheral shutdown. It is important to note that according to BLS guidelines, the carotid pulse may only be used in children over 12 months old, making it an inappropriate option for an 8-month-old infant. Therefore, options including the carotid pulse are incorrect.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - You are assessing a 9-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 9-month-old infant with suspected bronchiolitis. What sign or symptom should raise concern for a possible hospital referral?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Feeding 50% of the normal amount

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 4-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a cough and noisy...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a cough and noisy breathing after experiencing coryzal symptoms for 2 days. Upon examination, she has intercostal recession, a cough, and harsh vibrating noise during inspiration. Although she is afebrile, her symptoms are concerning. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parainfluenza virus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 4-week-old baby girl is brought to the GP with feeding difficulties, increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby girl is brought to the GP with feeding difficulties, increased respiratory effort, and poor weight gain over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notes a parasternal heave and a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border.
      What is the true statement about this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Following closure of this defect, the patient is no longer considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

      Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall separating the two lower chambers of the heart. Here are some important points to know about VSD:

      Closure of the defect reduces the risk of infective endocarditis: Once the VSD is surgically repaired, the patient is no longer considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics are not required before high-risk procedures.

      Cardiac catheterisation is not always necessary for diagnosis: While cardiac catheterisation was previously used to diagnose VSD, echocardiography methods have advanced, making it less invasive and more accurate.

      Prophylactic antibiotics are not always necessary for dental procedures: Patients with surgically repaired VSD are not considered at high risk of developing infective endocarditis following dental work, so prophylactic antibiotics are not indicated. However, immunocompromised patients may require antibiotics.

      Spontaneous closure is more common in infants: VSDs in infants under one year of age are more likely to close spontaneously. After the age of two, spontaneous closure is less likely.

      Surgical repair is indicated for uncontrolled heart failure: If a patient with VSD shows signs of uncontrolled heart failure, including poor growth, surgical repair may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - Sarah, a 12-year-old girl with Down's syndrome, visits her GP complaining of fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 12-year-old girl with Down's syndrome, visits her GP complaining of fatigue. What medical condition is commonly linked to Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism is commonly found in individuals with Down syndrome, while the risk of hyperthyroidism is also increased. Type-1 diabetes is more prevalent in those with Down syndrome, but there is no association with ADHD. Fragile X is linked to ADHD, and male breast cancer is not associated with Down syndrome but has been linked to Klinefelter’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (10/16) 63%
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