00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true? 

      Your Answer: There is loss of the diurnal variation in cortisol levels

      Correct Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane occurs via diffusion from an area of low partial pressure to an area of high partial pressure.

      Correct Answer: Transfer of oxygen is usually perfusion-limited.

      Explanation:

      Gas exchange between alveolar air and blood in the pulmonary capillaries takes place by diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Diffusion occurs from an area of high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure, thus the driving force for diffusion is the alveolar-capillary partial pressure gradient. Diffusion occurs until equilibrium is reached, but random movement of particles continues to occur and this is known as dynamic equilibrium. The diffusing capacity for oxygen (DLO2) cannot be measured directly but the rate of diffusion in the lungs can be estimated by measuring the diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO), not by measuring total lung capacity. The rate of transfer of a gas may be diffusion or perfusion limited; carbon monoxide transfer is diffusion-limited, oxygen transfer is usually perfusion-limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man with chronic breathlessness is sent for a lung function test.Which...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with chronic breathlessness is sent for a lung function test.Which statement concerning lung function testing is true?

      Your Answer: In restrictive lung disease, the FEV 1 /FVC ratio is usually >0.7

      Explanation:

      In restrictive lung disease, the FEV1/FVC ratio is usually >0.7%.In obstructive lung disease, FEV1 is reduced to <80% of normal and FVC is usually reduced. The FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced to 80% in the presence of symptomsModerate airflow obstruction = FEV 1 of 50-79%Severe airflow obstruction = FEV 1 of 30-49%Very severe airflow obstruction = FEV1<30%.Spirometry is a poor predictor of quality of life in COPD. However, it can be used as part of the assessment of severity of COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in...

    Correct

    • You examine a 79-year-old woman who has had hypertension and atrial fibrillation in the past. Her most recent blood tests show that she has severe renal impairment.Which medication adjustments should you make in this patient's case?

      Your Answer: Reduce dose of digoxin

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is excreted through the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to elevated digoxin levels and toxicity.The patient’s digoxin dose should be reduced in this case, and their digoxin level and electrolytes should be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and polyuria....

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and polyuria. There is a past history of kidney stones, and blood tests done reveal the following: Na: 147 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L) K: 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L) Urea: 7.3 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L) Creatinine: 126 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L) Fasting blood glucose: 5.0 mmol/L (3.4-5.5 mmol/L) Corrected calcium: 3.21 mmol/L (2.05-2.60 mmol/L) Phosphate: 0.70 mmol/L (0.8-1.4 mmol/L) Parathyroid hormone: 189 ng/L (10-60 ng/L)The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      ​Primary hyperparathyroidism the commonest cause of hypercalcaemia. It is commonest in women aged 50 to 60.The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a solitary adenoma of the parathyroid gland (approximately 85% of cases). Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with features of hypercalcaemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, bone and joint pain, constipation, and psychiatric disorders.In primary Hyperparathyroidism:PTH is elevatedCalcium is elevatedPhosphate is loweredIn secondary Hyperparathyroidism:PTH is elevatedCalcium is low or low-normalPhosphate is raised in CRFIn tertiary Hyperparathyroidism:PTH is elevatedCalcium is elevatedPhosphate is lowered in CRF

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      57.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the correct adrenaline dose for a patient with pulseless ventricular tachycardia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct adrenaline dose for a patient with pulseless ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: 5 ml of 1 in 1000 adrenaline solution

      Correct Answer: 10 ml of 1 in 10,000 adrenaline solution

      Explanation:

      Ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VF/VT) are referred to as shockable rhythm. IV adrenaline 1 mg (10 mL of 1:10,000 solution) should be administered after 3 shocks and every 3 – 5 minutes/after alternate shocks thereafter for a shockable rhythm. For a non-shockable rhythm, 1 mg IV adrenaline should be administered as soon as IV access is obtained, and then every 3 – 5 minutes/after alternate shocks thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of repeated episodes of abdominal pain and the passage of dark coloured urine every morning. He also reports increasing fatigue over the past several months. On examination, there are raised, painful red nodules over the skin of the back. Laboratory workup shows haemolytic anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following disorders is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria is an acquired genetic disorder that causes a decrease in red blood cells due to a membrane defect that allows increased complement binding to RBCs, causing haemolysis. Patients complain of dark-coloured urine first in the morning due to haemoglobinuria secondary to lysis of red blood cells overnight. Thrombosis occurs, which affects hepatic, abdominal, cerebral and subdermal veins. Thrombosis of hepatic veins can lead to Budd-Chiari syndrome, thrombosis of subdermal veins can lead to painful nodules on the skin, and thrombosis of cerebral vessels can lead to stroke. The presence of dark urine in the morning only and at no other time differentiates this condition from other conditions.Multiple myeloma would present with bone pain, signs of radiculopathy if there were nerve root compression and a history of repeated infections. Patients with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma would complain of enlarged lymph nodes, fatigue, fever, weight loss and a history of repeated infections. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia presents more commonly in children than in adults. The patient would complain of bone pain, and on examination, there would be hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Compliance changes at different lung volumes. Initially at lower lung volumes the compliance of the lung is poor and greater pressure change is required to cause a change in volume. This occurs if the lungs become collapsed for a period of time. At functional residual capacity (FRC) compliance is optimal since the elastic recoil of the lung tending towards collapse is balanced by the tendency of the chest wall to spring outwards. At higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung again becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer. At all volumes, the base of the lung has a greater compliance than the apex. Patients with emphysema have increased compliance. Compliance is affected by a person’s age, sex and height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Identify the type of graph described below:This graph is a scatter plot of...

    Correct

    • Identify the type of graph described below:This graph is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study's size or precision.

      Your Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A funnel plot is a scatter plot of the effect estimates from individual studies against some measure of each study’s size or precision. The standard error of the effect estimate is often chosen as the measure of study size and plotted on the vertical axis with a reversed scale that places the larger, most powerful studies towards the top. The effect estimates from smaller studies should scatter more widely at the bottom, with the spread narrowing among larger studies. In the absence of bias and between study heterogeneity, the scatter will be due to sampling variation alone and the plot will resemble a symmetrical inverted funnel. A triangle centred on a fixed effect summary estimate and extending 1.96 standard errors either side will include about 95% of studies if no bias is present and the fixed effect assumption (that the true treatment effect is the same in each study) is valid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is most likely affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?

      Your Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis

      Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is named after the Swiss surgeon, Fritz de Quervain, who first described it in 1895. It is a condition which involves tendon entrapment affecting the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. With this condition thickening of the tendon sheaths around the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis develops where the tendons pass in through the fibro-osseous tunnel located along the radial styloid at the distal wrist. Pain is exacerbated by thumb movement and radial and ulnar deviation of the wrist.The estimated prevalence of de Quervain tenosynovitis is about 0.5% in men and 1.3% in women with peak prevalence among those in their forties and fifties. It may be seen more commonly in individuals with a history of medial or lateral epicondylitis. Bilateral involvement is often reported in new mothers or child care providers in whom spontaneous resolution typically occurs once lifting of the child is less frequent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are: ...

    Correct

    • Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are:

      Your Answer: Multinucleated cells formed from fusion of epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      A granuloma is a collection of five or more epithelioid macrophages, with or without attendant lymphocytes and fibroblasts; epithelioid macrophages are altered macrophages which have turned themselves over to becoming giant phagocytosing and killing machines, they often fuse to become multinucleate (Langhans) giant cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      55.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency department. You notice weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination during your assessment. Which of these nerves has been affected:

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve is relatively protected in the axilla, hence injury to it is uncommon. A stab wound in the axilla is the most prevalent source of damage. Because of the activities of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis, and the supinator muscles, arm flexion and forearm flexion and supination are diminished but not completely lost. Over the lateral part of the forearm, there is a lack of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Contact dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type I reactions include:Allergic rhinitisAllergic conjunctivitisAllergic asthmaSystemic anaphylaxisAngioedemaUrticariaPenicillin allergy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You review a 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse who...

    Correct

    • You review a 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse who admits to sharing needles in the past. He has a flu-like illness and a rash. Concerned he may be experiencing an HIV seroconversion illness, you order a test.Which of these tests is most reliably used to diagnose HIV at this stage?

      Your Answer: p24 antigen test

      Explanation:

      Serum concentrations of the p24 antigen are usually high in the first few weeks after human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and testing for p24 antigen is therefore a useful way of diagnosing very early infection. P24 is the viral protein that makes up most of the core of the HIV.ELISA and other antibody tests, though a very sensitive way of detecting the presence of HIV, cannot be used in the early stages of the disease. This is because of the window period of 6-12 weeks before antibodies are produced. These tests will be negative during a seroconversion illness.The ‘rapid HIV test’ is an HIV antibody test. It will also be negative during the ‘window period’ since it takes time for antibodies to be produced. It is called the ‘rapid test’ as it can detect antibodies in blood or saliva much quicker than the other antibody tests and results are often back within 20 minutes.CD4 and CD8 counts are usually normal in the early stages of the HIV infection and cannot be used in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - On reviewing the ECG of a patient with a history of intermittent palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • On reviewing the ECG of a patient with a history of intermittent palpitations, you observe prolonged QT interval.Which of these can cause prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG?

      Your Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Syncope and sudden death due to ventricular tachycardia, particularly Torsades-des-pointes is seen in prolongation of the QT interval.The causes of a prolonged QT interval include:ErythromycinAmiodaroneQuinidineMethadoneProcainamideSotalolTerfenadineTricyclic antidepressantsJervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (autosomal dominant)Romano Ward syndrome (autosomal recessive)HypothyroidismHypocalcaemiaHypokalaemiaHypomagnesaemiaHypothermiaRheumatic carditisMitral valve prolapseIschaemic heart disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old male with a known allergy to natural latex rubber presents with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male with a known allergy to natural latex rubber presents with an allergic reaction to a food he has just eaten. Which ONE of these foods is most likely to cause an associated hypersensitivity in him?

      Your Answer: Banana

      Explanation:

      About one third of patients with allergy to natural latex rubber (NRL) have an associated allergy to some plant-derived foods. It is known as the latex-fruit syndrome and occurs commonly with consumption of fresh fruits. Banana and avocado are the most implicated fruits but it can also be seen with tomato, kiwi and chestnut.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      96.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid intake. His blood sugar is normal. You estimate his osmolarity as part of his work-up.Which of these equations can be used to estimate osmolarity?

      Your Answer: 3 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea

      Correct Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea

      Explanation:

      Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of the solute concentration of a solution. Although the two terms are often used interchangeably, there are differences in the definitions, how they are calculated and the units of measurement used.Osmolarity, expressed as mmol/L, is an estimation of the osmolar concentration of plasma. It is proportional to the number of particles per litre of solution.Measured Na+, K+, urea and glucose concentrations are used to calculate the value indirectly.It is unreliable in pseudohyponatremia and hyperproteinaemia.The equations used to calculate osmolarity are:Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)OROsmolarity = 2 (Na+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)Doubling of sodium accounts for the negative ions associated with sodium, and the exclusion of potassium approximately allows for the incomplete dissociation of sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You review a 34-year-old man with lower back pain and plan to prescribe...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 34-year-old man with lower back pain and plan to prescribe him ibuprofen and codeine phosphate. His only past medical history of note is depression, for which he takes fluoxetine.Which of the following scenarios would prompt you to consider the co-prescription of a PPI for gastro-protection? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Family history of peptic ulcer

      Correct Answer: Co-prescription of fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Patients at risk of gastro-intestinal ulceration (including the elderly) who need NSAID treatment should receive gastroprotective treatment. The current recommendations by NICE suggest that gastro-protection should be considered if patients have ≥1 of the following:Using maximum recommended dose of an NSAIDAged 65 or olderHistory of peptic ulcer or GI bleedingConcomitant use of medications that increase risk:Low dose aspirinAnticoagulantsCorticosteroidsAnti-depressants including SSRIs and SNRIsRequirements for prolonged NSAID usage:Patients with OA or RA at any ageLong-term back pain if older than 45It is suggested that if required, either omeprazole 20 mg daily or lansoprazole 15-30 mg daily should be the PPIs of choice.This patient is on 400 mg of ibuprofen TDS, but the maximum recommended dose of ibuprofen is 2.4 g daily. Co-prescription of codeine, raised BMI, and a family history of peptic ulceration would also not prompt gastro-protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - All of the following single clinical risk groups is considered eligible to receive...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following single clinical risk groups is considered eligible to receive the seasonal influenza vaccination, except:

      Your Answer: Patients with chronic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Patients with hypertension

      Explanation:

      The following is the list of all the health and age factors that are known to increase a person’s risk of getting serious complications from flu:- Adults 65 years and older- Children younger than 2 years old- Asthma- Neurological and neurodevelopmental conditions- Blood disorders (such as sickle cell disease)- Chronic lung disease (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] and cystic fibrosis)- Endocrine disorders (such as diabetes mellitus)- Heart disease (such as congenital heart disease, congestive heart failure and coronary artery disease)- Kidney diseases- Liver disorders- Metabolic disorders (such as inherited metabolic disorders and mitochondrial disorders)- People who are obese with a body mass index [BMI] of 40 or higher- People younger than 19 years old on long-term aspirin- or salicylate-containing medications.- People with a weakened immune system due to disease (such as people with HIV or AIDS, or some cancers such as leukaemia) or medications (such as those receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatment for cancer, or persons with chronic conditions requiring chronic corticosteroids or other drugs that suppress the immune system)- People who have had a stroke- Pregnant people and people up to 2 weeks after the end of pregnancy- People who live in nursing homes and other long-term care facilities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this...

    Incorrect

    • A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this patient, which of the following volumes for functional residual capacity is considered a normal result?

      Your Answer: 3.0 L

      Correct Answer: 2.0 L

      Explanation:

      The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume. In a 70 kg, average-sized male, a normal functional residual capacity is approximately 2100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected...

    Incorrect

    • The qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected infection who are at greater risk for a poor outcome outside of the intensive care unit.Which of the following is one of the criteria used in the qSOFA score? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Diastolic blood pressure <60 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >22

      Explanation:

      In February 2016 the Society of Critical Care Medicine published a JAMA article reformatting the definitions of sepsis in an attempt to overcome the shortcomings of the old definitions.The main changes are a new definition of sepsis, the replacement of the SIRS criteria with the quick Sepsis-related Organ Failure Assessment (qSOFA), and the complete removal of “severe sepsis” as an entity.The new definition of sepsis is that it is “life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection.”Septic shock is “a subset of sepsis in which underlying circulatory and cellular metabolism abnormalities are profound enough to increase mortality.”In essence this means that septic shock is sepsis plus the following, despite adequate fluid resuscitation:Vasopressors required to maintain a MAP > 65 mmHgSerum lactate > 2 mmol/lThe qSOFA score is a bedside prompt designed to identify patients with suspected infection who are at greater risk for a poor outcome outside of the intensive care unit. It uses the following three criteria:Hypotension (SBP < 100 mmHg)Tachypnoea (RR > 22)Altered mental status (GCS < 15)The presence of 2 or more of the qSOFA criteria near the onset of infection is associated with greater risk of death or a prolonged intensive care unit stay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pathology Of Infections
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following pathogens causes tetanus: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pathogens causes tetanus:

      Your Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Explanation:

      Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani, a bacterium. Tetanus can cause mild spasms to severe whole-body contractions, suffocation, and heart attack. Gas gangrene and food poisoning are both caused by Clostridium perfringens. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by Clostridium difficile. Urinary tract infections, respiratory infections, dermatitis, soft tissue infections, bacteraemia, bone and joint infections, gastrointestinal infections, and a variety of systemic infections are all caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pharyngitis, skin infections, acute rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, toxic shock–like syndrome, and necrotizing fasciitis can all be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old man presents with painful red eye with copious discharge and you...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents with painful red eye with copious discharge and you make a diagnosis of infective conjunctivitis following a history and an examination,.One of these is NOT an indication for an urgent ophthalmology referral in this patient.

      Your Answer: Conjunctivitis associated with rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Bilateral conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Urgent referral to ophthalmology is indicated if the patient with conjunctivitis has any of the following:Suspected gonococcal or chlamydial conjunctivitisCorneal involvement associated with soft contact lens useSevere disease indicated by presence of a pseudomembraneConjunctivitis associated with rheumatoid arthritis or in immunocompromised patient. Ophthalmia neonatorum.Possible herpes infection.Had recent intraocular surgery. A red flag indicating a serious cause of red eye.Suspected periorbital or orbital cellulitis.Bilateral conjunctivitis is not an indication for urgent referral to ophthalmology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Opioids should be avoided in people who have: A risk of paralytic ileus (opioids reduce gastric motility)Acute respiratory depressionAn acute exacerbation of asthma (opioids can aggravate bronchoconstriction as a result of histamine release)Conditions associated with increased intracranial pressure including head injury (opioids can interfere with pupillary response making neurological assessment difficult and may cause retention of carbon dioxide aggravating the increased intracranial pressure)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man is feeling unwell following his return from a business trip....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is feeling unwell following his return from a business trip. He is diagnosed with a vector transmitted disease.Which of these organisms is commonly spread by vector-borne transmission?

      Your Answer: Vibrio cholerae

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      Borrelia burgdorferiis, primarily spread by ticks and lice, is a zoonotic, vector-borne organism that causes Lyme disease.Neisseria meningitidis and Bordetella pertussis are droplet borne infections (airborne particle > 5 µm)Vibrio cholerae and Ascaris lumbricoides are spread by the faeco-oral route

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding T helper cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding T helper cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: They form the vast majority (about 75%) of the total circulating T-cell population.

      Explanation:

      CD4+ T-cells (Helper T cells)Recognise antigen only in association with HLA class II molecules (found on antigen presenting cells (APCs) e.g. dendritic cells, B-cells; present exogenous antigens that have been phagocytosed/endocytosed into intracellular vesicles)Form most of the circulating T-cell population (about 75%)Secrete cytokines (e.g. IFN-gamma) which are required for recruitment and activation of other immune cells such as macrophages, T cytotoxic cells and NK cells and for the activation of and production of immunoglobulin from B-cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he is febrile and Kernig's sign is positive. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected and a lumbar puncture was to be performed.Which of the following statements regarding meningitis is true?

      Your Answer: The meninges are two layers of protective tissue that envelop the brain and spinal cord

      Correct Answer: The dura mater is the outermost layer

      Explanation:

      Meningitis is defined as the inflammation of the meninges due to an infection caused by a bacteria or a virus. Symptoms usually include stiffness of the neck, headache, and fever. There are 3 meningeal layers that surround the spinal cord and they are the dura mater, arachnoid matter, and pia mater. The dura mater is the outermost and thickest layer out of all the 3 layers. The arachnoid atter is the middle layer, and is very thin.The third and deepest meningeal layer is the pia mater that is bound tightly to the surface of the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - This anatomic part lies at the heart of the tooth. ...

    Incorrect

    • This anatomic part lies at the heart of the tooth.

      Your Answer: The neck

      Correct Answer: The pulp cavity

      Explanation:

      Within the central portion of the tooth lies the dental pulp. The pulp chamber provides mechanical support and functions as a barrier from external stimuli and the oral microbiome. The dental pulp is a unique tissue that is richly innervated and has an extensive microvascular network. Maintaining its vitality increases both the mechanical resistance of the tooth and the long-term survival. The junctional epithelium forms a band around the tooth at the base of the gingival sulcus, sealing off the periodontal tissues from the oral cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive bleeding from her upper arm following a fall from a bicycle onto a fence. On inspection her biceps brachii muscle has been lacerated.How will the muscle heal from this injury? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: There will be formation of a large number of contractile myocytes

      Correct Answer: Satellite cells will produce a small number of regenerated myocytes

      Explanation:

      Muscle heals with fibrous tissue to form a scar. Once cut, it will never regain its previous bulk or power. Within the scar a small number of myocytes (muscle cells) may be seen, which are formed from satellite cells but they contribute little to the function of the muscle overall.In more widespread ischaemic injury, such as critical ischaemic limb due to arterial compromise, or in compartment syndrome, damaged myocytes are replaced diffusely with fibrous tissue. This fibrous tissue contracts and reduces movement, and in extreme cases can pull the limb into abnormal positions such as in Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      77.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You're evaluating a male patient who's having a lung function test done. In...

    Incorrect

    • You're evaluating a male patient who's having a lung function test done. In calculating the patient’s functional residual capacity, what parameters should you add to derive the functional residual capacity volume?

      Your Answer: Residual volume + tidal volume

      Correct Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      70.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Anatomical barriers to infection include all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Anatomical barriers to infection include all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Commensal flora in the genitourinary tract

      Correct Answer: Mucociliary escalator in the gastrointestinal tract

      Explanation:

      Anatomical barriers to infection include:tight junctions between cells of the skin and mucosal membranesthe flushing action of tears, saliva and urinethe mucociliary escalator in the respiratory tract (together with the actions of coughing and sneezing)the acidic pH of gastric and vaginal secretionsthe acidic pH of the skin (maintained by lactic acid and fatty acids in sebum)enzymes such as lysozyme found in saliva, sweat and tearspepsin present in the stomachbiological commensal flora formed on the skin and the respiratory, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts which protect the host by competing with pathogenic bacteria for nutrients and attachment sites and by producing antibacterial substances

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 65-year-old man presents with a red, hot, swollen great toe. A diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a red, hot, swollen great toe. A diagnosis of acute gout is made. His past medical history includes heart failure and type 2 diabetes mellitus.Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to use in the treatment of his gout? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      In the absence of any contra-indications, high-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is a commonly used and effective regime.Aspirin should not be used in gout as it reduces the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, Diclofenac or Indomethacin are more appropriate choices.Allopurinol is used prophylactically, preventing future attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. It should not be started in the acute phase as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms.Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks. It also has a role in prophylactic treatment if Allopurinol is not tolerated.NSAIDs are contra-indicated in heart failure as they can cause fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. Colchicine is the preferred treatment in patients with heart failure or those who are intolerant of NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. There is a secondary rise after the age of 40 years. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage and have an equal sex incidence; there is a male predominance for the 15% of T-cell lineage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other intravenous induction agents:

      Your Answer: Respiratory depression

      Correct Answer: Extraneous muscle movements

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is associated with a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements, which can be minimised by an opioid analgesic or a short-acting benzodiazepine given prior to induction. Etomidate causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. Etomidate is associated with rapid recovery without a hangover effect. The rate of respiratory depression and tachycardia is not higher in etomidate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of these immunoglobulin molecules can cross the placenta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these immunoglobulin molecules can cross the placenta?

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      An important mechanism that provides protection to the foetus is placental transfer of maternal IgG antibodies while his/her humoral response is inefficient. The only antibody class that significantly crosses the human placenta is IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is the effect of activated vitamin D on the renal handling of...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of activated vitamin D on the renal handling of calcium:

      Your Answer: Increases calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule

      Explanation:

      Activated vitamin D acts to:GUT:increase calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (the main action)KIDNEYS:increase renal calcium reabsorption (in the distal tubule via activation of a basolateral Ca2+ATPase pump), increase renal phosphate reabsorption, inhibit 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity in the kidneys (negative feedback)PARATHYROID GLANDS:inhibit PTH secretion from the parathyroid glands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis:

      Your Answer: Haemoglobinaemia

      Correct Answer: Bilirubinuria

      Explanation:

      Features of intravascular haemolysis include:haemoglobinaemia, methaemalbuminaemia, haemoglobinuria (dark urine) and haemosiderinuria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She has a history of gout, and this discomfort is identical to prior relapses, according to her. She is currently taking 200 mg of allopurinol per day and has been for the last year. This is her second round of acute gout within this time period. She has no prior medical history to speak of and does not take any other medications. She doesn't have any known drug allergies.Which of the following management options is the SINGLE MOST APPROPRIATE? 

      Your Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Correct Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence naproxen

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol should not be started during an acute gout episode because it can both prolong and trigger another acute attack. Allopurinol should be continued in patients who are currently taking it, and acute attacks should be treated as usual with NSAIDs or colchicine, as needed.Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), such as naproxen, are the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks. Colchicine can be used in situations where NSAIDs are contraindicated, such as in patients with hypertension or those who have had a history of peptic ulcer disease. Because there is no reason for this patient to avoid NSAIDs, naproxen would be the medicine of choice from the list above.It would be reasonable to titrate up the allopurinol dose once the acute episode has subsided, targeting <6 mg/dl (<360 µmol/l) plasma urate levels .Febuxostat (Uloric) is a drug that can be used instead of allopurinol to treat persistent gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency Department after taking 30 of her 200 mcg levothyroxine tablets. She tells you she's 'tired of life' and 'can't take it any longer.' She is currently asymptomatic, and her findings are all within normal limits.What is the minimum amount of levothyroxine that must be taken before thyrotoxicosis symptoms appear?

      Your Answer: >10 mg

      Explanation:

      An overdose of levothyroxine can happen by accident or on purpose. Intentional overdosing is sometimes done to lose weight, but it can also happen in patients who are suicidal. The development of thyrotoxicosis, which can lead to excited sympathetic activity and high metabolism syndrome, is the main source of concern. The time between ingestion and the emergence of clinical features associated with an overdose is often quite long.After a levothyroxine overdose, the majority of patients are asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are usually only seen in patients who have taken more than 10 mg of levothyroxine in total.The following are the most commonly seen clinical features in patients developing clinical features:TremorAgitationSweatingInsomniaHeadacheIncreased body temperatureIncreased blood pressureDiarrhoea and vomitingLess common clinical features associated with levothyroxine overdose include:SeizuresAcute psychosisThyroid stormTachycardiaArrhythmiasComaThe continued absorption of the ingested levothyroxine causes a progressive rise in both total serum T4 and total serum T3 levels in the first 24 hours after an overdose. However, in some cases, the biochemical picture is completely normal. Thyroid function tests are not always recommended after a thyroxine overdose. Although elevated thyroxine levels are common, they have little clinical significance and have no impact on treatment. Following a levothyroxine overdose, the following biochemical features are common:T4 and T3 levels in the blood are elevated.Free T4 and Free T3 levels are higher.TSH levels in the blood are low.If the patient is cooperative and more than 10 mg of levothyroxine has been consumed, activated charcoal can be given (i.e., likely to become symptomatic)Within an hour of ingestion, the patient presents.The treatment is mostly supportive and aimed at managing the sympathomimetic symptoms that come with levothyroxine overdose. If beta blockers aren’t an option, try propranolol 10-40 mg PO 6 hours or diltiazem 60-180 mg 8 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine Physiology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (3/10) 30%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/3) 33%
Haematology (2/4) 50%
Pathology (5/11) 45%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (3/8) 38%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/4) 25%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (2/6) 33%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (1/2) 50%
Basic Cellular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Pathology Of Infections (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/2) 50%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed