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  • Question 1 - A 3-month-old infant is seen by their pediatrician due to their mother's concern...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old infant is seen by their pediatrician due to their mother's concern about their hand being fixed in an unusual position. The infant had a difficult delivery with shoulder dystocia, but has been healthy since birth and meeting developmental milestones.

      During the exam, the pediatrician observes that the infant's fingers on the left hand are permanently flexed, resembling a claw. There is also muscle wasting in the left forearm. Additionally, the pediatrician notes left-sided miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis.

      What is the most probable cause of these symptoms in this infant?

      Your Answer: Klumpke paralysis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is Klumpke paralysis, which is often caused by shoulder dystocia during birth or traction injuries. The patient presents with a claw-like deformity in their hand, indicating damage to the C8 and T1 branches of the brachial plexus. This condition is also associated with Horner’s syndrome, which the patient is experiencing.

      Bell’s palsy, C8 radiculopathy, and Erb-Duchenne paralysis are all incorrect diagnoses for this patient. Bell’s palsy only affects the facial nerve and would not cause the other symptoms seen in this patient. C8 radiculopathy would not result in the claw-like deformity or T1 dermatome involvement. Erb-Duchenne paralysis affects a different part of the brachial plexus and presents differently from this patient’s symptoms.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman visits her GP with a facial droop and is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her GP with a facial droop and is diagnosed with facial nerve palsy. The GP is aware that this nerve has motor, sensory, and autonomic functions and proceeds to assess her for any deficits in these areas. Which glands receive autonomic stimulation from this nerve?

      Your Answer: Parotid, lacrimal and submandibular

      Correct Answer: Lacrimal, submandibular and sublingual

      Explanation:

      The internal acoustic meatus serves as the exit point for the facial nerve from the cranial cavity. It then proceeds through the stylomastoid foramen and enters the parotid gland. Within the gland, the nerve splits into multiple branches that provide motor function to the facial muscles, sensory function to the front two-thirds of the tongue, and autonomic stimulation to the lacrimal, submandibular, and sublingual glands.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 2-day old baby is found to have classic galactosaemia on heel prick...

    Correct

    • A 2-day old baby is found to have classic galactosaemia on heel prick test. The parents ask for clarification.

      The doctor clarifies that the deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) enzyme is responsible for classic galactosaemia. This enzyme is essential for the metabolism of galactose, a type of sugar.

      Your Answer: Converts galactose-1-P to glucose-1-P

      Explanation:

      The conversion of galactose-1-P to glucose-1-P requires the presence of Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT).

      Disorders of Galactose Metabolism

      Galactose metabolism is a complex process that involves the breakdown of galactose, a type of sugar found in milk and dairy products. There are two main disorders associated with galactose metabolism: classic galactosemia and galactokinase deficiency. Both of these disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, which leads to the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate. This disorder is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, infantile cataracts, and hepatomegaly.

      On the other hand, galactokinase deficiency is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactokinase, which results in the accumulation of galactitol. This disorder is characterized by infantile cataracts, as galactitol accumulates in the lens. Unlike classic galactosemia, there is no hepatic involvement in galactokinase deficiency.

      In summary, disorders of galactose metabolism can have serious consequences and require careful management. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for improving outcomes and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man is undergoing investigation for haematuria, with no other urinary symptoms...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is undergoing investigation for haematuria, with no other urinary symptoms reported. He has no significant medical history and previously worked in the textiles industry. During a flexible cystoscopy, a sizable mass is discovered in the lower part of his bladder, raising suspicion of bladder cancer. A PET scan is planned to check for any nodal metastasis. Which lymph nodes are most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: External and internal iliac lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The bladder’s lymphatic drainage is mainly to the external and internal iliac nodes. A man with haematuria and a history of working with dye is found to have a bladder tumour. To stage the tumour, nodal metastasis should be investigated, and the correct lymph nodes to check are the external and internal iliac nodes. Other options such as deep inguinal, para-aortic, and superficial inguinal nodes are incorrect.

      Bladder Anatomy and Innervation

      The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is not secreted by the islets of Langerhans? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not secreted by the islets of Langerhans?

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Mucosal cells in the duodenum and jejunum release secretin.

      Hormones Released from the Islets of Langerhans

      The islets of Langerhans in the pancreas are responsible for the production and secretion of several hormones that play a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. The beta cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for producing insulin, which accounts for 70% of the total secretions. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and tissues throughout the body.

      The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans produce glucagon, which has the opposite effect of insulin. Glucagon raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. The delta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce somatostatin, which helps to regulate the release of insulin and glucagon.

      Finally, the F cells in the islets of Langerhans produce pancreatic polypeptide, which plays a role in regulating pancreatic exocrine function and appetite. Together, these hormones work to maintain a delicate balance of blood glucose levels in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?

      Your Answer: To regulate gene transcription and translation

      Explanation:

      The Nucleus: Control Centre of the Cell

      The nucleus is the control centre of the cell, responsible for regulating gene transcription from DNA into mRNA and from mRNA into peptide/protein synthesis. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-enclosed organised nucleus, while prokaryotic cells lack this structure. The nuclear structure consists of an outer and inner nuclear membrane that form the nuclear envelope, which has nuclear pores allowing the movement of water-soluble molecules. Inside the nucleus is the nucleoplasm containing the nuclear lamina, a dense fibrillar network that acts as a skeleton and regulates DNA replication and cell division. The nucleus also contains nucleoli, structures involved in the formation of ribosomes responsible for mRNA translation.

      Although the incorrect answer options above describe processes in which the nucleus is involved, none of them constitutes its main function within the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of a squeezing pain...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of a squeezing pain from his loin to groin area and blood in his urine. After diagnosis, he is found to have a kidney stone measuring approximately 2mm in diameter in his left ureter. What anatomical structure must the stone pass through for conservative management?

      Your Answer: Trigone of the bladder

      Explanation:

      The trigone of the bladder is a sensitive area located at the base of the bladder, which is formed by the two ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice. This area plays a crucial role in sending signals to the brain for micturition as the bladder fills. When managing ureteric stones conservatively, the stone must pass through the ureteric and urethral orifice to be expelled from the body.

      The corpus cavernosa refers to the tissue on either side of the penis that fills with blood during an erection.

      The fascia-iliaca compartment is a theoretical space that contains the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and femoral nerve. It is utilized when conducting a fascia-iliaca nerve block in a fractured neck of femur.

      The inguinal canal is a structure formed by the muscles, aponeuroses, ligaments, and tendons of the anterior abdominal wall. In males, it contains blood vessels supplying the testicles and scrotum, the ductus deferens, as well as the nerves supplying these areas.

      The pouch of Douglas is an anatomical area found only in women, specifically the recto-uterine area, and is not required for the passing of a ureteric stone.

      Bladder Anatomy and Innervation

      The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the function of aldosterone in the kidney? ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of aldosterone in the kidney?

      Your Answer: Retain sodium and excrete potassium

      Explanation:

      The Role of Aldosterone in Sodium and Potassium Balance

      Aldosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It is the final stage of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, which is triggered by reduced flow to the kidneys. The main function of aldosterone is to retain sodium at the expense of potassium. This helps to increase fluid volume by retaining water, which is important for maintaining blood pressure and electrolyte balance.

      To maintain electrochemical balance, potassium has to be excreted to retain sodium. This means that when aldosterone levels are high, the body will excrete more potassium in the urine. Conversely, when aldosterone levels are low, the body will retain more potassium and excrete more sodium. This delicate balance is essential for proper functioning of the body’s cells and organs.

      In summary, aldosterone is a hormone that helps to regulate the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It is triggered by reduced flow to the kidneys and works to retain sodium at the expense of potassium. This helps to increase fluid volume and maintain electrolyte balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old male has been diagnosed with a carcinoid tumor in his appendix....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male has been diagnosed with a carcinoid tumor in his appendix. Which of the substances listed below would be useful for monitoring during his follow-up?

      Your Answer: AFP

      Correct Answer: Chromogranin A

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between blood and urine tests for carcinoid syndrome is crucial. Chromogranin A, neuron-specific enolase (NSE), substance P, and gastrin are typically measured in blood tests, while urine tests typically measure 5 HIAA, a serotonin metabolite. Occasionally, blood tests for serotonin (5 hydroxytryptamine) may also be conducted.

      Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.

      To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In Froment's test, what muscle function is being evaluated? ...

    Correct

    • In Froment's test, what muscle function is being evaluated?

      Your Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Explanation:

      Nerve signs are used to assess the function of specific nerves in the body. One such sign is Froment’s sign, which is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy. During this test, the adductor pollicis muscle function is tested by having the patient hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The object is then pulled away, and if the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it may indicate ulnar nerve palsy.

      Another nerve sign used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome is Phalen’s test. This test is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign and involves holding the wrist in maximum flexion. If there is numbness in the median nerve distribution, the test is considered positive.

      Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. During this test, the median nerve at the wrist is tapped, and if the patient experiences tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve, the test is considered positive. These nerve signs are important tools in diagnosing and assessing nerve function in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cerebral infarction

      Correct Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy

      A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilatation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.

      In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old male presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain on the left...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain on the left side that radiates to his back. He also reports vomiting. The patient has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.5°C, a respiratory rate of 28/min, a pulse of 110/min, and a blood pressure of 160/82 mmHg. The abdomen is tender to touch, especially over the hypochondrium, and bowel sounds are present. Urinalysis reveals amylase 3+ with glucose 2+.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain with Radiation to the Back

      The occurrence of acute abdominal pain with radiation to the back can be indicative of two possible conditions: a dissection or rupture of an aortic aneurysm or pancreatitis. However, the presence of amylase in the urine suggests that the latter is more likely. Pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, which can cause severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The presence of amylase in the urine is a common diagnostic marker for pancreatitis.

      In addition, acute illness associated with pancreatitis can lead to impaired insulin release and increased gluconeogenesis, which can cause elevated glucose levels. Therefore, glucose levels may also be monitored in patients with suspected pancreatitis. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat pancreatitis as it can lead to serious complications such as pancreatic necrosis, sepsis, and organ failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 76-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with sudden loss of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with sudden loss of vision in the right side of her visual field and difficulty in identifying familiar objects. Which artery is most likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is posterior cerebral artery. When this artery is affected by a stroke, it can cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia, which is the inability to recognize familiar objects. In this case, the left-sided homonymous hemianopia indicates that the right posterior cerebral artery is affected.

      The other options are incorrect. Strokes affecting the anterior cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, but not visual disturbance or agnosia. Strokes affecting the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause vertigo, facial paralysis, and deafness, but not homonymous hemianopia or visual agnosia. Strokes affecting the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia, but not visual agnosia. The stem also does not mention any motor dysfunction or loss of sensation.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man with a 3 year history of poorly controlled Crohn's disease...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a 3 year history of poorly controlled Crohn's disease presents to the gastroenterology clinic for review. Despite trials of multiple agents, he was referred for an ileocaecal resection 12 months ago, which he reports 'went well', and his symptoms have now largely subsided.

      However, he is now reporting new symptoms of fatigue and decreased ability to exercise.

      What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin deficiency may occur after an ileocaecal resection.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy is being evaluated on postoperative day...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy is being evaluated on postoperative day 2. She reports multiple episodes of vomiting and passing urine only once since the operation. Her medical history includes poorly controlled hypertension on dual therapy. She is currently taking fenoldopam, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, atorvastatin, and paracetamol. On physical examination, she has dry mucous membranes and a BMI of 31 kg/m². Her vital signs show a mean arterial pressure of 80 mmHg and a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. Laboratory results reveal:

      Na+ 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Creatinine 160 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most important medication that should be discontinued in this patient?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Explanation:

      In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial to identify and treat the underlying cause. However, it is important to note that ACE inhibitors should be discontinued as they can worsen renal function by causing efferent arteriolar vasodilation, leading to a decrease in GFR. On the other hand, atorvastatin should not be stopped as it does not accumulate and worsen renal function, but frequent monitoring is necessary. If AKI is caused by rhabdomyolysis, then statins should be immediately discontinued. Calcium channel blockers do not exacerbate renal impairment, but it is advisable to reduce the dose and withhold them if clinical signs appear. Fenoldopam, on the other hand, does not impair kidney function but rather increases blood flow to the renal cortex and medullary regions by decreasing systemic vascular resistance.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He describes...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He describes this as crushing central chest pain which is associated with nausea and sweating.

      Blood results are as follows:

      Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 14.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Troponin 4058 ng/L (< 14 ng/L)

      An ECG is performed which demonstrates:

      Current ECG Sinus rhythm, QRS 168ms, dominant S wave in V1
      Previous ECG 12 months ago No abnormality

      Which part of the heart's conduction system is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      The Purkinje fibres have the highest conduction velocities in the heart, and a prolonged QRS (>120ms) with a dominant S wave in V1 may indicate left bundle branch block (LBBB). If a patient presents with chest pain, a raised troponin, and a previously normal ECG, LBBB should be considered as a possible cause and managed as an acute STEMI. LBBB is caused by damage to the left bundle branch and its associated Purkinje fibres.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours after giving birth. The delivery was uncomplicated. On examination, her pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and respirations are 24/min. Diffuse crackles are heard in all lung fields and pulse oximetry shows 85%. A chest x-ray reveals a peripheral wedge-shaped opacity. Despite appropriate interventions, she passes away. Autopsy findings reveal fetal squamous cells in the pulmonary blood vessels.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The presence of fetal squamous cells in the maternal blood vessels of a woman who died during or after labor suggests that she had amniotic fluid embolism instead of pulmonary thromboembolism.

      The patient displayed symptoms of pulmonary embolism shortly after giving birth, including acute shortness of breath, tachycardia, and tachypnea, as well as a wedge-shaped infarction on her chest x-ray. The resulting hypoventilation caused hypoxia. Given that pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, there is an increased risk of thrombus formation and subsequent embolization, making pulmonary thromboembolism the primary differential diagnosis.

      However, the histological findings during autopsy confirmed that the woman had amniotic fluid embolism, as fetal squamous cells were found in her maternal blood vessels. The risk of fetal and maternal blood mixing is highest during the third trimester and delivery, and fetal cells can act as thrombogenic factors. Although rare, this condition has a high mortality rate, and even those who survive often experience severe deficits, including neurological damage.

      Fat embolism typically occurs after long bone fractures or orthopedic surgeries, while air embolism is very rare but can cause immediate death. Cholesterol embolization is a common scenario after cannulation, such as angiography, where the catheter mechanically displaces the cholesterol thrombus, leading to emboli.

      Amniotic Fluid Embolism: A Rare but Life-Threatening Complication of Pregnancy

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but potentially fatal complication of pregnancy that occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a severe reaction. Although many risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unknown. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases occur during labor, but they can also occur during cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of amniotic fluid embolism include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. However, there are no definitive diagnostic tests for this condition, and diagnosis is usually made by excluding other possible causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires immediate critical care by a multidisciplinary team, as the condition can be life-threatening. Treatment is primarily supportive, and the focus is on stabilizing the patient’s vital signs and providing respiratory and cardiovascular support as needed. Despite advances in medical care, the mortality rate associated with amniotic fluid embolism remains high, underscoring the need for continued research into the underlying causes and potential treatments for this rare but serious complication of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      23.6
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  • Question 18 - As the medical resident on the delivery ward, you are conducting routine baby...

    Incorrect

    • As the medical resident on the delivery ward, you are conducting routine baby checks on a 10-day old boy who was delivered via emergency Caesarian section at term due to prolonged labour. During the examination, you notice that the baby appears slightly yellow, but is otherwise healthy with no signs of cardiorespiratory distress. The mother expresses concern that there may be something serious going on. What could be a potential cause of prolonged neonatal jaundice in this infant?

      Your Answer: Congenital hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding has been linked to prolonged neonatal jaundice, which is characterized by high levels of bilirubin in an otherwise healthy breastfed newborn after the first week of life. This type of jaundice lasts longer than normal and has no other identifiable cause. It is important to consider the age at which jaundice appears in order to determine potential underlying causes, such as haemolytic disease, infections, G6PD deficiency, sepsis, polycythaemia, extrahepatic biliary atresia, congenital hypothyroidism, or breastfeeding.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised by the nursing staff regarding her altered bowel habits. The patient has been experiencing bowel movements approximately 12 times a day for the past two days and is experiencing crampy abdominal pain.

      The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 124 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelet count of 175 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count of 16.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)

      Upon reviewing her medication chart, it is noted that she recently finished a course of ceftriaxone for meningitis.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the most probable finding on stool microscopy?

      Your Answer: Gram-negative bacilli

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is a Clostridium difficile infection, which is a gram-positive bacillus bacteria. This infection is triggered by recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use, as seen in this patient who was prescribed ceftriaxone for meningitis. The patient’s symptoms of crampy abdominal pain and sudden onset diffuse diarrhoea, along with a marked rise in white blood cells, are consistent with this diagnosis. Gram-negative bacilli, gram-negative cocci, and gram-negative spirillum bacteria are unlikely causes of this patient’s symptoms.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with worsening left knee pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with worsening left knee pain over the past six weeks and fever for the past two weeks. She has a heart rate of 100/min, respiratory rate of 18/min, temperature of 39.2ºC, blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 97%. A pink rash is visible on her chest. Canakinumab is prescribed for suspected systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis.

      What is the mode of action of canakinumab?

      Your Answer: Binds with IgE

      Correct Answer: Targets IL-1β

      Explanation:

      Canakinumab is an IL-1β antagonist monoclonal antibody that targets IL-1 beta. It is approved for use in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease.

      The Role of Interleukin 1 in the Immune Response

      Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a crucial mediator of the immune response, secreted primarily by macrophages and monocytes. Its main function is to act as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation. Additionally, IL-1 increases the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This can cause shock in sepsis, making IL-1 one of the mediators of this condition. Along with IL-6 and TNF, IL-1 also acts on the hypothalamus, causing pyrexia.

      Due to its significant role in the immune response, IL-1 inhibitors are increasingly used in medicine. Examples of these inhibitors include anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, and canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta used in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease. These inhibitors help to regulate the immune response and manage conditions where IL-1 plays a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23.6
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  • Question 21 - A 19-year-old athlete presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old athlete presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling on the medial side of the knee joint. The pain is experienced while climbing stairs, but not while walking on level ground. On clinical examination, there is tenderness over the proximal medial tibia and the McMurray test is negative. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament tear

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The Pes Anserinus, also known as the goose’s foot, is formed by the combination of the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinous muscles as they insert into the anteromedial proximal tibia.

      Overuse injuries can lead to Pes Anserinus Bursitis, which is frequently seen in athletes. The primary symptom is pain in the medial proximal tibia. A negative McMurray test can rule out medial meniscal injury.

      The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).

      The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.

      In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      39.5
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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 6-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 6-month history of cramping abdominal pain and weight loss. She reports looser bowel motions and opening her bowels 2-4 times per day. There is no history of fever or vomiting. During the examination, the physician observes 4 oral mucosal ulcers. Mild tenderness is noted in the right iliac fossa. An endoscopy is ordered.

      What are the expected endoscopy findings for this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cobble-stoned appearance

      Explanation:

      This patient has been diagnosed with Crohn’s disease, which is characterized by a long history of abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhea. Unlike ulcerative colitis, which only affects the colon, Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. In this case, oral mucosal ulceration is also present. The classic cobblestone appearance on endoscopy is due to deep ulceration in the gut mucosa with skip lesions in between.

      On the other hand, loss of haustra is a finding seen in chronic ulcerative colitis on fluoroscopy. The chronic inflammatory process in the mucosal and submucosal layers of the colon can cause luminal narrowing, resulting in a drainpipe colon that is shortened and narrowed. In UC, shallow ulceration occurs in the mucosa, with spared mucosa giving rise to the appearance of polyps, also known as pseudopolyps. These can cause bloody diarrhea.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31.3
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  • Question 23 - A 90-year-old man is discovered unconscious in his residence. He is transported to...

    Correct

    • A 90-year-old man is discovered unconscious in his residence. He is transported to the hospital for further evaluation and is diagnosed with dehydration-induced hypotension. What is the most probable physiological response?

      Your Answer: Renin release due to reduced perfusion of organs

      Explanation:

      Renin is released when there is a decrease in renal perfusion.

      The secretion of aldosterone would increase due to elevated levels of angiotensin II.

      Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole to the glomerulus, which increases the pressure across the glomerulus and filtration fraction, ultimately preserving GFR.

      Angiotensin II stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete more ADH, which acts on the collecting duct to increase water absorption.

      The baroreceptor reflex is another mechanism that helps maintain blood pressure homeostasis, along with the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors in the aortic arch/carotid sinus detect the stretching of the vessel, leading to inhibition of sympathetic tone and increased parasympathetic tone, which decreases blood pressure. In hypotension, the baroreceptors detect less stretching in the vessel, leading to increased sympathetic tone and decreased parasympathetic tone. In this case, increased sympathetic tone would result in an increase in heart rate.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      16.9
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to a neurologist by her GP due to...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to a neurologist by her GP due to developing increasingly severe involuntary movements, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of Huntington's disease.

      Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that her mother and grandmother were both diagnosed with the same condition at ages 32 and 36, respectively.

      What is the most suitable phrase to describe this trend?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders, such as Huntington’s disease, exhibit anticipation, which is the earlier onset of symptoms in successive generations. This phenomenon is also observed in other neurological disorders like myotonic dystrophy. It is important to note that Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, not autosomal recessive. Codominance and epistasis are not related to the earlier onset of symptoms in successive generations and are therefore not applicable.

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      23.4
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old male with long standing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male with long standing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the emergency department (ED) with shortness of breath over the last 2 hours and wheezing. On examination, he is cyanosed, has a third heart sound present and has widespread wheeze on auscultation. The emergency doctor also notices hepatomegaly which was not present 10 days ago when he was in the ED for a moderative exacerbation of COPD.

      What is the likely cause of the newly developed hepatomegaly in this 67-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

      Your Answer: Cor pulmonale

      Explanation:

      The cause of the patient’s hepatomegaly is likely subacute onset cor pulmonale, which is right sided heart failure secondary to COPD. This is supported by the presence of shortness of breath, cyanosis, and a third heart sound. Left sided heart failure is unlikely to be the cause of his symptoms and hepatomegaly. While ascites can be a complication of right sided heart failure and portal hypertension, it does not cause hepatomegaly. Cirrhosis and liver cancer are also unlikely causes given the patient’s presentation, which is more consistent with a cardiorespiratory issue.

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.4
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  • Question 26 - You are participating in a cardiology ward round with a senior consultant and...

    Correct

    • You are participating in a cardiology ward round with a senior consultant and encounter an 80-year-old patient. Your consultant requests that you auscultate the patient's heart and provide feedback.

      During your examination, you detect a very faint early-diastolic murmur. To identify additional indications, you palpate the patient's wrist and observe a collapsing pulse.

      What intervention could potentially amplify the intensity of the murmur?

      Your Answer: Asking patient to perform a handgrip manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      The intensity of an aortic regurgitation murmur can be increased by performing the handgrip manoeuvre, which raises afterload by contracting the arm muscles and compressing the arteries. Conversely, amyl nitrate is a vasodilator that reduces afterload by dilating peripheral arteries, while ACE inhibitors are used to treat aortic regurgitation by lowering afterload. Asking the patient to breathe in will not accentuate the murmur, but standing up or performing the Valsalva manoeuvre can decrease venous return to the heart and reduce the intensity of the murmur.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan’s and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.

      Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      36.2
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old male visits the rheumatology clinic with a history of rheumatoid arthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male visits the rheumatology clinic with a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is presently taking rituximab, which decreases the production of antibodies. Which immune cell is most likely to be affected by this medication?

      Your Answer: T helper 2 cells

      Correct Answer: B cells

      Explanation:

      Rituximab is a biological drug used to treat rheumatoid arthritis by depleting B-cells and reducing inflammation. It increases the risk of infection and requires TB status checks before treatment.

      Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.

      However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.

      There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      13.3
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  • Question 28 - From which of these foraminae does the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve...

    Correct

    • From which of these foraminae does the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull?

      Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      Standing Room Only – Locations of trigeminal nerve branches exiting the skull

      V1 – Superior orbital fissure
      V2 – Foramen rotundum
      V3 – Foramen ovale

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden and severe abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden and severe abdominal pain that extends to his back. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, osteoarthritis, and asthma, and is a smoker. He is currently taking a salbutamol and corticosteroid inhaler. During the examination, his BMI is found to be 35kg/m².

      What is the most probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Heavy alcohol use

      Explanation:

      Pancreatitis is most commonly caused by heavy alcohol use and gallstones, while osteoarthritis and smoking are not direct contributors. However, the use of a steroid inhaler and a high BMI may also play a role in the development of pancreatitis by potentially leading to hypertriglyceridemia.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - To which opioid receptor does morphine bind? ...

    Incorrect

    • To which opioid receptor does morphine bind?

      Your Answer: kappa

      Correct Answer: mu

      Explanation:

      This receptor is targeted by pethidine and other traditional opioids.

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      4.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (2/5) 40%
General Principles (2/4) 50%
Renal System (4/4) 100%
Endocrine System (1/2) 50%
Basic Sciences (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (3/5) 60%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular System (3/3) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Reproductive System (1/2) 50%
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