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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to receive the results of an...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to receive the results of an HIV test, which come back positive. What test would be the most helpful in determining his likelihood of developing an opportunistic infection (OI)?

      Your Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for HIV-Related Immune Impairment

      The CD4 count is a reliable indicator of HIV-related immune impairment. In HIV-negative individuals, the CD4 count is usually maintained above 600-800 cells/µl. Without antiretroviral therapy (ART), HIV-positive individuals will experience a gradual decline in CD4 count. A CD4 count of <350 cells/µl is associated with an increased risk of opportunistic infections (OI), while a count of <200 cells/µl indicates an 80% risk of developing an OI over the next three years. Chest X-rays are usually normal in HIV-positive individuals without a history of chronic respiratory disorders. Blood cultures may be useful in diagnosing the presence of an OI, but will not help estimate the risk of developing OIs. HIV-positive individuals often have an abnormal full blood count (FBC), being at higher risk of anaemia, lymphopenia, and thrombocytopenia. However, these abnormalities may be for a variety of reasons and do not help with risk assessment for developing OIs. Tuberculin skin tests (TST) are used to check for immunity to tuberculosis (TB) and in the diagnosis of latent TB infection (LTBI). HIV-positive individuals are at a much higher risk of TB disease, but may also have a muted response to TST due to their compromised immunity. TST can be useful in assessing a patient’s eligibility for treatment with isoniazid preventive therapy but is not useful in assessing disease stage and risk of OIs in general. Diagnostic Tests for HIV-Related Immune Impairment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11.2
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. She...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. She has widespread aches in multiple joints, including the hips, wrists and knees. She is normally fit and well, and the only medical history to note was eczema as a child, which she has now grown out of. The patient’s mother mentions that she did have a sore throat around two weeks ago, which was self-limiting. From the history and examination findings, the examining doctor feels that the patient is likely to have rheumatic fever.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Streptococcus Bacteria and Their Associated Infections

      Streptococcus bacteria are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Here are some of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they are associated with:

      1. Group A Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause rheumatic fever, tonsillitis, erysipelas, scarlet fever, cellulitis, septic arthritis, Henoch–Schönlein purpura, post-streptococcal autoimmunity, and erythema multiforme.

      2. Group B Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause septic abortion and bacterial meningitis.

      3. Gamma-haemolytic Streptococcus: This type of bacteria is classified as gamma-haemolytic because it does not break down red blood cells on blood agar plates.

      4. Streptococcus pneumoniae: This type of bacteria is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.

      5. Streptococcus viridans: This type of bacteria is an important cause of bacterial endocarditis.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they can cause in order to properly diagnose and treat these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19.7
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of dysuria and urinary frequency that...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of dysuria and urinary frequency that have been present for 2 weeks. She denies any recent sexual activity or vaginal discharge and is in good health otherwise. The GP suspects a UTI. What is the leading cause of UTIs?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Common Bacteria that Cause Urinary Tract Infections

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common health problem caused by bacterial infections. The following are some of the most common bacteria that cause UTIs:

      Escherichia coli (E. coli): This bacterium is responsible for up to 90% of UTIs. E. coli is part of the normal flora of the colon, and perianal colonisation can lead to ascending infection of the urethra. UTIs may involve the urethra (urethritis) or may ascend to infect the bladder (cystitis) or kidneys (pyelonephritis).

      Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus): This bacterium causes infections of the skin and wounds but, in severe cases, can also cause pneumonia, osteomyelitis, and endocarditis. They are also found as a commensal skin bacterium.

      Proteus mirabilis: This is a less common cause of UTI but, like E. coli, is an enteric organism.

      Klebsiella: This is also a less common cause of UTI but, like E. coli, is an enteric organism having spread from the anus.

      Candida albicans: Candida is an unlikely cause for a UTI and is a far more common cause of vaginal infections, and can commonly contaminate a urine sample. Only in immunosuppression or if strong clinical suspicion should a urine sample growing Candida be considered to be a fungal UTI.

      To diagnose a UTI, a urine dipstick test is needed to look for the presence of nitrites and leukocytes. If these are present, then empirical treatment is usually started with a 3-day course of trimethoprim (7-day course in men). If symptoms persist, then a mid-stream specimen of urine is sent for analysis where infection is diagnosed by the presence of >105 organisms per ml. The symptoms of UTIs may vary depending on the location of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6
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  • Question 4 - Which organism causing bacteraemia/sepsis necessitates the combined use of penicillin and an aminoglycoside...

    Incorrect

    • Which organism causing bacteraemia/sepsis necessitates the combined use of penicillin and an aminoglycoside for effective treatment?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Common Bacterial Infections

      Bacterial infections can be treated with antibiotics, but different types of bacteria require different antibiotics for effective treatment. Bacteroides fragilis, for example, requires a combination of penicillin and gentamicin to be adequately treated. On the other hand, Streptococcus pneumoniae can be treated with penicillin alone. Staphylococcus aureus, which can be resistant to certain antibiotics, is treated with flucloxacillin or vancomycin for resistant strains. Similarly, Enterococcus can be treated with a penicillin or vancomycin if it is resistant.

      It is important to note that the appropriate antibiotic treatment for a bacterial infection should be determined by a healthcare professional. Taking the wrong antibiotic or not completing a full course of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, which can make future infections more difficult to treat. Additionally, some antibiotics may have side effects or interact with other medications, so it is important to follow the instructions of a healthcare professional when taking antibiotics. By using antibiotics appropriately, we can effectively treat bacterial infections and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a cellulitis that had not...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a cellulitis that had not improved with empirical antibiotic treatment. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation and is allergic to penicillin. During the course of his stay he developed a severe diarrhoea, and was put into a side-room after a stool sample returned positive for Clostridium difficile.
      Which antibiotic most likely contributed to his developing C. difficile?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection: Understanding the Risks and Treatments

      C. difficile infection is commonly associated with the use of antibiotics, particularly clindamycin and second and third-gen Cephalosporins. Other antibiotics such as fluoroquinolones, penicillins, and co-amoxiclav are also linked to this infection. Risk factors include age, underlying health conditions, current use of PPIs, and prolonged antibiotic use. When C. difficile infection is confirmed, metronidazole is the initial treatment of choice, although mild cases may not require treatment. Severe cases may require vancomycin or fidaxomicin. Amoxicillin is also associated with C. difficile infection, while clarithromycin should not be prescribed to patients on warfarin. Ceftaroline, a new fifth-generation cephalosporin, has not yet been established as a risk factor for C. difficile infection. Understanding the risks and treatments associated with antibiotics and C. difficile infection is crucial for effective management and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      18.2
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of dysuria, right flank pain...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of dysuria, right flank pain and suprapubic discomfort following her honeymoon. What is the most probable causative organism for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Causes of Urinary Tract Infections

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) and pyelonephritis are commonly caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract. The most common causative agent is Escherichia coli, followed by Staphylococcus saprophyticus in young women. Serratia marcescens is less likely to cause UTIs as it is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections. Enterobacter cloacae is a less common cause of UTIs compared to E. coli. Proteus mirabilis, a highly motile organism that splits urea, can cause staghorn calculi if it chronically colonizes the urinary tract. Treatment usually involves a fluoroquinolone or sulfamethoxazole mixture with trimethoprim, but never moxifloxacin as it does not get into the urine. Understanding the bacterial causes of UTIs is crucial in selecting appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      16.6
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with perineal pain. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with perineal pain. He has been experiencing excruciating pain while passing stool every morning for the past two weeks. He had previously been diagnosed with an anal fissure by a surgeon, but treatment failed to relieve his symptoms. He has also noticed streaks of blood in his stool. The patient recently returned from a trip to Tokyo. He appeared very distressed and reported continuous anal discharge leading to soiling of his undergarments for the past five days.
      What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Single dose ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Proctitis Syndrome: Single Dose Ceftriaxone

      Proctitis syndrome is a condition characterized by tenesmus, blood in stool, and anal discharge. It can be caused by infectious and non-infectious factors such as sexually transmitted diseases, Shigella, syphilis, Chlamydia, Crohn’s disease, and radiation proctitis. In this case, the patient has recently returned from a trip abroad, indicating the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection. Therefore, ceftriaxone is the appropriate treatment for gonorrhoeae, which is a common cause of proctitis.

      Probiotics are not indicated in the treatment of gonorrhoeae, and a steroid enema is only used if ulcerative colitis is suspected. Oral ciprofloxacin is not used in the treatment of gonorrhoeae but may be used for other conditions such as prostatitis or pyelonephritis. Surgical intervention is not necessary at this time but may be required later for the patient’s pre-existing anal fissure after recovery from proctitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 8 - What is the most frequent micro-organism responsible for haematogenous osteomyelitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent micro-organism responsible for haematogenous osteomyelitis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Radiographic Abnormalities in Haematogenous Osteomyelitis

      Haematogenous osteomyelitis is a condition where infection spreads to the bone through the bloodstream. When the infection reaches the periosteal membrane, it can create a cloaca that extends into nearby soft tissues. This can lead to cortical sequestration. In children, the metaphysis may become infected and spread to the epiphysis, resulting in involucrum formation. Staphylococcus is a common cause of single or multiple Brodie’s abscesses, which appear as areas of radiolucency with adjacent sclerosis on X-rays. The lucent region in the metaphysis may connect with the growth plate through a tortuous channel, known as the channel or tract sign. In the diaphysis, the abscess cavity can be located in central or subcortical areas or in the cortex itself and may contain a central sequestrum. In the epiphysis, a circular, well-defined osteolytic lesion is seen. A cortical abscess can resemble the appearance of an osteoid osteoma or a stress fracture. These radiographic abnormalities can aid in the diagnosis of haematogenous osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11
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  • Question 9 - A geriatric patient develops a wound infection postoperatively on the abdominal wall. This...

    Correct

    • A geriatric patient develops a wound infection postoperatively on the abdominal wall. This is swabbed, and 2 days later, the following report is available:
      Sample type: Pus from wound infection
      Culture report: Significant Staphylococcal species
      Sensitivities: Methicillin Sensitive
      Ciprofloxacin Resistant
      Tetracycline Resistant
      Trimethoprim Resistant
      Gentamicin Resistant
      Which of the following would you commence?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Options for Staphylococcal Infections: A Review

      When it comes to treating staphylococcal infections, choosing the right antibiotic is crucial. Here, we review several options and their effectiveness against this type of bacteria.

      Flucloxacillin is a great choice for staphylococcal infections, as it has excellent activity against this type of bacteria. However, ciprofloxacin is not recommended, as staphylococci are typically resistant to it. Methicillin is the most effective option, but it is only used in the laboratory for testing antibiotic resistance. If the organism is resistant to methicillin, vancomycin may be necessary, but it is a broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotic that requires monitoring. Finally, trimethoprim is not a good choice for staphylococcal infections, as the bacteria are often resistant to it.

      In summary, choosing the right antibiotic for staphylococcal infections requires careful consideration of the available options and the specific characteristics of the infective organism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      14
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  • Question 10 - What is the cause of Ramsay Hunt syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the cause of Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

      Your Answer: HZV

      Explanation:

      Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: A Facial Paralysis Associated with Herpes Zoster

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus or geniculate neuralgia, is a condition characterized by acute facial paralysis that occurs alongside herpetic blisters on the skin of the ear canal or auricle. This syndrome was first described by James Ramsay Hunt in 1907, who attributed the symptoms to an infection of the geniculate ganglion by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV).

      Patients with Ramsay Hunt syndrome typically experience otalgia (ear pain) along with cutaneous and mucosal rashes. The condition is caused by the reactivation of VZV, which lies dormant in the sensory ganglia after an initial infection with chickenpox. The virus can then travel along the sensory nerves to the skin of the ear, causing blisters and inflammation.

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome can be a debilitating condition, as the facial paralysis can affect a person’s ability to speak, eat, and drink. Treatment typically involves antiviral medication, corticosteroids, and supportive care to manage symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for improving outcomes and reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.5
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  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old girl, originally from India, has been exhibiting behavioural problems at school....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl, originally from India, has been exhibiting behavioural problems at school. After a few months, she started experiencing involuntary movements of her limbs and is now having tonic-clonic seizures. A diagnosis of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis has been confirmed through an EEG. Which infectious agent is likely to be detected in her cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) antibodies?

      Your Answer: Malaria

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis: A Rare Complication of Measles

      Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive neurological disorder caused by the measles virus and is a rare complication of measles. It typically occurs 5-10 years after the initial measles infection. The diagnosis of SSPE is based on clinical symptoms such as behavioural changes, myoclonus, dementia, and visual disturbances, along with the presence of characteristic periodic EEG discharges called Rademecker complexes, and a raised antibody titre against measles in the plasma and cerebrospinal fluid.

      Treatment for SSPE involves lifelong oral isoprinosine and intraventricular interferon. However, if the patient does not respond, SSPE usually causes death within 1-3 years. The best way to prevent SSPE is through vaccination against measles.

      Other viral infections such as mumps, rubella, varicella zoster, and malaria are not associated with SSPE. Cerebral malaria may present with an unarousable coma, which is unlikely to be seen in SSPE until the very end stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      16.9
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  • Question 12 - A patient presents with diarrhoea and vomiting; she is jaundiced. Hepatitis A infection...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with diarrhoea and vomiting; she is jaundiced. Hepatitis A infection is diagnosed.
      Which one of the following modes of transmission is most likely?

      Your Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Modes of Transmission for Hepatitis A Virus

      Hepatitis A virus is a self-limiting RNA virus that causes hepatitis. It is primarily acquired orally through contaminated food or water, or through contact with the feces of an infected individual. The incubation period is between two and six weeks, and symptoms may include flu-like and gastrointestinal symptoms during the prodromal phase, and jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, and hepatomegaly during the icteric phase. Unlike hepatitis B, C, D, and E, hepatitis A does not cause chronic infection and usually confers lifelong immunity.

      Mosquitoes and ticks do not transmit hepatitis A, but different mosquito species act as vectors for diseases such as malaria, dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever, while hard and soft ticks transmit rickettsial infections like Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Hepatitis B, C, and D can be transmitted sexually, and hepatitis B, C, D, and E can be transmitted through blood transfusion. In rare cases, hepatitis A may also be transmitted sexually.

      Understanding the Modes of Transmission for Hepatitis A Virus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      20
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old woman recently had a UTI, which was found to be positive...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman recently had a UTI, which was found to be positive for Proteus mirabilis. What type of renal calculi is she now at a higher risk for developing?

      Your Answer: Cystine

      Correct Answer: Magnesium ammonium phosphate

      Explanation:

      Proteus mirabilis is a type of Gram-negative bacilli that can cause serious infections and is treated with broad-spectrum penicillins or cephalosporins. These organisms produce ureases, which can hydrolyze urea to ammonia and create an alkaline environment in urine. This can lead to the formation of magnesium ammonium phosphate stones, also known as struvite and staghorn calculi. However, Proteus mirabilis is not a risk factor for other types of kidney stones, such as urate, calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, or cystine stones. These types of stones are caused by different factors, such as dehydration, hypercalcaemia, or genetic conditions. Treatment for each type of stone varies and may involve pain relief, medication, or surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.4
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a headache that has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a headache that has been bothering him for the past 48 hours. He is experiencing neck stiffness and photophobia, and his temperature is 39 °C. The Brudzinski sign is positive. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use (IVDU) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. He admits to not following his highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) medication regimen. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals budding yeast cells that stain strongly with India Ink. What antimicrobial medication would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Amphotericin B

      Explanation:

      Antifungal Treatment for Cryptococcal Meningitis

      The patient in question is likely immunosuppressed due to non-compliance with medication, making meningitis a possibility. Microscopy revealed budding yeast cells that stained positive with India Ink, indicating cryptococcal meningitis. Treatment for this organism is antifungal medication, specifically amphotericin B. Clotrimazole is used for candida infections, while azithromycin is effective against intracellular bacteria like chlamydia. Ceftriaxone is given prior to diagnosis, but would not affect the organism present. Co-amoxiclav is not effective against cryptococcal meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      20.4
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old bird keeper in a zoo developed fever and difficulty breathing after...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old bird keeper in a zoo developed fever and difficulty breathing after handling a new group of birds imported from Brazil. Which microorganism is likely to have caused his illness?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia psittaci

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Infections and their Risk Factors

      Chlamydia psittaci, also known as ornithosis, is a bacterial infection that can be contracted through contact with exotic birds. The severity of the disease can range from no apparent illness to severe pneumonia, with additional symptoms such as diarrhea, arthralgia, meningitis, leukopenia, and Horder’s spots. Diagnosis is made through serology or bronchoalveolar lavage, and treatment involves tetracyclines or macrolides.

      Legionella pneumophila is typically transmitted through contaminated air conditioning systems and whirlpools, rather than through birds.

      Coxiella burnetii is usually contracted through exposure to infected cattle or cats, rather than birds.

      Rhodococcus is a Gram-positive organism that primarily affects individuals who are immunosuppressed, such as those with HIV infection.

      Klebsiella pneumonia is a Gram-negative organism that is commonly seen in individuals with weakened immune systems, including those with diabetes, alcoholism, liver disease, malignancy, or long-term steroid therapy.

      Understanding Bacterial Infections and their Risk Factors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.9
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  • Question 16 - How would you describe a small RNA genome delta antigen virus that can...

    Correct

    • How would you describe a small RNA genome delta antigen virus that can only exist alongside hepatitis B?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis D

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis D and Human Cytomegalovirus

      Hepatitis D is a virus that can only exist alongside another virus, specifically hepatitis B. Patients who are infected with both viruses have a higher risk of developing severe liver conditions such as hepatic failure, cirrhosis, and cancer. The mortality rate for those with both viruses is 20%, and it is more common in under-developed countries and among intravenous drug users.

      On the other hand, Human Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type of herpes virus that can remain latent in the body for many years. While a normal individual may not experience any symptoms, CMV can be life-threatening for those with weakened immune systems. HIV seropositive patients are unlikely to develop CMV disease unless their CD4 counts are less than 50. Diagnosis of CMV is typically done through whole blood CMV PCR.

      Overall, both hepatitis D and CMV are viruses that can have severe consequences for those who are infected, particularly for those with weakened immune systems. It is important to take preventative measures and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.7
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  • Question 17 - A pediatric hospital adopts a set of infection management practice guidelines developed within...

    Correct

    • A pediatric hospital adopts a set of infection management practice guidelines developed within the local community. If the medical staff follows these guidelines, what is the expected outcome?

      Your Answer: Stable antibiotic susceptibility patterns for bacteria

      Explanation:

      The Benefits of Guideline Use in Antibiotic Treatment

      Guideline use in antibiotic treatment has been linked to stable antibiotic susceptibility patterns in both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. This is thought to be due to the promotion of antimicrobial heterogeneity. Additionally, guideline use has been associated with a decrease in overall antibiotic use and a reduction in the use of inadequate treatment regimens. These factors could potentially impact the development of antibiotic resistance. The use of automated guidelines has also been shown to decrease adverse drug effects and improve antibiotic selection. Overall, the use of guidelines in antibiotic treatment can have numerous benefits for both patients and the healthcare system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      17.2
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  • Question 18 - What is an example of an organism that can only survive inside a...

    Correct

    • What is an example of an organism that can only survive inside a host cell?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia Trachomatis: A Unique Intracellular Parasite

      Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of intracellular parasite that infects only humans. Unlike other microorganisms, it cannot produce its own ATP or grow on artificial medium. Initially, it was believed to be a virus, but its unique developmental cycle led to its classification in a separate order. Diagnostic manuals often place it alongside other intracellular parasites like Rickettsiae.

      The genome size of Chlamydia trachomatis is around 500-1000 kilobases and contains both RNA and DNA. It is also highly temperature-sensitive and must be refrigerated at 4°C immediately after obtaining a sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.4
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  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain, fever and weight loss. Abdominal imaging...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain, fever and weight loss. Abdominal imaging revealed multiple retroperitoneal lymph nodes. She was diagnosed with intestinal tuberculosis and received a full drug regimen for six months. However, after completion of treatment, her symptoms remain. She presents to us with a body weight of 38 kg. There is angular stomatitis and diffuse loss of hair. She looks tanned. Repeat abdominal imaging reveals persistence of the lymph nodes. Her son, who accompanied her, complains that his mother is becoming listless and she has even given up her favourite hobby of Sudoku. She also has a few involuntary movements of her face, such as chewing.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Whipple’s disease

      Explanation:

      Whipple’s Disease: A Multisystem Disorder with Malabsorption and Cognitive Decline

      This patient presents with iron deficiency, abdominal lymphadenopathy, hyperpigmentation, and cognitive decline. Despite treatment for tuberculosis, there has been no improvement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Whipple’s disease, a multisystem disorder caused by infection with Tropheryma whipplei. Malabsorption with abdominal lymphadenopathy is a common manifestation, and extraintestinal symptoms can include cognitive decline with facial involuntary movements, arthritis, hyperpigmentation, retinitis, and endocarditis. HIV dementia, prion disease, Huntington’s chorea, and coeliac disease are all ruled out based on the patient’s clinical presentation and lack of risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      50.6
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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) presents with fever, cough, and SOB. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) presents with fever, cough, and SOB. Upon echocardiogram, severe tricuspid regurgitation and two vegetations on the valve are observed. What is the most probable organism to be cultured from the patient's blood?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Infective Endocarditis: Causes, Microbiology, and Clinical Features

      Infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can affect individuals with certain predisposing factors, such as a previous episode of endocarditis, rheumatic heart disease, intravenous drug use, prosthetic valves, congenital heart disease, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The most common causative organisms include viridans streptococci, Streptococcus bovis, Staphylococcus aureus (especially in intravenous drug users), enterococcal, gram-negative bacteria, and Staphylococcus epidermidis (in patients with prosthetic valves).

      Clinical features of infective endocarditis include fever, anorexia and weight loss, new or changing murmur, splinter hemorrhages, clubbing, splenomegaly, petechiae, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, systemic emboli, and hematuria. While 50% of cases occur in previously normal valves (native valve endocarditis), it is typically an acute presentation.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Pneumocystis carinii (now known as Pneumocystis jirovecii), and Legionella pneumophila are not common causes of infective endocarditis. While Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause infective endocarditis, it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.3
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Microbiology (15/20) 75%
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