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  • Question 1 - A 19-year-old man presents with painless visual loss in his left eye over...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man presents with painless visual loss in his left eye over the course of 24 hours. He had previously lost vision in his right eye over the past two weeks, with no improvement in the following two months. He denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history. He smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week. Physical examination reveals bilateral optic atrophy and impaired color vision in both eyes. All other neurological exams are normal. Various tests, including a full blood count, liver function tests, and MRI brain and orbits, all come back normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Leber’s optic atrophy

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Optic Neuropathies

      Leber’s optic atrophy is a condition that primarily affects young men and causes rapid optic neuropathies that lead to severe and painless vision loss. Unfortunately, visual acuity does not improve with time. This condition is caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA, specifically the MT-ND1, MT-ND4, MT-ND4L, and MT-ND6 genes. However, it is important to note that not everyone with a mutation will develop symptoms, with more than 50% of males and 85% of females never experiencing vision loss or related medical problems.

      In contrast, optic neuritis is typically painful and results in gradual improvement of visual acuity over a few weeks. Giant cell arteritis is a condition that affects elderly patients, while alcohol/tobacco optic neuropathies are usually chronic. the differences between these various types of optic neuropathies can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.6
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  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old man presents with a scaly rash on the back of his...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presents with a scaly rash on the back of his hands. The erythematous rash is located on the extensor aspects of his fingers, particularly over the MCP and PIP joints. He has also noticed a violaceous swelling of his left upper eyelid. These symptoms have been bothering him for the past two weeks, and he has tried using an emollient cream without any improvement. His two brothers both have psoriasis, and he has been healthy apart from childhood eczema.

      In addition to the rashes, he has a palpable mass in the left iliac fossa that is non-tender, and a nodular liver edge can be felt in the right upper quadrant. His conjunctiva are pale. He reports experiencing varying bowel movements, ranging from diarrhea to occasional constipation. He tried taking mebeverine but did not find any relief. There are no other rashes present.

      What is the probable cause of this rash?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is often associated with cancer as a paraneoplastic syndrome. The presence of Gottron’s papules on the hand and a heliotrope rash on the face is a clear indication of dermatomyositis, which can be either idiopathic or secondary to malignancy. The abdominal mass may be indicative of a rectal tumor, while the liver nodules could be metastases. Although erythema gyratum repens is another paraneoplastic rash that may occur, it is easily recognizable due to its distinct appearance and coverage of large areas.

      Understanding Dermatomyositis

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

      In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain in the central region. The pain started suddenly about an hour ago. The 12-lead ECG shows >2 mm of ST elevation in all anterior and lateral leads. The nearest primary angioplasty center is 140 minutes away, and there are no contraindications to thrombolysis.

      Apart from the standard treatment for acute coronary syndrome (pain relief, aspirin, a heparin, and a P2Y12 inhibitor), what is the most appropriate approach for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate transfer for acute angioplasty

      Correct Answer: Thrombolysis and immediate transfer for acute angioplasty

      Explanation:

      The recommended time for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is within 90 minutes from door-to-balloon or door-to-device. However, some medical centers lack the capability to perform primary PCI and may not be able to transfer patients to a center that can do so in a timely manner.

      To address this issue, the NORDISTEMI TRIAL (NORwegian study on DIstrict treatment of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction) recommends that patients with STEMI in centers with long transfer times (mean transfer time was 130 minutes in this trial) should initially receive thrombolysis, followed by immediate transfer for PCI. This approach has been shown to reduce the rate of death, re-infarction, or stroke at 12 months compared to a conservative, ischaemia-guided approach (e.g. thrombolysis alone or thrombolysis with rescue angioplasty) for patients with STEMI.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are requested to evaluate a 57-year-old man who is employed in a...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 57-year-old man who is employed in a factory that produces smoked meats and fish. He is provided with complimentary food from the factory every month. He reports an increase in indigestion and has lost one stone in weight over the last two months. He consumes 10 units of alcohol per week.

      During the examination, a mass is detected in the epigastrium and a firm, palpable liver is observed. Further investigations reveal a microcytic anaemia, along with elevated levels of alanine aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most probable underlying cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Smoked foods

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest gastric cancer, which can be caused by various factors such as chronic H. pylori infection, tobacco and alcohol use, exposure to certain chemicals, and consumption of smoked foods. While smoked foods typically have a modest effect on stomach cancer risk, regular consumption can increase the risk. Other risk factors include gastritis with intestinal metaplasia, hypertrophic gastritis, and pernicious anemia. Surgery is often not an option for patients who present with advanced stages of the disease, and chemotherapy may only provide palliative care. Hereditary gastric cancer syndromes are rare, and alcohol consumption is unlikely to be a significant contributor to risk. Chronic H. pylori infection does increase the risk of gastric cancer, but in this case, the consumption of smoked foods is a more likely factor. Pernicious anemia is also associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer, but not as much as excessive consumption of smoked foods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      54.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis seeks advice on starting...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis seeks advice on starting a family with her partner. Her rheumatoid arthritis is currently well-managed with methotrexate and sulphasalazine, and she has not needed to adjust her doses for the past two years. However, she is hesitant to stop taking her medications unless it is necessary, as she experienced several flares when her doses were reduced three years ago. What recommendations would you provide regarding her pregnancy plans?

      Your Answer: Continue sulphasalazine and stop methotrexate

      Explanation:

      It is common for rheumatology clinics to encounter female patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are of child-bearing age. In such cases, the priority is to determine the need for treatment while also considering the risks of disease flares and potential harm to the fetus. During pregnancy, most RA patients experience an improvement in their condition, but caution must be exercised with certain medications. Methotrexate, for instance, is highly teratogenic and should be discontinued one to three months before pregnancy. On the other hand, DMARDs like hydroxychloroquine and sulphasalazine are generally considered safe to continue during pregnancy, although the latter should be avoided by male patients attempting to conceive due to the risk of oligospermia. Glucocorticoids can also be used during pregnancy, but only in low doses after 14 weeks, as there is an increased risk of cleft palate and gestational hypertension before this time. In cases where flares occur after discontinuing methotrexate, low doses of prednisolone may be an option.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      44.7
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of IV drug use is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of IV drug use is admitted with fever, arthralgia, and a rash. She has been deteriorating over the past six weeks and admits to using injection sites around her groin and feet. On examination, she has a soft systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min and regular, and her temperature is 37.8 °C. Investigations reveal abnormal results including focal segmental proliferative glomerulonephritis on renal biopsy. Which of the following is an appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) of the thorax and abdomen

      Correct Answer: Serial blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Investigations for a Patient with Hypocomplementaemia and Glomerulonephritis

      When a patient presents with hypocomplementaemia and glomerulonephritis, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s history and examination suggest infective endocarditis as the likely culprit. Serial blood cultures from different sites and an echocardiogram are the next investigations of choice. Treatment with intravenous flucloxacillin and gentamicin should be started immediately, without waiting for test results.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan of the thorax and abdomen may be useful in identifying any malignancies or abnormal masses, but it is not helpful in diagnosing infective endocarditis. Similarly, tests for anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies, anticardiolipin antibodies, and rheumatoid factor are not useful in this context.

      Overall, a careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history, along with appropriate laboratory and imaging tests, can help identify the underlying cause of hypocomplementaemia and glomerulonephritis and guide effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      104
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old male is being seen at the endocrinology clinic for presenting with...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male is being seen at the endocrinology clinic for presenting with low serum testosterone and a lack of secondary sex characteristics. He has never fully developed pubertal body hair or muscle mass, and has small testicles. Additionally, he was born with a cleft palate and has difficulty with his sense of smell. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kallmann syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kallmann Syndrome is a probable cause of anosmia when accompanied by male hypogonadism, low testosterone levels, and normal or low FSH and LH levels.

      Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman visits the dermatology clinic complaining of a rash that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits the dermatology clinic complaining of a rash that has been gradually worsening in both her axillae for the past three months. She first noticed it while shaving, and although she is concerned about its cosmetic appearance, she is not worried about its cause. She has a family history of type 2 diabetes and has recently been feeling full after small meals, which she attributes to her successful attempt to lose weight through dieting. During the examination, diffuse brown, velvety hyperpigmentation is observed in both axillae. There are no underlying masses, and the hyperpigmentation is non-tender. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Early Satiety and Acanthosis Nigricans: A Red Flag for Gastric Adenocarcinoma

      In patients over 40 years old with early satiety and acanthosis nigricans, it is important to rule out gastric adenocarcinoma. While acanthosis nigricans can be associated with various conditions, the presence of early satiety should raise concern for an upper gastrointestinal malignancy. Additionally, recent weight loss is another concerning symptom that may indicate an underlying malignant process.

      It is crucial for physicians to investigate these symptoms thoroughly and promptly to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential malignancy. Therefore, patients presenting with early satiety and acanthosis nigricans should undergo further evaluation, such as upper GI endoscopy and imaging studies, to rule out gastric adenocarcinoma. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 9 - As a Cardiology Senior House Officer (SHO) in the Outpatient Department, you encounter...

    Incorrect

    • As a Cardiology Senior House Officer (SHO) in the Outpatient Department, you encounter a 65-year-old woman during her annual review. She had a mechanical valve replacement four years ago for severe aortic stenosis (AS) and has been well until three weeks ago. She presents with weight loss, poor appetite, and breathlessness that started after attending a general surgical appointment for rectal bleeding. On examination, you note conjunctival pallor, splinter haemorrhages on both hands, and a soft metallic second heart sound. There is also an ejection systolic murmur at the second right intercostal space and right sternal edge, as well as an early diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge accentuated by forced expiration. You diagnose her with infective endocarditis on the metallic valve prosthesis and arrange for urgent admission. The most important investigation to guide further management of the infective endocarditis is awaited trans-oesophageal echocardiogram.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood cultures

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Blood Cultures in Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis: Explanation of Investigation Options

      Prosthetic valve endocarditis is a serious condition that requires prompt and targeted treatment. While various tests can aid in diagnosis, the most important investigation for guiding management is blood cultures. These cultures enable antibiotic therapy to be targeted within 48 hours of starting treatment, which is crucial for effective treatment. It is recommended to take blood cultures from separate sites, ideally 1 hour apart if possible, as bacteraemia may be periodic. Other tests, such as a 12-lead ECG, urinalysis, urgent abdominal ultrasound, and urgent colonoscopy, may provide helpful information but will not guide the choice of antibiotics. Therefore, in cases of suspected prosthetic valve endocarditis, blood cultures should be the primary investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 46-year-old man with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis presents to the acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis presents to the acute medical unit complaining of upper abdominal pain that worsens after meals. He denies any changes in bowel habits or the presence of dark, sticky, or foul-smelling stools. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) is scheduled, and the results are as follows:

      - Oesophagus: Grade 1 varices with no evidence of recent or active bleeding
      - Stomach: Moderate non-haemorrhagic gastritis
      - Duodenum: Unremarkable

      The patient has no prior history of oesophageal varices. What is the most appropriate management plan for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat OGD in 1 year

      Explanation:

      For patients diagnosed with cirrhosis, the recommended approach for managing varices is as follows: if no varices are present, a rescope should be scheduled in 2-3 years; if grade 1 varices are present, a rescope should be scheduled in 1 year; and if grade 2 or 3 varices or signs of bleeding are present, a non-cardio selective beta blocker should be administered. Based on the patient’s reported symptoms, it appears that they are experiencing gastritis and there is no indication of bleeding during the OGD exam. Therefore, it is likely that the patient has non-bleeding grade 1 varices and should schedule a rescope in 1 year.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (1/1) 100%
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