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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. He rates the pain as 8/10 in severity, spread throughout his abdomen and persistent. He reports having one instance of loose stools since the pain started. Despite mild abdominal distension, physical examination shows minimal findings.
What sign would the physician anticipate discovering upon further examination that is most consistent with the clinical picture?Your Answer: Nail pitting
Correct Answer: An irregularly irregular pulse
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute mesenteric ischaemia, which is characterized by sudden onset of abdominal pain that is disproportionate to physical examination findings. Diarrhoea may also be present. The presence of an irregularly irregular pulse is indicative of atrial fibrillation, which is a common cause of embolism and therefore the correct answer. Stridor is a sign of upper airway narrowing, bi-basal lung crepitations suggest fluid accumulation from heart failure or fluid overload, and bradycardia does not indicate a clot source.
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that is commonly caused by an embolism that blocks the artery supplying the small bowel, such as the superior mesenteric artery. Patients with this condition usually have a history of atrial fibrillation. The abdominal pain associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia is sudden, severe, and does not match the physical exam findings.
Immediate laparotomy is typically required for patients with acute mesenteric ischaemia, especially if there are signs of advanced ischemia, such as peritonitis or sepsis. Delaying surgery can lead to a poor prognosis for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An aged male patient suffers from seizures and loses consciousness. Central pontine myelinolysis is diagnosed. What substance in the blood, when rapidly corrected from low levels, causes this condition?
Your Answer: Chloride
Correct Answer: Sodium
Explanation:Central pontine myelinolysis is commonly caused by rapid correction of hyponatraemia, but it is not associated with the other options. Rapid correction of hypokalaemia may result in hyperkalaemia-induced arrhythmias, while rapid correction of hypocalcaemia may cause hypercalcaemia-related symptoms such as bone pain, renal/biliary colic, abdominal pain, and psychiatric symptoms (known as bones, stones, moans, and groans). Hypochloraemia is typically asymptomatic and not routinely monitored in clinical practice. Rapid correction of hypomagnesaemia may lead to hypermagnesaemia-induced weakness, nausea and vomiting, arrhythmias, and decreased tendon reflexes.
Hyponatremia is a condition where the sodium levels in the blood are too low. If left untreated, it can lead to cerebral edema and brain herniation. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat hyponatremia promptly. The treatment plan depends on various factors such as the duration and severity of hyponatremia, symptoms, and the suspected cause. Over-rapid correction can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome, which is a serious complication.
Initial steps in treating hyponatremia involve ruling out any errors in the test results and reviewing medications that may cause hyponatremia. For chronic hyponatremia without severe symptoms, the treatment plan varies based on the suspected cause. If it is hypovolemic, normal saline may be given as a trial. If it is euvolemic, fluid restriction and medications such as demeclocycline or vaptans may be considered. If it is hypervolemic, fluid restriction and loop diuretics or vaptans may be considered.
For acute hyponatremia with severe symptoms, patients require close monitoring in a hospital setting. Hypertonic saline is used to correct the sodium levels more quickly than in chronic cases. Vaptans, which act on V2 receptors, can be used but should be avoided in patients with hypovolemic hyponatremia and those with underlying liver disease.
It is important to avoid over-correction of severe hyponatremia as it can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome. Symptoms of this condition include dysarthria, dysphagia, paralysis, seizures, confusion, and coma. Therefore, sodium levels should only be raised by 4 to 6 mmol/L in a 24-hour period to prevent this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is brought to the GP by his wife. She reports that his behaviour has become increasingly erratic and that he often appears to be listening to something that she cannot hear.
During the consultation, the GP notices that he keeps standing up and sitting down again. When questioned on these movements, the patient says, 'I can't help it, my neighbour is controlling my legs.'
What symptom is the patient experiencing?Your Answer: Passivity
Explanation:Passivity is the belief that one’s movements or sensations are controlled by an external force. Grandiose delusion is a false belief in one’s own superiority. Avolition is a decrease in motivation for purposeful activities. Catatonia is a state of unresponsiveness with repetitive movements or abnormal postures.
Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient in his 50s becomes dehydrated, resulting in increased water absorption in the collecting duct. If the concentration of his urine is measured, it would be around 1200mOsm/L. At which point in the nephron would a comparable osmolarity be observed?
Your Answer: The tip of the Loop of Henle
Explanation:The Loop of Henle creates the highest osmolarity in the nephron, while the proximal tubule absorbs most of the water. The tip of the papilla has the greatest osmolarity, which is also the maximum osmolarity that urine can attain after water absorption in the collecting ducts. The medulla of the kidney facilitates water reabsorption in the collecting ducts due to the osmotic gradient formed by the Loops of Henle.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An academic clinician is investigating whether the use of clot retrieval after thrombolysis provides significant improvements in patient outcomes compared to using thrombolysis alone in elderly patients with recent ischaemic stroke. She is testing the null hypothesis that there is no significant difference in patient outcomes between the two treatment methods.
Your Answer: Thrombolysis is significantly worse than clot retrieval
Correct Answer: The use of clot retrieval in addition to thrombolysis provides no additional benefit
Explanation:The null hypothesis for this study is that the addition of clot retrieval to thrombolysis does not result in a significant improvement in patient outcomes compared to thrombolysis alone.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Correct
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A randomised controlled trial compares two drugs used in the initial management of hypertension in elderly patients. After being assigned to the randomised groups, a number of patients drop out due to adverse effects of the medication. How should the data be analysed?
Your Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set
Explanation:Understanding Intention to Treat Analysis
Intention to treat analysis is a statistical method used in randomized controlled trials. It involves analyzing all patients who were randomly assigned to a particular treatment group, regardless of whether they completed or received the treatment. This approach is used to avoid the effects of crossover and drop-out, which can affect the randomization of patients to treatment groups.
In simpler terms, intention to treat analysis is a way of analyzing data from a clinical trial that ensures all patients are included in the analysis, regardless of whether they completed the treatment or not. This approach is important because it helps to avoid bias that may arise from patients dropping out of the study or switching to a different treatment group. By analyzing all patients as originally assigned, researchers can get a more accurate picture of the effectiveness of the treatment being studied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male is set to undergo a renal biopsy the following day. He is currently taking multiple medications. The local guidelines advise stopping the use of non-reversible cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitors due to the potential for bleeding.
What medication among the following is considered non-reversible?Your Answer: Naproxen
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which are responsible for producing prostaglandins. However, due to the risk of bleeding, clinicians may discontinue the use of aspirin during certain procedures. On the other hand, celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor that does not worsen gastric ulcers. Naproxen, diclofenac, and ibuprofen also inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, but their inhibition is reversible.
How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.
Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy has been diagnosed with aplastic anaemia. He hails from a family of farmers and used to play hide and seek in the barns where pesticides and other chemicals were stored. He visited his GP complaining of fatigue, dyspnoea, and headaches. Further blood tests revealed a significant leucopenia. Aplastic anaemia is a condition where haematopoietic stem cells that produce immune cell precursors fail. Where in the body are these cells primarily located?
Your Answer: Cervical lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation:Aplastic anemia is a condition where there is a shortage of blood cells from all types of progenitor lines. It is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 to 25 and those over 60.
The causes of aplastic anemia can be attributed to various factors such as infections (including Epstein-Barr), toxic exposure (such as benzene and radiation), idiopathic, and rarely hereditary.
Haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow generate immune cells. These cells produce two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, which give rise to all immune cells.
Myeloid progenitor cells give rise to cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.
The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse. She visits her physician complaining of ongoing abdominal discomfort, steatorrhea, and weight loss. There is no jaundice present. Tests indicate an increased lipase level and a normal amylase level. An ERCP is performed to examine the biliary system and pancreas.
What is the most probable finding in the pancreas during the ERCP?Your Answer: A pancreatic abscess
Correct Answer: 'Chain of lakes' appearance
Explanation:Chronic pancreatitis can be diagnosed based on several factors, including alcohol abuse, elevated lipase levels, and normal amylase levels. An ERCP can confirm the diagnosis by revealing the characteristic chain of lakes appearance of the dilated and twisted main pancreatic duct. The absence of systemic symptoms makes a pancreatic abscess or necrosis unlikely, while a normal or absent pancreas is highly improbable.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 73-year-old woman, is currently admitted to the medical ward after experiencing chest pain. A recent blood test revealed low levels of potassium. The doctors explained that potassium plays a crucial role in the normal functioning of the heart and any changes in its concentration can affect the heart's ability to contract and relax properly.
How does potassium contribute to a normal cardiac action potential?Your Answer: This electrolyte has no direct role in the normal cardiac action potential
Correct Answer: A slow influx of the electrolyte causes a plateau in the myocardial action potential
Explanation:Calcium causes a plateau in the cardiac action potential, prolonging contraction and reflected in the ST-segment of an ECG. A low concentration of calcium ions can result in a prolonged QT-segment. Sodium ions cause depolarisation, potassium ions cause repolarisation, and their movement maintains the resting potential. Calcium ions also bind to troponin-C to trigger muscle contraction.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the more commonly recognized name for the compound referred to as vitamin E?
Your Answer: Boron
Correct Answer: Alpha tocopherol
Explanation:Vitamin E and Other Essential Nutrients
Vitamin E is a group of compounds that includes alpha tocopherol, beta tocopherol, gamma tocopherol, and delta tocopherol. While each of these compounds contains vitamin E activity, alpha tocopherol is the most biologically active and abundant form of vitamin E in the diet. Vitamin E plays a crucial role in protecting cells and proteins from oxidative damage by removing free radicals. It also has antithrombotic effects, which means it impairs the action of thromboxane and thrombin, reducing blood clotting and platelet aggregation.
Adults are recommended to consume at least 15 mg of vitamin E daily, but larger quantities may also be beneficial. Good sources of vitamin E in the diet include sunflower oil, wheatgerm, and unprocessed cereals. In addition to vitamin E, other essential nutrients include alpha 1 antitrypsin, which prevents alveolar damage and lung dysfunction, beta carotene, which is responsible for vision development, boron, which is important for bone health, and thiamine, which can lead to polyneuropathy and heart failure if deficient. these essential nutrients and their roles in the body can help individuals make informed decisions about their diet and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is hospitalized with acute mesenteric ischemia. During a CT angiogram, a narrowing is observed at the point where the superior mesenteric artery originates. At what level does this artery branch off from the aorta?
Your Answer: L4
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:The inferior pancreatico-duodenal artery is the first branch of the SMA, which exits the aorta at L1 and travels beneath the neck of the pancreas.
The Superior Mesenteric Artery and its Branches
The superior mesenteric artery is a major blood vessel that branches off the aorta at the level of the first lumbar vertebrae. It supplies blood to the small intestine from the duodenum to the mid transverse colon. However, due to its more oblique angle from the aorta, it is more susceptible to receiving emboli than the coeliac axis.
The superior mesenteric artery is closely related to several structures, including the neck of the pancreas superiorly, the third part of the duodenum and uncinate process postero-inferiorly, and the left renal vein posteriorly. Additionally, the right superior mesenteric vein is also in close proximity.
The superior mesenteric artery has several branches, including the inferior pancreatico-duodenal artery, jejunal and ileal arcades, ileo-colic artery, right colic artery, and middle colic artery. These branches supply blood to various parts of the small and large intestine. An overview of the superior mesenteric artery and its branches can be seen in the accompanying image.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of lightheadedness and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, his ECG reveals supraventricular tachycardia, which may be caused by an irregularity in the cardiac electrical activation sequence. He is successfully cardioverted to sinus rhythm.
What is the anticipated sequence of his cardiac electrical activation following the procedure?Your Answer: AV node- atria- SA node- Bundle of His- right and left bundle branches- Purkinje fibres
Correct Answer: SA node- atria- AV node- Bundle of His- right and left bundle branches- Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The correct order of cardiac electrical activation is as follows: SA node, atria, AV node, Bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers. Understanding this sequence is crucial as it is directly related to interpreting ECGs.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In a 5-year-old with a single palmar crease, prominent supra-orbital ridge, brush spots, slanted ears and hypotonia, what is the most probable underlying mechanism?
Your Answer: Reciprocal translocation
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome is primarily caused by non-disjunction during maternal meiosis, with a small percentage of cases resulting from reciprocal or Robertsonian translocations.
Features of Down’s Syndrome
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects individuals in various ways. The clinical features of Down’s syndrome include distinct facial characteristics such as upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Other physical features include a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between the big and first toe. Hypotonia, or low muscle tone, is also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
In addition to physical features, individuals with Down’s syndrome may also experience cardiac complications, with congenital heart defects present in 40-50% of cases. These can include endocardial cushion defect, ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome can include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
Overall, Down’s syndrome can affect individuals in a variety of ways, with physical and medical features that can impact their daily lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Correct
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Which one of the following pairings of foramina and their contents is not correct?
Your Answer: Jugular foramen and the hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:The hypoglossal canal is the pathway for the hypoglossal nerve.
Foramina of the Base of the Skull
The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.
The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.
The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducent nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 99-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of recent facial weakness and slurred speech. The GP suspects a stroke and conducts a thorough neurological evaluation. During the cranial nerve examination, the GP observes that the glossopharyngeal nerve is unaffected. What are the roles and responsibilities of this nerve?
Your Answer: Purely motor
Correct Answer: Motor, sensory and autonomic
Explanation:The jugular foramen serves as the pathway for the glossopharyngeal nerve. This nerve has autonomic functions for the parotid gland, motor functions for the stylopharyngeus muscle, and sensory functions for the posterior third of the tongue, palatine tonsils, oropharynx, middle ear mucosa, pharyngeal tympanic tube, and carotid bodies.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of painful axillary lymphadenopathy that developed just one day ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he sustained a scratch while gardening a couple of days prior. The patient states that he cleaned the wound at the time, but it has since deteriorated and is now oozing yellow fluid.
During the examination, the wound appears hyperemic, and there is a purulent exudate.
Where is the wound most likely located?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C6 dermatome
Explanation:The upper limb drains into the axillary lymph nodes, which can become painful and may lead to lymphadenitis in cases of secondary bacterial infection. The correct dermatome for sensory innervation of the lateral half of the forearm is C6, while C2 provides sensory innervation to the posterior half of the head, L2 to the anterior thighs, and T8 to a horizontal band around the torso below the umbilicus (T10), all of which are drained by different lymph nodes.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A gynaecologist is performing a laparoscopic hysterectomy on a 45-year-old patient. He is being careful to avoid damaging a structure that runs close to the vaginal fornices.
What is the structure that the gynaecologist is most likely being cautious of?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureter
Explanation:The correct statements are:
– The ureter enters the bladder trigone after passing only 1 cm away from the vaginal fornices, which is closer than other structures.
– The ilioinguinal nerve originates from the first lumbar nerve (L1).
– The femoral artery is a continuation of the external iliac artery.
– The descending colon starts at the splenic flexure and ends at the beginning of the sigmoid colon.
– The obturator nerve arises from the ventral divisions of the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves.Anatomy of the Ureter
The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man, who has a history of epilepsy, attends a follow-up appointment at neurology outpatients. He reports experiencing a prodrome of aura before having floaters in his vision and unusual flashes of color during the ictal phase. The patient has no other notable symptoms or medical history. Which region of the brain is linked to the symptoms described by this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occipital lobe
Explanation:Occipital lobe seizures are associated with visual disturbances such as floaters and flashes. The cerebellum is not typically associated with epilepsy, although recent research has potentially implicated this area in refractory epilepsy. Seizures in the frontal lobe can cause random hand and leg movements and abnormal posturing, while seizures in the parietal lobe can cause sensory disturbances such as paraesthesia.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy visits the GP clinic with his father, complaining of lower abdominal pain. He has a fever and has vomited twice in the last 24 hours. The GP suspects appendicitis and recommends further evaluation at the hospital. However, the patient refuses, becoming emotional and stating that he has an important sports game coming up. Despite the GP's attempts to explain the potential risks of refusing treatment, the patient continues to shake his head and refuses to discuss the matter further. His father becomes agitated, insisting that his son needs to go to the hospital for treatment. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask the mother to consent to further treatment - as a parent in this instance, her decision overrides that of her daughter
Explanation:The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided guidance for doctors on the ethical principles surrounding consent to treatment in children in their publication ‘0-18 years: guidance for all doctors’ (2007). According to this guidance, if a child lacks capacity, their parents can provide consent for investigations and treatment that are deemed to be in the child’s best interests.
In this scenario, the patient is not displaying a sufficient level of maturity to comprehend the risks associated with refusing treatment. As the patient is under 16 years old, it can be assumed that they lack the capacity to make such a decision. Therefore, the responsibility of making a decision in the patient’s best interests falls to their mother.
The options of allowing the patient to go home or return the following day are not appropriate as appendicitis can become a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Asking the mother to leave would also not be a suitable course of action as her reaction is understandable given the circumstances and it is not in the patient’s best interests.
References:
General Medical Council. 0-18 years: guidance for all doctors. London: General Medical Council, 2007. p. 11-13.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain and nausea that has persisted for 12 hours. She has oedema in her hands and feet, and a urine dip reveals protein 2+. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, and her most recent blood tests are as follows:
- Hb: 95 g/l
- Platelets: 60 * 109/l
- WBC: 5.5 * 109/l
- Bilirubin: 88 µmol/l
- ALP: 526 u/l
- ALT: 110 u/l
What is the definitive treatment for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delivery of the fetus
Explanation:The woman has HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia. Management includes magnesium sulfate, dexamethasone, blood pressure control, and blood product replacement. Delivery of the fetus is the only cure.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman has been referred to the haematology clinic due to intermittent lymphadenopathy affecting her neck for the past 18 months. Following a biopsy, the histology report suggests a possible diagnosis of follicular lymphoma. To assist with the diagnosis, genetic analysis is conducted.
What is the most probable genomic alteration that will be detected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T(14;18) causing increased BCL-2 transcription
Explanation:Genetics of Haematological Malignancies
Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:
– Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
– t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.
– t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.
– t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.
– t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.
Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old obese man comes to your clinic for a diabetes check-up. Despite being treated with metformin and gliclazide, his HbA1c remains elevated at 55 mmol/mol. He has previously found it difficult to follow dietary advice and lose weight. To enhance his diabetic management, you prescribe sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor. What is the mode of action of this novel medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits the breakdown of incretins
Explanation:DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists, SGLT-2 inhibitors, thiazolidinediones, and sulfonylureas are all medications used to treat diabetes. DPP-4 inhibitors work by inhibiting the breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP, which are released in response to food and help to lower blood glucose levels. GLP-1 agonists directly stimulate incretin receptors, while SGLT-2 inhibitors increase the urinary secretion of glucose. Thiazolidinediones stimulate intracellular signaling molecules responsible for glucose and lipid metabolism, and sulfonylureas stimulate beta cells to secrete more insulin. However, sulfonylureas may be less effective in long-standing diabetes as many beta cells may no longer function properly.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 5-month-old female infant was brought to the hospital due to abdominal distension and diarrhea. Her birth was complicated and required resuscitation. Upon examination, she showed signs of malnourishment, axial hypotonia, and abnormal facial features. Blood tests revealed elevated levels of long-chain fatty acids. What organelle is responsible for the breakdown of long-chain fatty acids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peroxisome
Explanation:The breakdown of long chain fatty acids is primarily carried out by peroxisomes. However, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of Zellweger syndrome, a genetic disorder that impairs peroxisome function.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in the translation and folding of newly synthesized proteins. The nucleus is responsible for housing and regulating DNA, as well as facilitating RNA transcription. Meanwhile, proteasomes are responsible for breaking down proteins that have been marked with ubiquitin.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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As a medical student observing a metabolic medicine clinic, a 40-year-old woman comes in seeking answers about her obesity. With a BMI of 46 kg/m² and a family history of obesity, she is referred for further investigation. After genetic sequencing, it is discovered that she has a mutation in a hormone-regulating gene that is secreted by adipose tissue.
Which hormone is likely impacted by this genetic mutation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leptin
Explanation:Leptin is produced by adipose tissue and is responsible for regulating feelings of fullness and satiety. Mutations in the leptin gene can lead to severe obesity in infants due to increased appetite and reduced feelings of satiety. Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone released by the stomach that stimulates hunger. Melatonin, produced by the pineal gland, regulates the sleep-wake cycle and circadian rhythms but is not known to play a significant role in obesity. Obestatin, released by stomach epithelial cells, has a controversial role in obesity.
The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin
Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.
Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.
In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is brought to the stroke unit with a suspected stroke. She has a medical history of hypertension, type II diabetes, and hypothyroidism. Additionally, she experienced a myocardial infarction 4 years ago. Upon arrival, the patient exhibited a positive FAST result and an irregular breathing pattern. An urgent brain CT scan was performed and is currently under review. What region of the brainstem is responsible for regulating the fundamental breathing rhythm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medulla oblongata
Explanation:The medullary rhythmicity area in the medullary oblongata controls the basic rhythm of breathing through its inspiratory and expiratory neurons. During quiet breathing, the inspiratory area is active for approximately 2 seconds, causing the diaphragm and external intercostals to contract, followed by a period of inactivity lasting around 3 seconds as the muscles relax and there is elastic recoil. Additional brainstem regions can be stimulated to regulate various aspects of breathing, such as extending inspiration in the apneustic area (refer to the table below).
The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body
The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.
Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.
Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful, erythematous, vesicular rash on the anteromedial aspect of his left arm and a small area of his left chest. The patient reports that he first experienced pain in the affected area three days ago and noticed the rash yesterday morning. He attributes his current stressful state to work-related issues, which were exacerbated by a recent COVID-19 infection that required him to take 10 days off. The patient confirms that he had chickenpox during his childhood. Based on this information, where is the virus responsible for his symptoms most likely to have been dormant in his nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T1 dorsal root ganglion
Explanation:After the primary infection (usually chickenpox during childhood), the herpes zoster virus remains inactive in the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia. The patient’s rash, which appears in the left T1 dermatome, indicates that the virus has been dormant in the T1 dorsal root ganglion. Although herpes zoster can reactivate at any time, it is more commonly associated with older age, recent viral infections, periods of stress, or immunosuppression.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A pair comes to your endocrine clinic. The woman has achondroplasia and her partner does not. They want to discuss with you the factors to consider before having a baby. What is accurate about achondroplasia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is unlikely to respond to growth hormone therapy
Explanation:Achondroplasia is a condition that causes dwarfism due to a growth disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, and most affected individuals can expect to have a normal lifespan. However, if both parents have achondroplasia, there is a 25% chance that their child will inherit two copies of the gene, which can be fatal either before or shortly after birth. The cause of achondroplasia is a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor (FGF) receptor, which means that growth hormone therapy is unlikely to be effective.
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that causes short stature due to abnormal cartilage development. It is caused by a mutation in the FGFR-3 gene and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The condition is characterized by short limbs with shortened fingers, a large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis. In most cases, it occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age being a risk factor.
There is currently no specific treatment for achondroplasia. However, some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures, which involve the use of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures. It is important to have a clearly defined need and end point for these procedures in order to achieve success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A premature baby is born and the anaesthetists are struggling to ventilate the lungs because of insufficient surfactant. How does Laplace's law explain the force pushing inwards on the walls of the alveolus caused by surface tension between two static fluids, such as air and water in the alveolus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inversely proportional to the radius of the alveolus
Explanation:The Relationship between Alveolar Size and Surface Tension in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, the alveolus is often represented as a perfect sphere to apply Laplace’s law. According to this law, there is an inverse relationship between the size of the alveolus and the surface tension. This means that smaller alveoli experience greater force than larger alveoli for a given surface tension, and they will collapse first. This phenomenon explains why, when two balloons are attached together by their ends, the smaller balloon will empty into the bigger balloon.
In the lungs, this same principle applies to lung units, causing atelectasis and collapse when surfactant is not present. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension, making it easier to expand the alveoli and preventing smaller alveoli from collapsing. Therefore, surfactant plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the lungs and preventing respiratory distress. the relationship between alveolar size and surface tension is essential in respiratory physiology and can help in the development of treatments for lung diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old male is undergoing treatment for pancytopenia with an unknown cause. His recent blood test revealed a decreased platelet count.
What are the typical factors that stimulate the production of platelets?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombopoietin
Explanation:Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are derived from myeloid stem cells, similar to red blood cells. The process involves the development of a megakaryocyte from a common myeloid progenitor cell. Megakaryocytes are large cells with multilobulated nuclei that grow to become massive before breaking up to form platelets.
The primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and platelet production is thrombopoietin.
Erythropoietin initiates the signal for red blood cell production, while granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes. Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.
Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells
Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.
The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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