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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope without warning. He has no medical history and does not take any regular medications. Substance misuse is not reported.
Upon examination, his vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 88 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/88 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18/minute, oxygen saturations of 96% on room air, and a temperature of 37.1C. An ECG reveals T wave inversion in leads V1-V3.
Blood tests show normal levels of Hb, platelets, WBC, Na+, K+, urea, and creatinine, with a CRP of 4 mg/L and troponin of 4 ng/L. An echocardiogram reveals a dilated, hypokinetic right ventricle. A CT pulmonary angiogram rules out a pulmonary embolism.
What is the most specific ECG finding suggestive of the likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Epsilon wave
Explanation:The most specific ECG finding for arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia (ARVD) is the epsilon wave, which is a small positive deflection at the end of the QRS complex. In this case, the patient’s syncope without warning suggests a cardiogenic cause, and T wave inversion in leads V1-V3 and an echocardiogram showing a dilated, hypokinetic right ventricle are characteristic of ARVD. Delta wave, coved ST segment elevation in V1-V2, and PR depression are not associated with ARVD, but rather with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, Brugada syndrome, and pericarditis, respectively.
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), also known as arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia or ARVD, is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death or syncope. It is considered the second most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals, following hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with variable expression, and it is characterized by the replacement of the right ventricular myocardium with fatty and fibrofatty tissue. Approximately 50% of patients with ARVC have a mutation in one of the several genes that encode components of desmosome.
The presentation of ARVC may include palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. ECG abnormalities in V1-3, such as T wave inversion, are typically observed. An epsilon wave, which is best described as a terminal notch in the QRS complex, is found in about 50% of those with ARVC. Echo changes may show an enlarged, hypokinetic right ventricle with a thin free wall, although these changes may be subtle in the early stages. Magnetic resonance imaging is useful in showing fibrofatty tissue.
Management of ARVC may involve the use of drugs such as sotalol, which is the most widely used antiarrhythmic. Catheter ablation may also be used to prevent ventricular tachycardia, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator may be recommended. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessive variant of ARVC that is characterized by a triad of ARVC, palmoplantar keratosis, and woolly hair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with no current medication use has been found to have three high blood pressure readings: 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Hypertension: Essential vs. Secondary
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common medical condition that affects a significant portion of the population. In fact, 95% of patients who present with hypertension have what is known as essential hypertension. This type of hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors that lead to high blood pressure. On the other hand, 5% of patients have secondary hypertension, which is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.
Essential hypertension is a complex condition that can be influenced by a variety of factors, including age, race, family history, diet, and lifestyle. While the exact cause of essential hypertension is not fully understood, it is believed to be the result of a combination of genetic and environmental factors that lead to an increase in blood pressure. In contrast, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific underlying condition, such as kidney disease, hormonal imbalances, or obstructive sleep apnea.
It is important to distinguish between essential and secondary hypertension, as the treatment and management of these conditions can vary significantly. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension often requires treatment of the underlying condition in order to effectively manage high blood pressure. By the differences between these two types of hypertension, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an appropriate treatment plan that addresses the unique needs of each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the hospital with fever, loin pain, and dysuria that have been present for three days. He denies any past history of urinary tract infections or recent urinary issues. On examination, his blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg, heart rate is 115 beats per minute, and temperature is 38.9°C. Mild guarding is noted in the right flank. The ECG shows sinus tachycardia, and the chest radiograph is normal. He is transferred to the intensive care unit due to hypotension and undergoes a right heart catheterization, revealing the following pressures: right atrial pressure 3/2 mmHg, right ventricle 20/10 mmHg, pulmonary artery pressure 25 mmHg, and pulmonary wedge pressure 4 mmHg. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Right pyelonephritis
Explanation:Misleading Cardiac Catheter Data in a Case of Septic Shock
In this case, the patient is suffering from septic shock, which is causing low systemic, right atrial, and right ventricle pressures. Despite the presentation of cardiac catheter data, the issue is not related to the heart. Instead, the clinical history suggests a right pyelonephritis, as evidenced by a normal chest x-ray that rules out pneumonia. While Behçet’s disease can cause colonic perforation, it is unlikely in this case. Additionally, an acute myocardial infarction is also unlikely, given the normal ECG.
It is important not to be misled by the cardiac catheter data, as it may lead to a misdiagnosis. Instead, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s clinical history and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause of their condition. In this case, the presentation of septic shock and a normal chest x-ray point towards a right pyelonephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man complains of chest pain. He reports that the pain is sharp, aggravated by breathing in, and confined to the right side of his chest. He has no medical history and does not take any regular medications.
Here is the ECG report:
P waves - Normal morphology
PR interval - 140 ms
QRS - 110 ms
QTc - 420 ms
T waves - Inverted in V1-V6
ST segments - No elevation or depression
What is the most probable interpretation of these ECG findings?Your Answer: Normal variant
Explanation:It is unlikely that a man of this age has coronary artery disease, especially since there is no ST elevation present, making an acute STEMI even more improbable. While T-wave inversion can be a symptom of an NSTEMI or stable angina, the patient’s age and lack of risk factors make these diagnoses unlikely. Prinzmetal’s angina, which is caused by vasospasms, is a possibility, but it typically presents with ST elevation. In young Afro-Caribbean patients with no cardiovascular risk factors, widespread T-wave inversion in the chest leads can be a normal variant, making it the most probable diagnosis. However, since the patient’s pain is pleuritic in nature, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses such as pneumothorax.
Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
When analyzing an athlete’s ECG, there are certain changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate, junctional rhythm, which originates from the AV node instead of the SA node, first degree heart block, which is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, and Mobitz type 1, also known as the Wenckebach phenomenon, which is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. It is important to recognize these normal variants in order to avoid unnecessary testing or interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with her fourth episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) in the last four months. She has recently been diagnosed with WPW syndrome. She doesn't smoke but drinks up to three cups of coffee per day. On this occasion, she experienced chest pain and shortness of breath while exercising at the gym. She is currently taking a low dose of verapamil as prophylaxis against further events.
During examination, her BP is 100/70 mmHg, with a pulse of 170 bpm and regular. She is electrically cardioverted.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Radiofrequency ablation
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Next Steps for a Patient with Supraventricular Tachycardia and WPW Syndrome
Despite treatment with a beta-blocker, sotalol, a patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome remains symptomatic. This suggests that further episodes of SVT are likely to occur and may continue to impact the patient’s ability to work. Therefore, the logical next step is to perform electrophysiology studies followed by consideration of radiofrequency ablation.
While amiodarone is occasionally used in tachyarrhythmias, including WPW, it is not indicated in this situation. Similarly, switching from sotalol to verapamil is unlikely to change the patient’s symptoms and may even increase the ventricular rate in WPW. Teaching the patient vagal maneuvers, such as the Valsalva maneuver, may be reasonable for very infrequent episodes of arrhythmia but is not a substitute for definitive treatment.
It is important to note that an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) is not indicated for WPW syndrome. The indications for ICD insertion are clear and outlined in NICE guidance. Therefore, electrophysiology studies followed by consideration of radiofrequency ablation remain the most appropriate next steps for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of alcoholism presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath and decreased exercise tolerance over the past six months. He reports consuming a bottle of whisky and four pints of strong lager per day.
On examination, his blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 80 in atrial fibrillation. Bilateral basal crackles are heard on auscultation of the chest and there is pitting edema in both feet.
Investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 117 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 6.0 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 178 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 136 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 3.9 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 110 µmol/L (79-118). An echocardiogram shows a dilated left ventricle with an ejection fraction of 34%.
What is the most appropriate long-term intervention for this patient?Your Answer: All of these
Explanation:Dilated Cardiomyopathy and its Management
Dilated cardiomyopathy is a condition that causes the heart to become enlarged and weakened, leading to heart failure. One of the most common causes of this condition is chronic alcoholism. However, the good news is that it is potentially responsive to alcohol cessation.
In terms of long-term management, there are several effective therapies available. Bisoprolol, ramipril, and spironolactone are all medications that have been shown to be effective in managing chronic heart failure. These medications work by reducing the workload on the heart and improving its function. It is important to note that these medications should only be taken under the guidance of a healthcare professional, as they can have side effects and may interact with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents to the hospital 2 weeks after undergoing a primary percutaneous coronary intervention for anterior STEMI. He complains of shortness of breath, fever over 39 degrees, and pleuritic chest pain that started 24 hours ago. The chest pain is different from the pain he experienced during his initial presentation with ischaemic chest pain. Upon examination, his calves are soft, heart sounds are normal with no added sounds, and lungs are clear on auscultation. Serum tests reveal a mildly elevated troponin and ECG shows ST elevation in V2 to V4 but no reciprocal change. Angiography shows good radiological flow with no evidence of stent thrombosis. A transthoracic echocardiogram reveals a mild to moderate pericardial effusion without tamponade. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Oral ibuprofen
Explanation:Dressler’s syndrome is a condition that occurs after a cardiac injury and is characterized by inflammation. Symptoms include chest pain, fever, and elevated inflammatory markers. Unlike acute reperfusion injury, which occurs shortly after a heart attack, Dressler’s syndrome typically presents later. It is believed to be caused by an immune response. Treatment typically involves NSAIDs, but some patients may require corticosteroids if symptoms persist.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with chest pain and rapidly worsening shortness of breath that has been occurring over the past 48 hours. She has a history of joint symptoms and has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) by rheumatologists. There is no recent travel or signs of infection.
Upon examination, the patient has a respiratory rate of 26 and oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. Her pulse is 130 and blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. The venous pressure is elevated, but there is no peripheral edema. Cardiac examination is unremarkable, and a 12-lead ECG shows only sinus tachycardia. A chest x-ray reveals a slightly enlarged heart but clear lung fields.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Urgent CT pulmonary angiogram
Correct Answer: Urgent transthoracic echocardiogram
Explanation:Urgent Diagnosis and Management for a Patient with Lupus and Acute Breathlessness
The case of a patient with lupus and acute breathlessness requires urgent diagnosis and management due to the worrying symptoms and haemodynamic parameters. The patient’s history suggests that the features could be due to pericardial effusion or pulmonary embolism (PE), both of which are increased risks with SLE. However, normal oxygen saturations and a slightly enlarged heart make pericardial effusion more likely than PE. It is unclear if pulsus paradoxus is present.
Cardiac examination may not reveal a pericardial effusion, so an urgent echo is necessary to exclude a significant pericardial effusion and provide information on evidence of tamponade physiology. While it is rare to diagnose PE with an echo, it can detect right heart dilatation/impairment and pulmonary hypertension, which can strongly suggest a diagnosis of PE.
Therefore, an urgent echo is the most appropriate diagnostic test in this case. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) could rule out PE and demonstrate an effusion, but it would not reveal tamponade changes. Urgent diagnosis and management are essential for this patient’s well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man arrived at the Emergency department complaining of central crushing chest pain that had been ongoing for five hours. He had a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and mixed dyslipidaemia. After three hours of chest pain, he began experiencing breathlessness.
Upon examination, his blood pressure was 105/70 mmHg and his pulse rate was 100 beats per minute. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. His jugular venous pressure was not visible, and he displayed signs of pulmonary oedema upon chest auscultation. His heart sounds were normal but relatively quiet.
An ECG revealed ST elevation in leads V1 to V6 of approximately 3 mm. A Swan-Ganz catheter was inserted, and the following pressure readings were obtained:
- Right atrial pressure: 10/5 mmHg
- Pulmonary artery pressure: 50/15 mmHg
- Right ventricular pressure: 52/5 mmHg
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 20/14/16/10 mmHg
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute left ventricular failure
Explanation:Diagnosis Post Anterior Myocardial Infarction
After an anterior myocardial infarction (MI), the most likely diagnosis is left heart failure, as indicated by clinical signs. However, there are no signs of right ventricular (RV) failure. The pressure data shows a raised pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) but normal right atrial pressure. The pulmonary and RV pressures are mildly elevated, which is consistent with the diagnosis of left heart failure. If there were a ventricular septal defect, the PCWP would be markedly elevated along with the RV pressure, but this is not the case here. There is no evidence to suggest the other two conditions.
Overall, the diagnosis post anterior myocardial infarction is likely to be left heart failure, which is supported by the raised PCWP and mildly elevated pulmonary and RV pressures. It is important to rule out other conditions such as RV failure and ventricular septal defect, which can have similar symptoms but require different treatment approaches. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of dilated cardiomyopathy presents to the cardiology clinic for review. He is currently on bisoprolol 7.5 mg, aspirin 75 mg, ramipril 10 mg, and spironolactone 25 mg. His recent echocardiogram revealed an ejection fraction of 30%, and his ECG showed a left branch bundle block with a QRS of 156 ms and sinus rhythm. The patient denies any symptoms of shortness of breath, orthopnea, or ankle edema.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac resynchronisation therapy
Explanation:NICE Guidelines Recommend Cardiac Resynchronisation Therapy for Asymptomatic Patients with LBBB and QRS of More Than 150ms
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines on implantable cardioverter defibrillators and cardiac resynchronisation therapy for arrhythmias and heart failure. According to these guidelines, patients who are asymptomatic (NYHA class 1) with a left bundle branch block (LBBB) and QRS of more than 150 ms should be considered for a cardiac resynchronisation therapy (CRT). This recommendation is based on the MADIT-CRT study, which involved patients in class I-II and demonstrated a reduction in hospitalisation and improved left ventricular (LV) function.
The guidelines suggest that patients with LBBB and QRS of more than 150 ms who are asymptomatic may benefit from CRT, even if they do not have heart failure symptoms. This is because CRT can improve LV function and reduce the risk of hospitalisation. The MADIT-CRT study showed that patients who received CRT had a 34% reduction in the risk of heart failure or death compared to those who received only an implantable cardioverter defibrillator. These guidelines provide important information for clinicians and patients in making decisions about the use of CRT for arrhythmias and heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man visits his GP one week after undergoing right hemicolectomy for colonic carcinoma, complaining of feeling generally unwell. He has been experiencing night sweats and increasing lethargy. During the examination, a pan-systolic murmur is detected and he has a fever of 37.8oC. Further investigations reveal abnormal results, including a high ESR and vegetations on the mitral valve seen on trans-oesophageal echocardiography. Which organism is most likely responsible for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacteroides fragilis
Explanation:Infective Endocarditis: Organisms and Associations
Infective endocarditis is a rare complication of colonic resection, caused by gut bacteria entering the bloodstream and forming vegetations on heart valves. Bacteroides fragilis and Streptococcus viridans are commonly associated with community-acquired infection, while Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause overall and often associated with healthcare-acquired disease. Staphylococcus epidermidis is most associated with early prosthetic valve endocarditis. Pseudomonas, which may contaminate recreational drugs, is associated with IV drug abuse and has a high morbidity and mortality rate. Management of endocarditis typically involves broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as metronidazole in the case of B. fragilis. Dental procedures may be relevant in the presence of valvular heart disease due to the presence of S. viridans in the mouth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents with confusion and an unsteady gait. He has a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking dabigatran, bisoprolol, and ramipril.
Upon investigation, his Hb is 110 g/l, platelets are 140 * 109/l, WBC is 10.2 * 109/l, and CRP is 12 mg/l. His Na+ is 139 mmol/l, K+ is 3.8 mmol/l, urea is 6.5 mmol/l, and creatinine is 42 µmol/l. His PT ratio is 1.6 * 109/l and aPTT is 50 seconds.
A CT scan reveals a large acute right-sided subdural hematoma with ventricular effacement and midline shift.
What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idarucizumab
Explanation:When experiencing bleeding while taking dabigatran, idarucizumab can be used to reverse its effects. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor taken orally as an anticoagulant. However, relying on the PT ratio and INR to monitor the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is not recommended. Instead, the aPTT and TT should be used. If idarucizumab is not available, and there is evidence of acquired coagulopathy, red cell concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and/or platelet transfusion may be considered.
Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications
Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran does not require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of progressive exertional breathlessness and ankle swelling. She also experienced 1 episode of loss of consciousness. She had a history of childhood wheezing but had grown out of it. She is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 5 units of alcohol per week. Salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers prescribed by her General Practitioner had no effect. On examination, her heart rate was 86 beats per minute, blood pressure 135/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturations were 93% on room air. Initial investigations including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, autoantibody screen, chest x-ray, lung function tests, transthoracic echocardiogram, CT scan on chest, and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan were all normal. What is the appropriate next investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac catheterisation
Explanation:Based on the history and investigations, it appears that the patient may have idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH). This condition is more commonly seen in women and typically presents with progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, lethargy, or fainting during physical activity. During a physical exam, a loud pulmonary heart sound may be detected, and eventually, murmurs of pulmonary and tricuspid regurgitation may also be heard. As the disease progresses and right heart failure develops, the examination may reveal an elevated jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema.
Other common causes of pulmonary hypertension include congenital or acquired cardiac lesions, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pulmonary thromboembolic disease, and vasculitic disorders.
While an echocardiogram is a useful screening test, the gold standard for confirming the diagnosis is cardiac catheterization. This procedure allows for accurate measurement of right atrial, ventricular, and pulmonary artery pressures, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, pulmonary vascular resistance, and response to acute vasodilators (which has important implications for treatment).
The diagnosis of IPAH is made when the mean pulmonary artery pressure is greater than 25 mmHg, the pulmonary artery wedge pressure is less than or equal to 15 mmHg, and the pulmonary vascular resistance is greater than 3 Wood units.
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a condition where the resting mean pulmonary artery pressure is equal to or greater than 25 mmHg. The pathogenesis of PAH is thought to involve endothelin. It is more common in females and typically presents between the ages of 30-50 years. PAH is diagnosed in the absence of chronic lung diseases such as COPD, although certain factors increase the risk. Around 10% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
The classical presentation of PAH is progressive exertional dyspnoea, but other possible features include exertional syncope, exertional chest pain, peripheral oedema, and cyanosis. Physical examination may reveal a right ventricular heave, loud P2, raised JVP with prominent ‘a’ waves, and tricuspid regurgitation.
Management of PAH should first involve treating any underlying conditions. Acute vasodilator testing is central to deciding on the appropriate management strategy. If there is a positive response to acute vasodilator testing, oral calcium channel blockers may be used. If there is a negative response, prostacyclin analogues, endothelin receptor antagonists, or phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be used. Patients with progressive symptoms should be considered for a heart-lung transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He underwent coronary angiography and a stent was inserted into his left coronary artery. However, he developed oliguria following the procedure. On examination, he had mottled skin changes over his legs and was euvolemic with a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg. His laboratory results showed elevated levels of creatinine, urea, and potassium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol emboli
Explanation:AKI that occurs after angiography can be attributed to either contrast-induced nephropathy or cholesterol emboli. The most common cause is contrast-induced nephropathy, but if there is an elevated eosinophil count and skin rash (livedo reticularis), it is highly indicative of cholesterol emboli.
While acute interstitial nephritis can cause eosinophilia, it is not associated with contrast. ANCA-associated vasculitis, such as Churg Strauss, can cause a rash and eosinophilia, but there are no other symptoms like anemia or systemic upset that match this condition.
The elevated creatine kinase level suggests muscle injury, which aligns with an embolic phenomenon. However, the CK level is not high enough to diagnose rhabdomyolysis, which typically requires a level above 5000.
Cholesterol embolisation is a condition where cholesterol deposits break off and can lead to renal disease. This condition is commonly seen as a result of vascular surgery or angiography, but can also occur due to severe atherosclerosis, especially in large arteries like the aorta. Symptoms of cholesterol embolisation include eosinophilia, purpura, renal failure, and livedo reticularis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 63-year-old man who underwent drug eluting stent placement for an inferior myocardial infarction. He is presently on aspirin and clopidogrel, atorvastatin, ramipril, and bisoprolol. What is the recommended duration of dual antiplatelet therapy after stent implantation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Dual Antiplatelet Therapy and its Duration
Studies have shown that dual antiplatelet therapy provides benefits for up to 12 months. However, two studies conducted by Park et al. have suggested that continuing dual treatment for two years may lead to a non-statistically significant increase in adverse cardiovascular events. In these studies, the primary major adverse cardiovascular events outcome was 1.8% for the dual therapy group compared to 1.2% for the single antiplatelet therapy group. It is important to note that some newer drug eluting stents may require a shorter duration of dual antiplatelet therapy, but the standard duration is 12 months.
If dual therapy is stopped before the 12-month mark, there is an increased risk of further ischaemic events. On the other hand, continuing dual therapy beyond 12 months does not provide any significant benefit and may even lead to an increase in adverse events. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully consider the duration of dual antiplatelet therapy and to follow the recommended guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is being evaluated on the cardiology ward after returning from a vacation in Turkey. He was admitted to the hospital due to an anterior STEMI and received two stents. He has been recovering well and has not experienced any chest pain or worsening shortness of breath. During the examination, his blood pressure was 112/80, and his pulse was 67 and regular. His chest was clear, and the ECG showed anterior Q waves. What combination of drugs would you recommend for anti-platelet therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD and ticagrelor 90 mg BD
Explanation:Anti-Platelet Therapy Post STEMI
In the management of acute coronary syndrome, neither aspirin nor clopidogrel used as monotherapy are considered adequate due to the risk of in-stent restenosis. The standard loading dose used in this situation is clopidogrel 300 mg. However, in a subset of the Plato trial, ticagrelor was found to be associated with a 13% relative reduction in cardiovascular events compared to a conventional clopidogrel-based regimen. This has led to the use of ticagrelor in place of clopidogrel in major guidelines on anti-platelet therapy post STEMI. A loading dose of 180 mg stat is recommended at the time of diagnosis of STEMI. It is important to note that ticagrelor is also associated with an increased risk of bleeding events when compared to aspirin and clopidogrel.
In addition to ticagrelor and clopidogrel, aspirin 75 mg OD is also recommended as part of anti-platelet therapy post STEMI. Rivaroxaban, a factor Xa inhibitor, is not typically used in this situation but is instead used in the management of chronic atrial fibrillation and venous thromboembolic disease.
References:
– Guidance for prescribing Ticagrelor to treat Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS)
– Ticagrelor Versus Clopidogrel in Patients With ST-Elevation Acute Coronary Syndromes Intended for Reperfusion With Primary Percutaneous Coronary Intervention -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the Cardiology Clinic with his daughter. She is very concerned because he fainted while walking to the kitchen. He reports feeling dizzy and then losing consciousness, falling to the ground. He was unresponsive for about 20-30 seconds and had some shaking movements. He has a history of high blood pressure and takes a daily dose of amlodipine 5 mg.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and the cardiovascular examination is unremarkable. Neurological examination is normal.
The following investigations were performed:
- Haemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l (normal range: 130-170 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 6.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
- Platelets (PLT): 180 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
- Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Cr): 120 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
- Resting electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm, no significant abnormalities
- Chest X-ray (CXR): Mild cardiomegaly, no other significant findings
Which of the following investigations is most likely to reveal the underlying cause of his fainting episode?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a condition that affects middle-aged women and leads to the gradual destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, resulting in fibrosis, cholestasis, and ultimately hepatic cirrhosis. Common symptoms include pruritis, fatigue, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. The most specific test for PBC is the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies, which are present in over 90% of cases. Myeloma screening is less likely to be positive in PBC patients, as myeloma is a disease of older adults characterized by bone pain, anemia, and kidney disease. Smooth muscle autoantibodies and antinuclear antibodies are associated with antibody-negative PBC or autoimmune cholangitis. Anti-liver kidney microsomes (LKM) antibody testing is useful in diagnosing autoimmune hepatitis, but a liver biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Bone marrow aspiration is not specific for the diagnosis of PBC. In conclusion, the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most specific test for the diagnosis of PBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man with a history of gout, reflux, and ischaemic heart disease presents to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation and a fast ventricular response. After being stabilized according to ALS protocol, a full set of bloods is taken and the results are as follows:
- Hb: 135 g/l
- Platelets: 260 * 109/l
- WBC: 6 * 109/l
- Mg: 0.34 µmol/l
- Ca (adj): 2.1 u/l
- PO4: 0.8 u/l
The cardiology registrar recommends correcting the magnesium level. What medication is the most likely cause of hypomagnesaemia in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Maintaining a proper balance of electrolytes is crucial when managing arrhythmias. In the cardiac pacemaker cells, the influx of potassium during phase 4 is dependent on magnesium channels. While the exact impact of magnesium administration on patients with dysrhythmias is uncertain, it is important to restore normomagnesemia. However, the use of proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) has been linked to hypomagnesemia, and the exact cause of this is unknown. It is possible that patients on PPIs may have reduced absorption of magnesium from their diet. This information is based on a study published in Expert Opinion Drug Saf. 2013 Sep;12(5):709-16. doi: 10.1517/14740338.2013.809062. Epub 2013 Jun 29, titled Hypomagnesaemia and proton-pump inhibitors by Famularo G, Gasbarrone L, and Minisola G.
Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias
Peri-arrest tachycardias can be life-threatening and require prompt management. The Resuscitation Council (UK) has simplified the guidelines for the management of these rhythms. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given. Up to three shocks can be given, after which expert help should be sought.
The treatment algorithm for peri-arrest tachycardias depends on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is recommended for regular rhythms. For irregular rhythms, expert help should be sought, as the cause could be atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.
For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are recommended for regular rhythms. If these are unsuccessful, atrial flutter should be considered, and rate control with beta-blockers may be necessary. For irregular rhythms, probable atrial fibrillation should be assumed, and electrical or chemical cardioversion may be necessary if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control, unless there is a contraindication. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man with a history of severe left ventricular systolic dysfunction receives a CRT implant. Upon returning to the ward after the procedure, he presents with hypotension and a regular heart rate of 70 bpm. His ECG reveals sinus rhythm and a left bundle branch block (LBBB). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Complications of CRT Device Implantation
When a CRT device is implanted, the left ventricular lead is inserted in the coronary sinus using a catheter with an aggressive tip. However, this procedure carries a 1% risk of causing dissection or perforation to the coronary sinus, which can lead to cardiac tamponade. This is a serious complication that can cause hypotension, but since patients undergoing CRT are on optimal medical therapy such as beta blockers, they may not exhibit tachycardia in response to cardiac tamponade.
While hypotension may be a sign of cardiac tamponade, it is important to rule out other causes such as hypovolemia or pneumothorax. Pneumothorax occurs in about 1 in 100 cases if the subclavian approach is used, but it is usually accompanied by chest pain and shortness of breath. Hypotension resulting from tension pneumothorax would be a late sign and would likely be preceded by symptoms.
Infection is unlikely to occur within the first few hours of pacemaker insertion, and myocardial infarction is possible but unlikely in the absence of chest pain and tachycardia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of complications following CRT device implantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department after collapsing. He has a medical history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation and takes amlodipine and apixaban. A recent 24-hour tape showed sustained atrial fibrillation with episodes of bradycardia (minimum heart rate 20 beats per minute) and symptoms of presyncope. The admission ECG shows slow atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 24 beats per minute. The patient has since recovered, with a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15 and a heart rate of 82 beats per minute. The medical team decides to insert a permanent pacemaker. What is the appropriate mode for programming the pacing system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: VVI
Explanation:A permanent pacemaker (PPM) is a device that is implanted in the body to regulate the heartbeat. It is used in cases where the patient is experiencing persistent symptomatic bradycardia, such as in sick sinus syndrome, complete heart block, Mobitz type II AV block, or persistent AV block after a myocardial infarction. These conditions can cause the heart to beat too slowly or irregularly, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, and shortness of breath. A PPM helps to regulate the heartbeat and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You see a 53-year-old woman in the Cardiology Clinic who complains of fatigue and lethargy. She has had several dental extractions in the past few months. Her medical history includes Sydenham's chorea, but nothing else significant.
During the examination, you observe subungual splinter hemorrhages and an ejection systolic murmur. A TTE is conducted, but it does not confirm the existence of vegetations.
What is the most suitable subsequent investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Infective Endocarditis
Suspected infective endocarditis requires a thorough investigation to confirm the diagnosis and determine the causative organism. The initial investigation should involve obtaining at least three sets of blood cultures from different sites before starting antibiotic therapy. A positive blood culture of a typical organism and the presence of vegetation on echocardiogram are the major criteria for diagnosis according to Duke’s criteria.
A labelled white cell scan would be indicated if both transthoracic and transoesophageal echocardiograms were inconclusive for infective endocarditis. However, it would not be the first-line investigation for suspected infective endocarditis.
Transoesophageal echocardiogram (TOE) should be reserved for cases where the transthoracic echocardiogram was inconclusive. If blood cultures were negative, then TOE would be considered.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and plasma viscosity (PV) are non-specific tests that are raised in the presence of any inflammatory process. Although they might aid in the diagnosis, they are not the best initial investigations.
In conclusion, obtaining at least three sets of blood cultures from different sites is the most important initial investigation for suspected infective endocarditis. Other investigations such as TOE and labelled white cell scan should be considered if blood cultures and echocardiograms are inconclusive. ESR and PV are non-specific tests that may aid in the diagnosis but are not the best initial investigations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents for her annual review. She was diagnosed with diabetes four years ago and was diagnosed with hypertension three years ago.
Currently, she is taking metformin 500 mg twice daily for her diabetes and is taking bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily. There is no other past history of note. She stopped smoking six years ago and drinks approximately five glasses of wine weekly.
On examination, she has a body mass index of 33.1 kg/m2, a pulse of 88 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 160/92 mmHg. Her peripheral pulses are all present, and she has a slight reduction of light touch sensation in the feet. Fundoscopy through dilated pupils reveals some hard exudates close to the macula bilaterally.
Her investigations reveal:
- Full blood count: Normal
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 10.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 160 µmol/L (60-110)
- Fasting plasma glucose: 12.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- HbA1c: 8.1% (3.8-6.4) or 65 mmol/mol (18-46)
What is the most appropriate treatment to reduce her cardiovascular risk?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Treatment for Reducing Cardiovascular Risk in a Patient with Type 2 Diabetes
The most appropriate treatment for reducing cardiovascular risk in a patient with type 2 diabetes should focus on controlling blood pressure. Evidence from the UKPDS study showed that blood pressure control was more effective in reducing cardiovascular risk than tight glycemic control with insulin or sulphonylureas. Additionally, the HOPE study demonstrated that adding an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi) such as ramipril can provide even greater benefits for patients at high cardiovascular risk.
According to the NICE guidelines for managing hypertension, ACE inhibitors are recommended as the first-line antihypertensive for patients under 55 years old, followed by a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic as a second-line agent. In this patient, adding ramipril with bendroflumethiazide would be a logical choice.
While metformin is expected to reduce cardiovascular risk in obese patients with type 2 diabetes, it is relatively contraindicated in patients with a creatinine level above 150 µmol/L. If the patient’s creatinine level remains persistently high, alternative medications should be considered for managing their diabetes. Weight reduction has not been shown to reduce cardiovascular risk, and there is currently no evidence to support the use of orlistat for this purpose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.
- Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
- Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
- Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure
Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis
There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.
To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man with a history of COPD, for which he takes fluticasone and salmeterol (combined) and salbutamol, presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath and left-sided pleuritic chest pain. He takes several medications for hypertension and ischaemic heart disease, but has recently started a pulmonary rehabilitation programme and is walking up to 2 miles per day. On examination, his BP is 150/88 mmHg with pulse 90/min and regular. He has diminished breath sounds over the left-hand side on auscultation. Oxygen saturation is reduced at 91%. CXR reveals a left-sided pneumothorax with a 1 cm rim of air.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Management of Pneumothorax
When managing a pneumothorax, the appropriate intervention depends on the size and symptoms present. For a pneumothorax with a size of 8-14 Fr, a chest drain insertion is preferred over air aspiration if significant symptoms such as shortness of breath are present. Discharge and review in 24 hours is recommended after successful chest drain insertion.
For a primary pneumothorax with a size of 1-2 cm and no associated symptoms, air aspiration is the recommended intervention. Discharge and review in 2 weeks is appropriate after successful air aspiration.
For a secondary pneumothorax, where patients are usually admitted to the hospital for 24 hours, high-flow oxygen is the correct course of action after successful air aspiration. Discharge and review in 2-4 weeks is recommended after successful air aspiration for a secondary pneumothorax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure following a myocardial infarction. During your clinic review, he reports no dyspnoea, orthopnoea, or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and there is no persistent leg oedema. His examination indicates he is euvolaemic. His ECG shows sinus rhythm, Q waves in the inferior leads, a PR interval of 208/msec, normal QRS, and no signs of intraventricular conduction delay. He is anxious and asks if there are any additional measures he can take to reduce his rate of hospitalisation besides maintaining a healthy lifestyle and taking his medications. He mentions his brother, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, has a just-in-case box at home and is entitled to vaccinations. He wonders if there are any vaccinations or additional antibiotics/medications that could be useful to him. What recommendations would you make for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination
Explanation:Annual influenza vaccine should be offered as part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure.
Patients with heart failure are at a higher risk of developing respiratory infections, which can worsen their condition and lead to decompensation. Therefore, it is recommended that they receive both the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. While pneumococcal vaccination is typically a one-time regimen, patients with chronic diseases or asplenia may require additional vaccinations, such as Haemophilus influenzae B.
Antibiotic prophylaxis, such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, is not recommended for reducing infection rates in heart failure patients. Additionally, there is no strong evidence supporting a pill-in-the-pocket strategy for managing heart failure, but patients should be aware of the potential need for diuretic therapy manipulation and when to seek urgent medical care.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 38-year-old woman who is in her 38th week of pregnancy. She is scheduled to have a Caesarean section due to fetal distress caused by placental abruption.
During the examination, you observe that she is of average build with a body mass index of 27 kg/m2 and a heart rate of 95 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg, and her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. There is no jugular venous distension, and her apex beat is in the fifth intercostal space. She has a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur at the apex that radiates towards the axilla. Apart from the gravid uterus, the rest of her physical examination is unremarkable.
The patient has no significant medical history except for a previous episode of skin wheals and pruritis following the ingestion of amoxicillin. The symptoms resolved after treatment with chlorpheniramine maleate.
What is the most appropriate prophylactic regimen for endocarditis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No prophylaxis required
Explanation:Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis: Current Guidelines and Recommendations
Antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis (IE) has been a topic of debate for many years. However, current guidelines and recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) and the European Society of Cardiology (ESC) have limited the use of prophylactic antibiotics for dental, respiratory, and other procedures.
In this case, a patient with a cardiac murmur is not at high risk for IE based on their clinical history. Therefore, no prophylaxis is required. Vancomycin, ampicillin, clindamycin, and erythromycin are not appropriate choices for prophylaxis in this patient, and their use is not recommended by current guidelines.
If there is suspicion of IE, a minimum of three blood culture sets are required before starting antibiotic therapy. Early cardiology involvement and an infectious disease specialist are recommended. It is important for healthcare providers to stay up-to-date with current guidelines and recommendations to ensure appropriate management of patients at risk for IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension visits the outpatient clinic and his blood pressure is measured at 150/90 mmHg. He reports having reduced his salt intake but still consumes six bottles of wine per week. He is currently taking beta blockers and thiazide diuretics. What should be the next course of action in his treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction of alcohol intake
Explanation:Next Steps in Hypertension Management
When it comes to managing hypertension, non-pharmacological measures should always be the first line of defense. In the case of a patient who has already reduced their salt intake, the next step should not be to prescribe an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Instead, the patient should focus on reducing their alcohol intake. This is a crucial step in managing hypertension and can have a significant impact on blood pressure levels.
While reassurance may be helpful in some cases, it is unlikely to bring the patient’s blood pressure below the current guidelines. Similarly, increasing the diuretic dose may have little effect on blood pressure levels, but it can increase the risk of side effects. Therefore, it is important to focus on non-pharmacological measures, such as reducing alcohol intake, to effectively manage hypertension. By taking these steps, patients can improve their overall health and reduce their risk of complications associated with high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 29 year-old man with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and wheezing for the past two days, and has been using his salbutamol inhaler multiple times per day to manage these symptoms.
Upon examination, the patient appears alert and comfortable, but reports a fluttering sensation in his chest. His pulse rate is 180 bpm and his blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg. Oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals equal bilateral air entry with mild polyphonic wheeze throughout.
A 12-lead ECG shows a narrow-complex regular tachycardia at 180 bpm with pseudo r' waves after each QRS complex in lead V1.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres
Explanation:Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT). The first-line management for SVT is vagal manoeuvres, such as the Valsalva manoeuvre or carotid sinus massage. In AVNRT, a retrograde p-wave may be visible in continuity with the QRS complex, appearing as a ‘pseudo r’ wave in lead V1 or a ‘pseudo s’ wave in the inferior leads. If the SVT is regular and narrow-complex without adverse features, vagal manoeuvres should be attempted first before considering other treatments such as IV Verapamil or synchronised DC cardioversion. Adenosine and metoprolol should be avoided as they may worsen bronchospasm.
Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by the sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.
When it comes to acute management, there are several options available. Vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is also an option.
Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation. Beta-blockers are a common choice for long-term management, while radio-frequency ablation is a more permanent solution that involves destroying the abnormal tissue causing the SVT.
In summary, SVT is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin and is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT. Acute management options include vagal maneuvers, intravenous adenosine, and electrical cardioversion. Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old female presents with a four-day history of constant chest discomfort accompanied by productive green sputum. She reports a recent episode of 'shivering and shaking' over the past 24 hours and a temperature of 38.5 degrees on admission to the emergency department. She denies any nausea or vomiting and was last well 96 hours ago, living alone with BD carers. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis, angina, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy.
Upon examination, bibasal coarse inspiratory crackles and an ejection systolic murmur are noted. The patient reports no deterioration in her exercise tolerance of 150 yards on flat ground. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 140/85 mmHg, heart rate 90/min and regular, Sats 94% on air, respiratory rate 26/min. An ECG reveals ST depression and T wave inversion in V4 to V6, S wave in V1, and R wave in V5 add to 55 mm. There are no previous ECGs to compare this to. Blood tests show the following results:
- Hb 137 g/l
- Platelets 402 * 109/l
- WBC 18.3 * 109/l
- Neutrophils 16.3 * 109/l
- Na+ 144 mmol/l
- K+ 4.3 mmol/l
- Urea 6.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine 90 µmol/l
- CRP 145 mg/l
- Troponin < 0.03 (normal < 0.03)
A chest radiograph reveals left basal shadowing on a background of bibasal tramlining and fibrotic changes. Previous sputum cultures indicate pseudomonas colonisation. New sputum and blood cultures have been taken. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous tazocin
Explanation:The patient is an elderly individual with multiple health conditions. They are currently experiencing an infectious exacerbation of bronchiectasis, which is complicated by previous pseudomonas colonization. Due to this, oral amoxicillin is not sufficient for treatment. The second concern is related to abnormal ECG changes, despite the absence of cardiac chest pain and a negative initial troponin result. It is important to note that the patient has a history of HOCM with an ejection systolic murmur, indicating some degree of left ventricular outlet obstruction. The ECG shows LV hypertrophy and ST segment and T wave inversion, which are typical patterns for patients with HOCM. Therefore, no treatment for ACS is necessary.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his doctor for assessment. He reports no current issues. He is taking lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide for high blood pressure and ibuprofen as needed for knee pain. During the physical examination, the doctor observes a healthy-looking man with a heart rate of 76 beats per minute with a regular rhythm and blood pressure of 158/80 mmHg. The JVP is not visible, and the patient has a sustained non-displaced apical impulse. No thrills or audible murmurs are present, and his heart sounds are normal. The chest is clear upon auscultation, the abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there are no palpable masses or organomegaly. The patient has trace pedal oedema. The doctor reviews the ECG that was conducted earlier that day.
What is the most probable finding on this man's ECG?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deep S waves in V1 and V2 and tall R-waves in V5 and V6
Explanation:During a cardiology examination, the patient’s sustained apical impulse suggests left ventricular hypertrophy, which can be confirmed by identifying deep S waves in V1 and V2 and tall R-waves in V5 and V6 on an ECG. The patient has a history of hypertension and elevated blood pressure during the exam, which can contribute to left ventricular hypertrophy if not well controlled. However, the patient’s normal heart rate makes it unlikely that they have third-degree heart block. Additionally, the patient’s regular rhythm suggests they do not have atrial fibrillation. The absence of symptoms makes it unlikely that the patient has acute pericarditis, which is characterized by PR-segment depression and global ‘saddle-shaped’ ST-segment elevation and typically presents with pleuritic chest pain.
ECG Indicators of Atrial and Ventricular Hypertrophy
Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicated on an ECG when the sum of the S wave in V1 and the R wave in V5 or V6 exceeds 40 mm. Meanwhile, right ventricular hypertrophy is characterized by a dominant R wave in V1 and a deep S wave in V6. In terms of atrial hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement is indicated by a bifid P wave in lead II with a duration of more than 120 ms, as well as a negative terminal portion in the P wave in V1. On the other hand, right atrial enlargement is characterized by tall P waves in both II and V1 that exceed 0.25 mV. These ECG indicators can help diagnose and monitor patients with atrial and ventricular hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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