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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man was admitted to medical receiving with urinary retention after experiencing urinary hesitancy for several months. He had been unable to pass urine for a few days before admission. A urinary catheter was inserted, revealing a residual urine volume of 1200 mls. A renal tract ultrasound scan confirmed an enlarged prostate, which was also detected on PR examination. Currently, he is passing 3500 ml of clear urine daily and reports drinking around 2000 mls of water daily. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Fluid restrict patient to 1500 ml daily
Correct Answer: Supplement oral intake with intravenous fluids
Explanation:Management of Obstructive Uropathy
Patients with obstructive uropathy caused by an enlarged prostate can experience relief with a urinary catheter. After the procedure, patients may produce a large volume of dilute urine, but over time, their tubules will recover their function, and their urine will begin to concentrate appropriately. Adequate hydration is crucial during this recovery period, and fluid restriction should be avoided to prevent severe dehydration. Psychiatric review is unnecessary as this condition is not a psychiatric illness. Desmopressin, a medication used in cranial diabetes insipidus, is not indicated in this context. Overall, the main approach to managing obstructive uropathy is to ensure proper hydration while the kidneys recover their ability to concentrate urine and manage fluid balance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with hypertension and chronic kidney disease comes for his annual check-up at the nephrology clinic. His recent urine test shows an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 75 mg/mmol. His blood work reveals:
- Sodium: 139 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 9.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 98 μmol/L (60-110)
(eGFR 52 ml/min/1.73 m2).
What is the appropriate target range for his blood pressure?Your Answer: 120-129/<80 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Blood Pressure Targets for Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Chronic kidney disease patients with proteinuria equivalent to ACR ≥70 mg/mmol should aim for a blood pressure target range of 120-129/<80 mmHg, according to the NICE guidelines on the management of Chronic kidney disease (CG182). The same target range applies to patients with diabetes. Non-diabetic patients with chronic kidney disease and an ACR <70 mg/mmol should aim for a blood pressure target range of 120-139/<90 mmHg. It is important to note that aiming for lower systolic (<120 mmHg) or diastolic (<60 mmHg) blood pressures can increase the risk of mortality, cardiovascular disease, congestive cardiac failure, and progression of chronic kidney disease. On the other hand, systolic or diastolic blood pressures above the target ranges are associated with an increased risk of a doubling in serum creatinine, end-stage renal failure, and death. In summary, chronic kidney disease patients should aim for specific blood pressure targets based on their proteinuria levels and diabetes status. It is crucial to avoid aiming for excessively low or high blood pressure levels, as this can lead to negative health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman, originally from Thailand, presents with a 4 week history of haemoptysis, a dry irritating cough and progressive shortness of breath that has reduced her ability to climb stairs and walk distances greater than roughly 50 meters. She has no other medical history of note apart from an appendectomy when younger. She takes no regular medication except for over the counter herbal remedies that she gets from a local Chinese medicine shop, although she cannot remember what these are called. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day and does not drink alcohol.
Examination reveals heart sounds 1 and 2 present with no added sounds. Some crackles across the chest. Observations are normal.
Blood tests reveal:
Hb 99 g/l
MCV 74 fL
Platelets 196 * 109/l
WBC 14.8 * 109/l
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15 mmol/l
Creatinine 193 µmol/l
ESR 92 mm/hr
A chest x-ray is performed which reveals some diffuse alveolar infiltrates but no focal areas of consolidation. A sputum sample is analysed for MC and S and shows no malignant cells.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Correct Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome
Explanation:Polyarteritis Nodosa rarely involves the lungs, while Churg-Strauss syndrome typically manifests as vasculitis and asthma. Pulmonary embolism and sarcoidosis are also not consistent with the symptoms described. The most probable diagnosis is Goodpasture’s syndrome, which is characterized by pulmonary bleeding, microcytic anemia, and difficulty breathing due to antibodies circulating in the alveolar basement membrane. The disease may progress to crescentic glomerulonephritis, leading to renal complications.
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, previously known as Goodpasture’s syndrome, is a rare form of small-vessel vasculitis that is characterized by both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This condition is caused by anti-GBM antibodies against type IV collagen and is more common in men, with a bimodal age distribution. Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with HLA DR2.
The features of this disease include pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which can lead to acute kidney injury. Nephritis can result in proteinuria and haematuria. Renal biopsy typically shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane, while transfer factor is raised secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages.
Management of anti-GBM disease involves plasma exchange (plasmapheresis), steroids, and cyclophosphamide. One of the main complications of this condition is pulmonary haemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by factors such as smoking, lower respiratory tract infection, pulmonary oedema, inhalation of hydrocarbons, and young males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with severe left loin pain that radiates to his groin in spasms. He has a history of Crohn's disease and had a small bowel resection with a jejunocolic anastomosis. Despite being on steroids, his Crohn's disease has been quiescent for the past year. He has a normal bowel habit and eats a high-fiber diet while drinking 3 liters of fluid per day. On examination, he is tender in the left loin and has a blood pressure of 180/70 mmHg. Urinalysis shows +++ blood with no protein or nitrates and a urine pH of 5.5. A plain KUB x-ray reveals a radio-opaque area over the left ureter, and an IVU confirms the presence of a small calculi. What is the most likely cause of his renal stone?
Your Answer: Oxalate
Explanation:Causes and Prevention of Oxalate Stones
Oxalate stones are not typically caused by excessive consumption of oxalate in the diet. Instead, they are more commonly associated with enteric oxaluria, which occurs when malabsorption leads to an over-absorption of oxalate in the colon. This condition can be caused by a number of disorders, including coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, chronic pancreatitis, and short bowel syndrome.
To prevent the formation of oxalate stones, it is important to maintain a high fluid intake and to supplement with calcium carbonate. These measures can help to reduce the amount of oxalate that is absorbed by the colon, thereby reducing the risk of stone formation. Additionally, it may be helpful to address any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of enteric oxaluria, such as by treating coeliac disease or Crohn’s disease. By taking these steps, it is possible to reduce the risk of oxalate stone formation and maintain optimal urinary health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presented to his GP complaining of gradual bilateral lower limb swelling over the past month. He also reported experiencing back pain and widespread joint pains. Upon examination, the patient was found to have macroglossia, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 160/95 mmHg. Urinalysis revealed 4+ protein and 1+ blood. Blood tests showed abnormal levels of Hb, creatinine, bicarbonate, and albumin, among others. The patient was referred to a nephrologist who conducted a renal biopsy, which revealed nodular glomerulosclerosis with amorphous hyaline deposits in the glomeruli. Congo red stain was positive. What is the most likely underlying disorder?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Myeloma
Explanation:The most common cause of amyloidosis leading to nephrotic syndrome is the AL type, which is secondary to plasma cell dyscrasias such as myeloma. This patient’s symptoms, including back pain, macroglossia, anaemia, and hypercalcaemia, suggest myeloma as the underlying cause. While secondary (AA) amyloidosis can be related to chronic inflammatory conditions, its incidence has decreased with improved treatments for inflammatory arthritides. Hepatitis C infection and cryoglobulinaemia can also cause nephrotic syndrome, but they are typically associated with membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.
Amyloidosis is a condition that can occur in different forms. The most common type is AL amyloidosis, which is caused by the accumulation of immunoglobulin light chain fragments. This can be due to underlying conditions such as myeloma, Waldenstrom’s, or MGUS. Symptoms of AL amyloidosis can include nephrotic syndrome, cardiac and neurological issues, macroglossia, and periorbital ecchymosis.
Another type of amyloidosis is AA amyloid, which is caused by the buildup of serum amyloid A protein, an acute phase reactant. This form of amyloidosis is often seen in patients with chronic infections or inflammation, such as TB, bronchiectasis, or rheumatoid arthritis. The most common symptom of AA amyloidosis is renal involvement.
Beta-2 microglobulin amyloidosis is another form of the condition, which is caused by the accumulation of beta-2 microglobulin, a protein found in the major histocompatibility complex. This type of amyloidosis is often seen in patients who are on renal dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with complaints of loin pain and haematuria. He has a medical history of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) and is currently taking ramipril and indapamide to control his blood pressure. On examination, he is apyrexial and has a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg. He reports experiencing right loin pain.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 114 g/L (135-177)
- White cell count: 8.2 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 192 ×109/L (150-400)
- Serum sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Serum potassium: 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 230 µmol/L (79-118)
- Urine red cells (no growth after 48 hours)
Given this information, what is the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer: IV fluids, paracetamol and codeine
Explanation:Management of Haemorrhage in Polycystic Kidney Disease
Haemorrhage into a cyst is a common occurrence in patients with polycystic kidney disease. The symptoms include severe pain and discomfort in the abdomen and back. The condition is managed conservatively with adequate hydration, IV fluids if necessary, and non-NSAID-based analgesia. The cornerstone of management is to maintain hydration and provide pain relief. The use of ACE inhibitors and aliskiren, the direct renin inhibitor, may also be beneficial in reducing proteinuria and cyst formation in ADPKD. Therefore, the management of haemorrhage in polycystic kidney disease involves a combination of IV fluids, paracetamol, and codeine, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and aliskiren.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort. She has been experiencing vague lower abdominal pain intermittently for several months. Although her weight has been stable, she occasionally loses her appetite. She is married and takes the combined oral contraceptive as her only medication. On examination, she appears well with a BMI of 24.5 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. No abnormalities are noted on chest, heart, or abdominal examination, and her neurology and fundoscopic examination are normal. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum urea level of 5.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (60-110). Her urine dipstick shows the presence of blood and protein. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen reveals a small right kidney. What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Fibromuscular dysplasia
Correct Answer: Reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Possible Causes of Abdominal Discomfort and Renal Asymmetry
This woman is experiencing abdominal discomfort, which could be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Additionally, she has a small kidney on the right side, which is a result of chronic pyelonephritis caused by vesicoureteric reflux earlier in life. However, renal asymmetry is unlikely to be consistent with chronic glomerulonephritis (GN) or IgA nephropathy.
If the cause of her renal asymmetry is fibromuscular dysplasia, she may also have more significant hypertension and possibly end organ disease. It is important to consider these possible causes and conduct further tests to determine the underlying condition causing her symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate her discomfort and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to the hospital with deteriorating renal function. A renal biopsy reveals focal necrotising glomerulonephritis, indicating a diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, with a blood pressure of 147/84 mmHg, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and a regular respiratory rate of 24 per minute. Her oxygen saturation is 96% on an inspired oxygen concentration of 28%.
The following are the results of her investigations:
- Serum sodium: 134 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 6.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 52 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 940 µmol/L (60-110)
- Arterial blood gases (28% FiO2):
- pH: 7.2 (7.36-7.44)
- PCO2: 6.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)
- PO2: 10.1 kPa (11.3-12.6)
- Actual bicarbonate: 12 mmol/L (20-28)
What is the initial management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Plasma exchange
Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone
Explanation:Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: Symptoms and Treatment
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a condition that affects the small vessels of the kidney and other organs, particularly the lungs. The disease progresses rapidly, causing renal failure within three months, proteinuria, and microscopic haematuria. Patients also experience upper airway involvement, such as nasal ulceration, crusting, rhinorrhoea, and epistaxis, and often have granulomatous lung disease accompanied by alveolar capillaritis.
When a patient presents with symptoms of granulomatosis with polyangiitis, urgent treatment is necessary. Dialysis is often required due to acidosis, hyperkalaemia, and uraemia. Although pulmonary involvement is common, it does not require specific intervention at this stage. Without treatment, the disease is fatal, but with immunosuppression, 70% of patients with severe focal necrotising glomerulonephritis regain independent renal function.
The first step in treatment is to administer methylprednisolone, followed by haemodialysis and then cyclophosphamide. Plasma exchange may also be beneficial for patients already requiring dialysis. Early intervention is crucial in managing granulomatosis with polyangiitis and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits the renal outpatient clinic for the first time. Her mother has been diagnosed with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). After undergoing genetic testing, the patient has also been found to have the gene responsible for the disease.
As you provide counseling on her condition, which of the following statements is the most accurate?Your Answer: Yearly MRI brain scans are required to check for the possibility of cerebral aneurysms
Correct Answer: Approximately half of patients require dialysis by the age of 60
Explanation:ADPKD and Appropriate Counselling Measures
Approximately 50% of patients with ADPKD will require renal replacement therapy by the age of 60. ADPKD is a significant hereditary renal condition that requires appropriate counselling measures. Patients with ADPKD can fly without any specific prohibition, and there is no indication for HIV testing unless there are other risk factors present. While patients with ADPKD may have associated cerebral aneurysms, there is no need for yearly MRI brain scanning unless there are personal symptoms or a family history of haemorrhagic stroke. As an autosomal dominant condition, children of patients with ADPKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.
It is important to understand ADPKD and its implications for patients and their families. Appropriate counselling measures should be taken to ensure that patients are aware of the potential risks and complications associated with the condition. While there is no specific prohibition on flying or need for HIV testing, patients should be aware of the potential risks associated with cerebral aneurysms and undergo MRI scanning only if there are personal symptoms or a family history of haemorrhagic stroke. Additionally, patients should be aware that ADPKD is an autosomal dominant condition, and their children have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition. By ADPKD and taking appropriate counselling measures, patients and their families can better manage the condition and its potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a four day history of nausea. She has no medication history and her only medical condition is diet controlled diabetes mellitus. Her recent checkup showed no signs of retinopathy or neuropathy, and her creatinine level was 79 µmol/L. Upon admission to the hospital, her blood tests reveal:
- Na 139 mmol/L (137-144)
- K 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea 35.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine 895 μmol/L (60-110)
- Hb 91 g/L (115-165)
Which of the following is most likely to be positive?Your Answer: Anti GBM antibody
Explanation:Diagnosis of Acute Kidney Injury and Anaemia
When a patient presents with acute kidney injury and anaemia, the most likely diagnosis is anti-glomerular basement membrane disease, also known as Goodpasture’s syndrome. The presence of diabetes mellitus in the patient’s medical history is not relevant to the diagnosis, but it does indicate that her renal function was previously normal. Patients with Goodpasture’s syndrome typically have a short history of symptoms and may only present with haematuria and/or haemoptysis, in addition to symptoms of uraemia such as nausea. On the other hand, ANCA-associated vasculitis can present similarly but with a longer history and more severe systemic symptoms. HIV and hepatitis C infection are less likely diagnoses in this setting, and lupus nephritis would likely present with a positive anti double-stranded DNA antibody. It is important to consider all possible diagnoses and conduct appropriate testing to accurately diagnose and treat the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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