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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man attends for his first abdominal aortic aneurysm screening. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man attends for his first abdominal aortic aneurysm screening. He is found to have an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.3 cm. He is seen routinely by a regional vascular centre that made the decision not to perform an elective repair. He has been advised to stop smoking, reduce his blood pressure through antihypertensive medications and to attend surveillance appointments.
      How often should the patient receive surveillance abdominal ultrasounds?

      Your Answer: Every 12 months

      Correct Answer: Every three months

      Explanation:

      Surveillance Frequency for Abdominal Aneurysms

      Abdominal aneurysms require regular surveillance to monitor their growth and determine if intervention is necessary. The frequency of surveillance depends on the size of the aneurysm.

      For an aneurysm between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, surveillance should be offered every three months. If the aneurysm is 3.0–4.4 cm, aortic ultrasound should be performed every twelve months. Aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter are invariably repaired.

      Aneurysms are repaired if they are symptomatic, asymptomatic and 5.5 cm or larger, or larger than 4.0 cm and growing by more than 1.0 cm in the preceding 12 months.

      It is important to follow the recommended surveillance frequency to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 2 - A retrospective analysis was conducted on 600 patients referred to the local Tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A retrospective analysis was conducted on 600 patients referred to the local Tuberculosis (TB) Clinic over a 3-year period with suspected TB. Out of these patients, 40 were diagnosed with TB and underwent testing with an assay called ‘TB-RED-SPOT’, as well as chest radiography and sputum microbiology. Of the patients diagnosed with TB, 36 had a positive TB-RED-SPOT assay result. Additionally, 14 patients without TB had a positive ‘TB-RED-SPOT’ assay result. Based on this analysis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: The specificity of the TB-RED-SPOT assay for TB is 99%

      Correct Answer: The sensitivity of the TB-RED-SPOT assay for TB is 90%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Performance Metrics of the TB-RED-SPOT Assay for TB

      The TB-RED-SPOT assay is a diagnostic test used to detect tuberculosis (TB) in patients. Its performance is measured using several metrics, including sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV).

      The sensitivity of the TB-RED-SPOT assay for TB is 90%, meaning that 90% of patients with TB will test positive for the disease using this test. On the other hand, the specificity of the test is 99%, indicating that 99% of patients without TB will test negative for the disease using this test.

      The PPV of the TB-RED-SPOT assay is less than 50%, which means that less than half of the patients who test positive for TB using this test actually have the disease. Specifically, the PPV is calculated as 72%, indicating that 72% of patients who test positive for TB using this test actually have the disease.

      The NPV of the TB-RED-SPOT assay is less than 90%, which means that less than 90% of patients who test negative for TB using this test actually do not have the disease. Specifically, the NPV is calculated as 99.2%, indicating that 99.2% of patients who test negative for TB using this test actually do not have the disease.

      Understanding these performance metrics is crucial for interpreting the results of the TB-RED-SPOT assay and making informed clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 3 - A study is designed to statistically test the hypothesis that a particular drug...

    Incorrect

    • A study is designed to statistically test the hypothesis that a particular drug lowers blood pressure. A group of elderly volunteers enrolled in the study. Each participant’s blood pressure is measured prior to administration of the drug. One hour after the drug, the blood pressure for each participant is rechecked.
      Which of the following statistical tests is most appropriate for testing the hypothesis that the drug lowers blood pressure in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer: Regression analysis

      Correct Answer: Paired t-test

      Explanation:

      Common Statistical Tests and Their Assumptions

      There are several statistical tests commonly used in medical research, each with their own assumptions and applications. Here are brief explanations of some of the most common tests:

      Paired t-test: Used when a group has been measured twice, with each individual having two repeated measures. Assumes a normal distribution.

      Binomial test: Used when there are two possible outcomes and an estimate of the probability of success. Tests whether observed results differ from expected results. Assumes a sample size significantly smaller than the population size and a fair representation of the population.

      Chi-squared test: Used for discontinuous categorical data to determine if observed frequencies differ significantly from expected frequencies. Allows for acceptance or rejection of the null hypothesis.

      Regression analysis: Generates an equation to describe the relationship between predictor variables and a response variable. Used to determine correlation between variables.

      Unpaired t-test: Looks at differences between two different groups on a variable of interest. Assumes a normal distribution and similar standard deviation.

      Understanding the assumptions and applications of these tests can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical analysis for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 4 - A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between...

    Incorrect

    • A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between primary and secondary prevention strategies to reduce disease burden. As part of your explanation, you decide to use an example of a secondary prevention measure to illustrate your description.
      Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention measure?

      Your Answer: Introducing alcohol drinking guideline limits

      Correct Answer: Screening for breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Examples of Primary and Secondary Prevention Measures

      Primary and secondary prevention measures are important in maintaining good health and preventing diseases. Primary prevention measures aim to prevent the onset of a disease before it even starts, while secondary prevention measures aim to detect and treat a disease early to prevent its progression. Here are some examples of primary and secondary prevention measures:

      Introducing alcohol drinking guideline limits is a primary prevention measure that aims to reduce the health effects of excess alcohol consumption. This measure can help prevent alcohol-related diseases such as liver cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and certain types of cancer.

      Annual influenzae vaccination is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent cases of influenzae in otherwise healthy individuals. This measure can help reduce the spread of the flu virus and prevent complications such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening.

      Providing free condoms in general practice is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent sexually transmitted diseases in otherwise healthy volunteers. This measure can help reduce the spread of sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, and HIV.

      Offering smoking cessation services is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent lung cancer. This measure can help individuals quit smoking and reduce their risk of developing lung cancer, as well as other smoking-related diseases such as heart disease and stroke.

      Breast cancer screening is a secondary prevention measure that aims to detect early breast cancer so that it can be treated early and lead to improved patient outcomes. This measure involves regular mammograms and clinical breast exams for women over a certain age or with certain risk factors. Early detection can help prevent the spread of breast cancer and increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 5 - remove ...

    Incorrect

    • remove

      Your Answer: 100%

      Correct Answer: 8.90%

      Explanation:

      Calculating Positive Predictive Value Using a Contingency Table

      When analyzing screening test results, a contingency table can be useful. Sensitivity and specificity can be calculated from this table, but this question specifically asks for the positive predictive value. This value represents the proportion of individuals with a positive test result who actually have the disease. To calculate this value, the formula a/(a + b) is used, where a is the number of true positives and b is the number of false positives. By knowing the prevalence, sensitivity, specificity, and population size, the contingency table can be completed and the positive predictive value can be calculated. An overestimation of this value can lead to incorrect diagnoses and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 6 - A woman receives a letter in the post inviting her to her first...

    Correct

    • A woman receives a letter in the post inviting her to her first NHS cervical screening appointment.
      Which of the following best describes the timing and frequency of the UK cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer: 50–70 years of age (three yearly)

      Explanation:

      Breast and Bowel Cancer Screening Schedules in the UK

      Breast cancer screening is available to women aged 50-70, with some areas extending the program to women aged 47-73. High-risk populations may be invited for screening before the age of 50. Screening is performed every three years.

      For women aged 25-64, screening is conducted every five years. Women aged 45-75 are also invited for screening every three years between the ages of 50 and 70.

      Bowel cancer screening is scheduled every two years for individuals aged 60-74. It is important to note that breast screening for women aged 50-70 is conducted every three years, not every five years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 7 - Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries...

    Incorrect

    • Over the last 150 years, the life expectancy of people in all countries throughout the world has continued to increase. What is the estimated maximum lifespan for a human being?

      Your Answer: 111-120 years

      Correct Answer: 131-140 years

      Explanation:

      The Limits of Human Lifespan

      Life Expectancy and Maximum Lifespan

      Life expectancy has been increasing steadily in both developing and developed countries. In fact, it is estimated that 50% of baby girls born in the UK at the turn of the millennium will live to be over 100 years old. This is a remarkable achievement, but it is important to note that it is not the same as the maximum human lifespan.

      The Ceiling of Human Lifespan

      Despite the advances in medicine and technology, the maximum human lifespan has remained unchanged for over 500 years. It is believed that this is due to a combination of genetic programming and environmental factors. Scientists estimate that the maximum human lifespan is around 140 years old. While there have been a few individuals who have lived beyond this age, they are extremely rare.

      The Possibility of Immortality

      If the ceiling of human lifespan could be broken, it would have significant implications for the concept of immortality. While it may not be possible to achieve true immortality, an increase in lifespan to hundreds of years would be a significant step forward. However, it is important to remember that we are still far from achieving this goal.

      Conclusion

      Life expectancy is increasing, but the maximum human lifespan remains unchanged. While it is possible that we may one day break through the ceiling of human lifespan, we are not there yet. In the meantime, we should focus on improving the quality of life for those who are living longer and finding ways to prevent age-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 8 - A senior citizen is inquiring about the power of a statistical test.
    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen is inquiring about the power of a statistical test.
      Which statement best describes the power of a statistical test?

      Your Answer: The probability of not committing a type 1 error

      Correct Answer: The probability of not committing a type 2 error

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type 1 and Type 2 Errors in Scientific Studies

      When conducting a scientific study, it is important to determine whether there is a difference between two populations. A statistical test is used to analyze the results and determine if the difference is significant. However, there are two types of errors that can occur in this process.

      Type 1 errors occur when the null hypothesis is rejected, in favor of the alternative hypothesis, even though the null hypothesis is true. This is also known as a false positive and is typically set at a 5% or 1% probability level.

      Type 2 errors occur when the null hypothesis is accepted, in favor of the alternative hypothesis, even though the alternative hypothesis is true. This is also known as a false negative and is undesirable as it means that the study failed to detect a significant difference.

      The power of a test is the probability of not making a type 2 error. It depends on the sample size, effect size, and statistical significance criterion used. The p-value is the lowest level of significance at which the null hypothesis is rejected. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence is in favor of the alternative hypothesis.

      Understanding these types of errors is crucial in scientific research as it helps researchers to interpret their results accurately and avoid making false conclusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 9 - You are working on a Pediatric Ward and have been asked to report...

    Incorrect

    • You are working on a Pediatric Ward and have been asked to report all cases of notifiable disease to the local authority proper officers (under Health Protection Legislation 2010). There are eight patients whom you feel may have a notifiable disease:
      Patient 1 2-year-old boy with acute meningitis (no causative agent identified yet)
      Patient 2 5-year-old girl with severe acute respiratory syndrome
      Patient 3 8-year-old boy with diarrhoea (no causative agent identified)
      Patient 4 6-year-old girl with hepatitis B (high HBeAg titre)
      Patient 5 4-year-old boy with flu (influenzae virus)
      Patient 6 10-year-old girl with a community-acquired pneumonia (Streptococcus pneumoniae) identified
      Patient 7 3-year-old boy with diarrhoea (Clostridium difficile isolated)
      Patient 8 7-year-old girl with glandular fever (Epstein-Barr virus)
      Which five patients require notification via the proper officer?

      Your Answer: 1, 4, 6, 7, 8

      Correct Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

      Explanation:

      Identifying Reportable Diseases

      When it comes to identifying reportable diseases, it is important to understand which conditions require urgent reporting to the proper authorities. Out of the given patients, the correct answer is 1, 2, 4, 5, 6. Acute meningitis, regardless of the causative agent, is a reportable disease. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is also a reportable disease with an extremely high fatality rate. Patient 4, with a high HBeAg titre, is highly contagious with hepatitis B and requires reporting. influenzae is important to report to determine specific strains and virology. While community-acquired pneumonia per se is not a communicable disease, any disease caused by streptococcal pneumonia requires reporting.

      However, the other answer options are not correct. Diarrhoea caused by C. difficile (patient 7) is not a communicable disease and is most commonly caused by protracted antibiotic therapy. Glandular fever (patient 8) is a common condition affecting young adults, caused by Epstein–Barr virus, and is not a reportable condition. Additionally, diarrhoea without discernible cause (patients 3 and 7) is not a reportable disease. It is important to understand which conditions require reporting to ensure proper public health measures are taken.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 10 - A study is conducted to determine the risk of acquiring a disease during...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to determine the risk of acquiring a disease during a 1-year study period. Only men are susceptible to the disease, which can be diagnosed using four basic clinical criteria.
      In a population of 100 000 people aged 60 years, ten men met all the criteria. The men : women ratio was 1 : 1. An additional 90 men demonstrated mild symptoms but failed to meet the full criteria.
      From these data, what is the risk of a 60-year-old man (in percentage) of being diagnosed with this disease (during a 1-year period)?

      Your Answer: Cannot be determined with the information provided

      Correct Answer: 0.02%

      Explanation:

      Calculating Risk: An Example Scenario

      In order to calculate the risk of a particular event occurring within a population, it is important to consider the size and characteristics of that population. For example, in a scenario where the population is 100,000 people, with 50,000 of those being men, the risk of a certain disease can be calculated based on the number of men who meet the diagnostic criteria.

      In this scenario, 10 men met the full criteria for diagnosis, meaning the risk can be calculated as 10/50,000, or 0.0002. When expressed as a percentage, this equates to 0.02% in the study year. It is important to note that the accuracy of reporting and diagnosis can impact the accuracy of this calculation.

      By understanding how to calculate risk within a population, researchers and healthcare professionals can better understand the prevalence and impact of certain diseases or events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 11 - Disease prevention measures can be categorized as primary or secondary. What is an...

    Correct

    • Disease prevention measures can be categorized as primary or secondary. What is an example of a secondary prevention measure?

      Your Answer: Screening for breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Examples of Primary and Secondary Prevention Measures

      Primary and secondary prevention measures are important in healthcare to prevent the onset or progression of diseases. Primary prevention involves preventing a disease before it even starts, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of a disease.

      Examples of primary prevention measures include annual influenzae vaccination, giving away free condoms in general practice to prevent STIs, introducing healthy school meals to prevent obesity, and offering smoking cessation services to prevent lung cancer.

      On the other hand, breast cancer screening is an example of a secondary prevention measure. Its aim is to detect early breast cancer so that it can be treated before it is too late. By implementing both primary and secondary prevention measures, healthcare providers can work towards reducing the burden of diseases and improving overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 12 - In a city with a population of 2.5 million, 292 patients were diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • In a city with a population of 2.5 million, 292 patients were diagnosed with Disease X in a 7-day period. Disease X has an average annual incidence of 1.5 per 100,000 people. What term can explain this increase in point prevalence of Disease X?

      Your Answer: Pandemic disease

      Correct Answer: Epidemic disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epidemic Disease: Definition and Examples

      Epidemic disease refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a population of a particular area. This can result in a significant increase in disease burden over a short period of time. For instance, if the incidence of a disease increases from 1.5 per 100,000 to 11.68 per 100,000 within a short period, it can be classified as an epidemic.

      It is important to note that epidemic disease is different from endemic disease, which refers to the constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease or infectious agent in a population within a geographic area. Hyperendemic disease, on the other hand, refers to persistent, high levels of disease occurrence.

      Pandemic disease is another term that is often confused with epidemic disease. However, pandemic refers to an epidemic that has spread over several continents and countries, typically affecting significant numbers of people. In contrast, sporadic disease occurs infrequently and irregularly, without any specific pattern or trend.

      Examples of epidemic diseases include the recent COVID-19 outbreak, the Ebola outbreak in West Africa, and the Zika virus outbreak in South America. By understanding the definition and examples of epidemic disease, we can better prepare and respond to outbreaks in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 13 - A systematic review and meta-analysis is used to look at the effects on...

    Incorrect

    • A systematic review and meta-analysis is used to look at the effects on myocardial events, using a new cholesterol lowering medication. The analysis shows that the review has a high level of heterogeneity.
      What analysis should next take place to determine the possible cause of the high levels of heterogeneity in a review of this kind conducted on elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Number needed to treat analysis

      Correct Answer: Sub-group analysis

      Explanation:

      Meta-Analysis Techniques and Sub-Group Analysis

      Meta-analysis is a statistical technique used in systematic reviews to combine data from multiple studies. However, the level of heterogeneity among the studies can affect the choice of analysis technique. A high level of heterogeneity suggests that any differences between the studies are due to actual differences, and sub-group analysis should be performed to determine the cause. Fixed-effects meta-analysis assumes that any difference between studies is due to random chance and is suitable for reviews with low heterogeneity. Random-effects meta-analysis is the next choice for reviews with high heterogeneity, but it does not determine the cause. Intention to treat analysis is used in randomized controlled trials to prevent loss to follow-up bias. Number needed to treat analysis does not provide information about the cause of heterogeneity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 14 - A screening test for a disease is performed on 1000 people. A total...

    Incorrect

    • A screening test for a disease is performed on 1000 people. A total of 888 people do not have the disease. Of those with the disease, 100 had a positive screening test result. A total of 890 patients had a negative screening test result.
      What is the positive predictive value of the screening test?

      Your Answer: 98.90%

      Correct Answer: 90.90%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Screening Test Results: Calculating Positive Predictive Value, Negative Predictive Value, Sensitivity, Specificity, and Disease Specificity

      To better understand the results of a screening test, it can be helpful to organize the data into a table with categories for positive/negative and disease/no disease. Positive predictive value can then be calculated using the formula true positive / (true positive + false positive), which indicates the percentage of patients with the condition who received a positive test result. Other important values to consider include negative predictive value (true negative / true negative + false negative), sensitivity (true positive / true positive + false negative), specificity (true negative / true negative + false positive), and disease specificity (true negative / true negative + false positive). By analyzing these values, healthcare professionals can gain a better understanding of the accuracy and effectiveness of a screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 15 - What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK?

      Your Answer: 85–89 years

      Correct Answer: 80–84 years

      Explanation:

      The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for Women in the UK

      At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a woman in the UK was only 59 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, women in the UK can now expect to live an average of 82.5 years. This remarkable increase in life expectancy is a testament to the progress made in healthcare and social welfare in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 16 - You are interested in determining whether seatbelt use has an impact on the...

    Incorrect

    • You are interested in determining whether seatbelt use has an impact on the severity of injuries incurred following a motor vehicle accident among elderly individuals. You approach a doctor in the Geriatric Department, and he suggests you design a study.
      Which of the following study designs would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Cross-sectional study

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Study Design for Assessing Seatbelt Use and Motor Vehicle Accidents

      When it comes to studying the relationship between seatbelt use and the severity of injuries in motor vehicle accidents, choosing the right study design is crucial. While each design has its strengths and weaknesses, some are more appropriate than others for this particular research question.

      Case-control studies are the most suitable for assessing factors associated with rare events, such as motor vehicle accidents. They can quickly and cost-effectively determine if seatbelt use affects injury severity.

      Cross-sectional studies, on the other hand, are descriptive and cannot accurately determine associations. Cohort studies may be able to answer the question, but they require a significant amount of time and expense due to their prospective nature. Randomised controlled trials are not appropriate for this research question as it would be unethical to expose participants to something dangerous like a motor vehicle collision.

      Finally, case series can provide a starting point for other study designs but are most useful for identifying possible relationships that must be explored in a more rigorous manner. In conclusion, a case-control study is the most appropriate study design for assessing the relationship between seatbelt use and the severity of injuries in motor vehicle accidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 17 - In the context of biostatistics, which statement accurately describes type I error in...

    Incorrect

    • In the context of biostatistics, which statement accurately describes type I error in relation to the clinical trial evaluating the efficacy of a new HPV vaccine compared to the current vaccine?

      Your Answer: Occurs when an investigator mistakenly concludes that there is no difference between two study populations when a difference exists

      Correct Answer: Occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected erroneously

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type I and Type II Errors in Statistical Analysis

      In statistical analysis, errors can occur when interpreting data. Type I errors occur when the null hypothesis is rejected erroneously, leading to the incorrect conclusion that something is true when it is not. This is also known as a false-positive error or alpha error. On the other hand, type II errors occur when an investigator mistakenly concludes that there is no difference between two study populations when a difference actually exists. This is also referred to as a false-negative error or beta error, represented by the Greek letter beta.

      The probability of a type I error decreases as the significance level decreases, while the probability of a type II error increases. The cut-off points set for a particular test determine the magnitudes of both type I and type II errors. Therefore, decreasing the significance level increases the chance of a type I error being made, but decreases the chance of a type II error occurring, and vice versa.

      Understanding these types of errors is crucial in statistical analysis to ensure accurate conclusions are drawn from the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 18 - Researchers conducted a case-control study examining the relationship between poor diet and coronary...

    Incorrect

    • Researchers conducted a case-control study examining the relationship between poor diet and coronary artery disease. They enrolled cases from cardiac wards in hospitals and controls from General Practice surgeries in a single city. Diet for the past 5 years was assessed using an in-person interview in the setting where the patients were enrolled. After conducting the study, researchers found that, on average, the dietary interview with cases lasted 20 minutes longer than the interview with controls. In addition, the information collected from cases was much more detailed.
      Which type of bias has most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Berkson’s bias

      Correct Answer: Observer bias

      Explanation:

      Identifying and Avoiding Bias in Research: Example of Observer Bias in a Case-Control Study

      Observer bias is the most likely type of bias in a case-control study where researchers collect information differently from cases compared to controls. In this scenario, the researchers knew which patients were cases because they were hospitalized, leading to discrepancies in interview lengths and the level of detail in collected data. Blinding the interviewers would eliminate this bias. Selection bias and recall bias are possible but less likely to result in such discrepancies. Berkson’s bias is not applicable as control patients were chosen from General Practice surgeries. Loss to follow-up is not applicable in case-control studies. It is crucial to identify and avoid bias in research to ensure accurate and reliable results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 19 - A new biomarker test is developed to detect breast cancer at early stages....

    Incorrect

    • A new biomarker test is developed to detect breast cancer at early stages. The company that developed the test conducted a randomised study to compare the new test to the current standard of care – mammography – among women over 40. They concluded that breast cancer patients whose cancer was identified by the biomarker lived, on average, 1.5 years longer than those whose cancers were identified by mammography. Subsequently, additional independent studies showed that there was truly no difference in survival between the two groups.

      Which of the following biases is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Confounding

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Potential Biases in a Study Comparing Breast Cancer Detection Methods

      Breast cancer detection methods can be compared using various measures, including lead time bias, confounding, selection bias, measurement error, and insensitive tests. Lead time bias occurs when a disease is detected earlier, but patients live for the same duration they would have lived if the disease had been detected later. Confounding can be reduced by randomizing patients to the detection method received. Selection bias can be minimized by randomizing patients to the detection method received. Measurement error can occur if the new biomarker is an insensitive test. If the new biomarker is an insensitive test, the results would likely favor mammography, rather than showing an increased survival time with biomarker detection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 20 - A new test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is trialled in a...

    Correct

    • A new test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is trialled in a high-prevalence HIV population. Sensitivity is found to be 90%, and specificity 94%. The test is then used in a population with a low prevalence of HIV.
      Which one of the following statements about the test is correct?

      Your Answer: The negative predictive value will be lower in the high-prevalence population

      Explanation:

      Impact of Disease Prevalence on Test Accuracy: Explained

      The accuracy of a medical test is influenced by various factors, including disease prevalence in the population being tested. In a high-prevalence population, the negative predictive value of a test will be lower as fewer people will have a negative test result. However, the sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain similar in different populations assuming the test has been rigorously evaluated. The positive predictive value will also be lower in a high-prevalence population unless the sensitivity and specificity of the test are both 100%. Therefore, it is important to consider disease prevalence when interpreting the accuracy of a medical test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 21 - A study was designed to look at a group of senior doctors ability...

    Correct

    • A study was designed to look at a group of senior doctors ability to correctly identify streptococcal throat infections. Their clinical impressions were compared to throat cultures. Of the 48 patients who had positive throat swabs, the doctors correctly diagnosed 40. In the 128 patients who had a negative culture, the doctors diagnosed 17 with strep throat.
      Calculate the specificity of the senior doctors clinical assessment.

      Your Answer: 111/128

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diagnostic Test Results: Specificity, Sensitivity, and Predictive Values

      When interpreting the results of a diagnostic test, it is important to understand various measures such as specificity, sensitivity, and predictive values. Specificity refers to the proportion of test negatives that are correctly identified as not having the disease. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the sum of true negatives and false positives. Sensitivity, on the other hand, is the proportion of diseased people correctly identified as having the disease by the test. False omission rate is the proportion of false negatives within the test negative group. Positive predictive value is the proportion of true positives out of the test positive group, while negative predictive value is the proportion of true negatives within the test negative group. Understanding these measures can help in making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old woman attends for her cervical smear as per the NHS cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman attends for her cervical smear as per the NHS cervical screening programme. She is found to have low-grade dyskaryosis. The laboratory performed a reflex high-risk human papillomavirus (HR-HPV) test on the cytology sample. The HPV sample returned as negative.
      When should the patient have a repeat cervical smear?

      Your Answer: Six months

      Correct Answer: Five years

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Screening Interval for Women with Low-Grade Dyskaryosis and Negative HPV Testing

      Women with low-grade dyskaryosis and negative HPV testing should return to the screening program. The appropriate screening interval for a 50-year-old patient is every five years. This is because the majority of patients with HPV-negative, low-grade dyskaryosis revert to normal epithelium and do not require further investigation with colposcopy. It is important to note that the screening interval for patients between 25 and 49 years is every three years. Shorter intervals, such as three months, six months, or even one year, are not necessary and may lead to unnecessary testing and anxiety for the patient.

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      • Statistics
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  • Question 23 - A study is conducted to investigate the relationship between age and development of...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to investigate the relationship between age and development of heart failure. Age was categorized as ‘under 50’ or ‘50 and over’. The outcome measure was development of heart failure. 2000 individuals were included in the study, of which 300 have heart failure. A total of 60 with heart failure are under 50 years old; 40 without heart failure are under 50 years old. What is the odds ratio of getting heart failure in those under 50 years old versus those who are 50 and over?

      Your Answer: 4.8

      Correct Answer: 10.4

      Explanation:

      Calculating Odds Ratio in a Contingency Table

      Interpreting data presented in a contingency table can be useful in determining the odds ratio of a particular condition. The odds ratio is calculated by dividing the odds of contracting the condition in the exposed group by the odds of contracting the condition in the unexposed group. For example, if the contingency table shows that 30 cases of heart failure occurred in smokers and 120 cases occurred in non-smokers, while 20 controls were smokers and 830 controls were non-smokers, the odds ratio would be (30/20) / (120/830), which equals 10.4. This means that patients who smoke are over ten times more likely to develop heart failure compared to non-smokers. Other odds ratios can be calculated in a similar manner for different conditions and exposures.

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  • Question 24 - A study is conducted to compare the efficacy of a new blood test...

    Correct

    • A study is conducted to compare the efficacy of a new blood test for detecting respiratory tuberculosis (TB) infection, in comparison to the current gold standard investigation of sputum microscopy. The study involves 312 patients with suspected TB. During the study, sputum microscopy is not available for 20 of the patients, resulting in them only having the new blood test. With regards to age, what bias is this study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer: Verification bias

      Explanation:

      Types of Bias in Medical Investigations

      Medical investigations can be subject to various types of bias that can affect the accuracy of the results obtained. Four common types of bias are verification bias, spectrum bias, follow-up bias, and reporting bias.

      Verification bias occurs when some patients only receive the new test and not the gold standard test, leading to an overestimation of the sensitivity of the new investigation. Spectrum bias, on the other hand, arises when the patients under investigation do not represent the relevant population for whom the test will be used. Follow-up bias involves the loss of enrolled patients during the study, while reporting bias occurs when the same person reports both investigations or is aware of the tests in the trial. Finally, response bias occurs when the accuracy of recollections of participants differs from the actual events, leading to a systematic error in the results obtained.

      It is important to be aware of these types of bias when conducting medical investigations to ensure accurate and reliable results.

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  • Question 25 - A randomised, placebo-controlled trial of a new anti-platelet agent is completed in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised, placebo-controlled trial of a new anti-platelet agent is completed in elderly patients who have atrial fibrillation. A total of 1000 elderly patients were randomised to receive the new agent, and 1000 elderly patients were randomised to receive a placebo. In the group receiving the new agent, 50 elderly people suffered a stroke, compared with 100 elderly people in the placebo group.
      What is the number needed to treat (NNT) for the new anti-platelet agent to prevent one stroke in elderly patients with atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: 0.05

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Calculating the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a measure used in clinical trials to determine how many patients need to be treated in order to prevent one additional bad outcome (such as a heart attack or stroke). To calculate the NNT, you first need to determine the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference in the risk of bad outcomes between the treated group and the control group. This can be calculated by subtracting the absolute risk in the treated group (ART) from the absolute risk in the control group (ARC). Once you have the ARR, you can calculate the NNT by taking the reciprocal of the ARR. An overestimation or underestimation of the NNT can occur if the absolute risk in the treated or control group is miscalculated.

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  • Question 26 - A breast cancer screening programme involved 1000 patients who underwent mammograms. Out of...

    Incorrect

    • A breast cancer screening programme involved 1000 patients who underwent mammograms. Out of these, 120 patients were recalled for further investigations due to being a high-risk group. Among the recalled patients, 18 were found to have breast cancer. Meanwhile, 880 patients were not recalled, and 45 of them were diagnosed with breast cancer. What is the percentage of positive predictive value for the patients who were recalled in this screening programme?

      Your Answer: 28.50%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Statistics of a Medical Screening Test

      Medical screening tests are an important tool in detecting diseases early on. However, it is important to understand the statistics behind these tests to accurately interpret the results. Here are some key terms to know:

      Positive Predictive Value: The percentage of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease. Calculated as true positives/(true positives + false positives) x 100%.

      Disease Prevalence: The percentage of cases of the disease within one population.

      Negative Predictive Value: The percentage of patients who test negative for the screening test that are true negatives, ie do not have the disease. Calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false negatives) x 100%.

      Sensitivity: The ability of the test to correctly identify the patients who have a disease. Calculated as true positives/(true positives + false negatives) x 100%.

      Specificity: The ability of the test to identify true negatives, specifically people without the disease in question. Calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false positives) x 100%.

      Understanding these statistics can help healthcare professionals and patients make informed decisions about further testing and treatment.

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      • Statistics
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  • Question 27 - Some elderly individuals currently receiving medical care have collected data on the prevalence...

    Incorrect

    • Some elderly individuals currently receiving medical care have collected data on the prevalence of diabetes. They sampled 500 people. The data collected are shown in the table.
      True positive (has the disease) True negative (does not have the disease)
      Screen positive 200 50
      Screen negative 20 230
      Which of the following is the best description for the calculation of positive predictive value?

      Your Answer: The proportion of people who have the disease in the group will test positive for the disease

      Correct Answer: The proportion of people who test positive for the disease in the group who have the disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diagnostic Test Metrics: Definitions and Interpretations

      Diagnostic tests are used to determine the presence or absence of a disease or condition in an individual. However, the accuracy of a diagnostic test is not always perfect. To evaluate the performance of a diagnostic test, several metrics are used. Here are some definitions and interpretations of commonly used diagnostic test metrics:

      Positive Predictive Value (PPV): The proportion of people who test positive for the disease in the group who have the disease. PPV can be calculated using a table with the outcome of A/(A + B).

      Specificity: The proportion of people disease-free in the group who test negative for the disease. Specificity can be calculated using a table with the outcome of B/(B + D).

      Sensitivity: The proportion of people who have the disease in the group who test positive for the disease. Sensitivity can be calculated using a table with the outcome of A/(A + C).

      False-Positive Rate: The proportion of people disease-free in the group who test positive for the disease. False-positive rate can be calculated using a table with the outcome of B/(A + B).

      False-Negative (Omission) Rate: The proportion of people who have the disease in the group who test negative for the disease. Omission rate can be calculated using a table with the outcome of C/(C + D).

      Understanding these metrics is crucial in evaluating the performance of a diagnostic test and making informed decisions about patient care.

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  • Question 28 - What study design would be most useful in testing the hypothesis that metal...

    Incorrect

    • What study design would be most useful in testing the hypothesis that metal industry workers are more likely to develop a rare neurological disorder due to exposure to a particular type of heavy metal residue, given that the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 1,000,000?

      Your Answer: Descriptive study

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Different Study Designs for Investigating Rare Diseases

      When investigating a rare disease, it is important to choose the appropriate study design to ensure accurate and reliable results. Here are some common study designs and their suitability for studying rare diseases:

      1. Case-control study: This design compares individuals affected by the disease (cases) with those not affected (controls) to identify potential risk factors. It is useful for rare diseases, but careful selection of controls is necessary to avoid bias.

      2. Cohort study: This design follows a group of individuals with a particular exposure or characteristic over time to determine if they develop the disease. While useful, it requires a large cohort and a long follow-up period for rare diseases.

      3. Placebo-controlled randomized trial: This design tests interventions prospectively and is not helpful for investigating rare diseases.

      4. Descriptive study: This design does not determine exposure to the hypothesized cause of the disease and is not helpful for investigating rare diseases.

      5. Cross-sectional survey: This design records health information from a random sample of people and requires a large sample size for rare diseases.

      Choosing the appropriate study design is crucial for investigating rare diseases and obtaining accurate results.

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  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with sudden onset compressive chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with sudden onset compressive chest pain radiating to the left upper limb. He has a medical history of obesity, hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, and is a smoker. Based on the initial assessment, you determine that there is a 40% likelihood that he is having an acute myocardial infarction. You order an ECG and cardiac enzymes for further evaluation.

      What is the significance of the 40% estimate in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Posterior probability

      Correct Answer: Prior probability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Probability and Prevalence Measures in Medical Diagnosis

      Probability and prevalence measures are essential in medical diagnosis. The prior probability estimates the likelihood of a disease before obtaining further data, while the posterior probability is the new probability after additional data is obtained. The odds ratio measures the association between an exposure and an outcome, while the likelihood ratio compares the likelihood of a test result in a patient with and without the target disorder. Prevalence refers to the proportion of people in a given population who have the disease at a specific point in time. Understanding these measures is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and treatment decisions.

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      • Statistics
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  • Question 30 - A local guideline on use of drugs in palliative care includes the following...

    Incorrect

    • A local guideline on use of drugs in palliative care includes the following statement:
      ‘Haloperidol is effective in relieving nausea in patients with end-stage renal failure and should be considered the first-line agent in these patients.’
      The guideline states that this recommendation is based on Level 3 evidence.
      Which statement best describes the type of evidence that supports this recommendation if the patients are elderly?

      Your Answer: Systematic review of randomised controlled trials

      Correct Answer: Case series

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Hierarchy of Evidence-Based Medicine

      In order to determine the strength of evidence behind clinical guidelines, the Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine at the University of Oxford has established a hierarchy of evidence. At the top of the hierarchy is Level 1a evidence, which consists of systematic reviews of randomized trials. At the bottom is Level 5 evidence, which is based on expert consensus.

      Case series fall under Level 3 evidence, while expert consensus using mechanism-based reasoning is classified as Level 4 evidence. The ideal for guideline recommendations is a systematic review of randomized controlled trials, which is classified as Level 1 evidence. Non-randomized cohort studies of good quality are classified under Level 2, while low-quality studies fall under Level 4.

      Randomized, placebo-controlled trials with a narrow confidence interval are Level 1b evidence, while those with less than 80% follow-up are classified as Level 2b evidence. Understanding this hierarchy is crucial for making evidence-based decisions in clinical practice.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistics (5/30) 17%
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