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Question 1
Correct
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What is a true statement about antisocial personality disorder?
Your Answer: Antisocial behaviours seen in conduct disorder are typically present before the age of 8
Explanation:Personality Disorder (Antisocial / Dissocial)
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible, and often criminal behavior. The criteria for this disorder differ somewhat between the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder. This diagnosis can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” Patient behavior can be described using one of more of five personality trait domains; negative affectivity, dissociality, anankastic, detachment, and disinhibition. Clinicians may also specify a borderline pattern qualifier.
The core feature of dissociality is a disregard for the rights and feelings of others, encompassing both self-centeredness and lack of empathy. Common manifestations of Dissociality include self-centeredness and lack of empathy. The DSM-5 defines antisocial personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15, as indicated by three (of more) of the following: failure to conform to social norms with respect to lawful behaviors, deceitfulness, impulsivity of failure to plan ahead, irritability and aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety of self of others, consistent irresponsibility, and lack of remorse.
Prevalence estimates are between 1%-6% in men and between 0.2-0.8% in women. Antisocial behaviors typically have their onset before age 8 years. Nearly 80% of people with ASPD developed their first symptom by age 11 years. Boys develop symptoms earlier than girls, who may not develop symptoms until puberty. An estimated 25% of girls and 40% of boys with Conduct Disorder will later meet criteria for ASPD.
The 2009 NICE Guidelines essentially make two recommendations on treatment: consider offering group-based cognitive and behavioral interventions and pharmacological interventions should not be routinely used for the treatment of antisocial personality disorder of associated behaviors of aggression, anger, and impulsivity. A Cochrane review found that there is not enough good quality evidence to recommend of reject any psychological treatment for people with a diagnosis of AsPD.
The term psychopathy has varied meanings. Some use the term synonymously with APD and consider it to represent the severe end of the spectrum of APD. Others maintain a clear distinction between psychopathy and APD. Psychopathy has been said to be a richer (broader) concept than APD. The DSM-5 view of APD is largely based on behavioral difficulties whereas the concept of psychopathy considers behavior in addition to personality-based (interpersonal of affective) symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of tumor that is caused by human herpesvirus 8. When it is associated with AIDS, it typically appears as red to purple-red macules on the skin that quickly progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions tend to occur on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes, and can also be found in the lymph nodes, stomach, intestines, and lungs in more advanced cases. Individuals with severe mental illness are at a higher risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and are more likely to have HIV infection compared to the general population. Therefore, it is important to have a basic understanding of the symptoms of this condition.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which statement about Korsakoff's psychosis is incorrect?
Your Answer: New memories are unaffected
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.
Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 67-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease who is experiencing symptoms of depression. He had a heart attack six months ago.
Which antidepressant would be the safest and most appropriate choice for this patient?Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:The most appropriate treatment for chronic heart disease (CHD) is SSRIs, with sertraline being the preferred option for post-MI patients due to its safety. However, venlafaxine should be used cautiously in patients with established cardiac disease that may increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmias. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as Amitriptyline, should be avoided in CHD patients as they are considered cardiotoxic and contraindicated in those who have had a recent MI. While citalopram is generally used post-MI, its dose-dependent QT interval prolongation should be taken into consideration. Mirtazapine can be used as an alternative in CHD patients who cannot tolerate SSRIs, but it may not be the most appropriate treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'?
Your Answer: Koch
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which medication is linked to priapism?
Your Answer: Moclobemide
Correct Answer: Trazodone
Explanation:The alpha adrenergic antagonism caused by Trazodone can lead to priapism. Trazodone is an antidepressant that is similar to tricyclics and is commonly prescribed for depression with anxiety and the need for sedation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of a child developing schizophrenia if one of their parents has the condition, based on the Gottesman data?
Your Answer: 46%
Correct Answer: 13%
Explanation:Schizophrenia Risk According to Gottesman
Irving I. Gottesman conducted family and twin studies in European populations between 1920 and 1987 to determine the risk of developing schizophrenia for relatives of those with the disorder. The following table displays Gottesman’s findings, which show the average lifetime risk for each relationship:
General population: 1%
First cousin: 2%
Uncle/aunt: 2%
Nephew/niece: 4%
Grandchildren: 5%
Parents: 6%
Half sibling: 6%
Full sibling: 9%
Children: 13%
Fraternal twins: 17%
Offspring of dual matings (both parents had schizophrenia): 46%
Identical twins: 48% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the significance of the cut off of 5 on the MDQ in diagnosing depression?
Your Answer: The sensitivity
Correct Answer: The optimal threshold
Explanation:The threshold score that results in the lowest misclassification rate, achieved by minimizing both false positive and false negative rates, is known as the optimal threshold. Based on the findings of the previous study, the ideal cut off for identifying caseness on the MDQ is five, making it the optimal threshold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors is not considered a known risk for inadequate language development?
Your Answer: Being male
Correct Answer: Being an only child
Explanation:Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language
The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.
However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are planning to develop an early intervention service for adolescents with psychosis. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with a long duration of untreated psychosis?
Your Answer: Non-white ethnicity
Correct Answer: Insidious onset
Explanation:Duration of Untreated Psychosis and its Impact on Psychotic Illness
The longer a person with a psychotic illness goes without treatment, the more severe the outcomes become. Research has shown that when the onset of the illness is gradual, the duration of untreated psychosis tends to be longer (Morgan, 2006). This highlights the importance of early intervention and prompt treatment for individuals experiencing symptoms of psychosis. Delayed treatment can lead to poorer outcomes and a more difficult recovery process. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs of psychosis and provide appropriate care as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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What condition is identified by the existence of Pick bodies?
Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration (FTLD) is a pathological term that refers to a group of neurodegenerative disorders that affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. FTLD is classified into several subtypes based on the main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distribution. The three main proteins associated with FTLD are Tau, TDP-43, and FUS. Each FTD clinical phenotype has been associated with different proportions of these proteins. Macroscopic changes in FTLD include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with focal gyral atrophy that resembles knives. Microscopic changes in FTLD-Tau include neuronal and glial tau aggregation, with further sub-classification based on the existence of different isoforms of tau protein. FTLD-TDP is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of TDP-43 in neurons, while FTLD-FUS is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of FUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35 year old male is seen in clinic with depression. He has no past psychiatric history and has never self-harmed. He denies suicidal ideation. He is commenced on citalopram. After what period of time do NICE guidelines suggest he is reviewed?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about valproate?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate is licensed for the prophylaxis of bipolar disorder
Correct Answer: If using sodium valproate rather than semi-sodium valproate higher doses are required
Explanation:The liver is responsible for metabolizing valproate, and drugs that disrupt the CYP enzymes can greatly impact its levels. Valproic acid and semi-sodium valproate are approved for treating bipolar disorder, while sodium valproate is solely approved for epilepsy.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the name of the gene located on chromosome 1 that is a candidate for schizophrenia and codes for a multifunctional protein that affects neuronal development and adult brain function, including neurite architecture, neuronal migration, intracellular transport, and synaptic transmission?
Your Answer: DISC1
Explanation:Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female with a bipolar disorder history has been effectively managed on lithium for a few years. She plans to conceive and seeks guidance on the safety of lithium during pregnancy and breastfeeding. What is the accurate statement regarding this matter?
Your Answer: Lithium is safe during the first trimester but contraindicated during the second and third trimesters and when breastfeeding
Correct Answer: Lithium should not be used during the first trimester of when breastfeeding
Explanation:During the first trimester, lithium may lead to atrialisation of the right ventricle. However, it can be used in the second and third trimesters with increased dosage requirements. After delivery, lithium dosage requirements return to normal suddenly. Continuing a high dose of lithium can result in dangerously elevated lithium levels. Additionally, lithium is excreted in breast milk, and if the infant becomes dehydrated, toxic levels of lithium can develop quickly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 60-year old man whose brother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's wants to know the likelihood of him developing the disorder compared to the general population. What is his increased risk?
Your Answer: 3 times higher
Explanation:Familial Risk of Alzheimer’s Disease
The risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease is increased for first-degree relatives of patients who develop the disorder before the age of 85. This risk is three to four times higher than the risk for individuals without a family history of the disease. It is important for healthcare professionals to advise relatives of patients with Alzheimer’s disease about their increased genetic risk and provide appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A young adult who has just begun taking olanzapine reports experiencing dizziness, euphoria, and blurred vision upon sudden standing. What would be the most suitable replacement medication?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Amisulpride
Explanation:The patient’s reported symptoms are indicative of postural hypotension, which is likely a side effect of the olanzapine medication they were given.
Maudsley Guidelines: Antipsychotics for Postural Hypotension
When postural hypotension is a concern, it may be necessary to switch to an antipsychotic that is less likely to cause this side effect. The following antipsychotics are recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines:
– Amisulpride
– Aripiprazole
– Haloperidol
– Sulpiride
– TrifluoperazineThese medications have a lower risk of causing postural hypotension compared to other antipsychotics such as risperidone, clozapine, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone. It is important to discuss any concerns about side effects with a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which condition is most commonly associated with the presence of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies containing alpha-synuclein?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.
Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.
In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.
Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women?
Your Answer: Women tend to require higher doses of antipsychotics to stay well than men
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia in women is associated with fewer structural brain abnormalities than in men
Explanation:Schizophrenia presents differently in men and women. Women tend to have a later onset and respond better to treatment, requiring lower doses of antipsychotics. Men, on the other hand, have an earlier onset, poorer premorbid functioning, and more negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. They also have greater structural brain and neurophysiological abnormalities. Females display more affective symptoms, auditory hallucinations, and persecutory delusions, but have a more favorable short- and middle-term course of illness with less smoking and substance abuse. Families of males are more critical, and expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on them. Certain neurological soft signs may be more prevalent in males. There are no clear sex differences in family history, obstetric complications, and minor physical anomalies.
Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mental illness is not a disease
Explanation:Throughout his career, Szasz contended that mental illness is merely a metaphor for difficulties in human existence, and that mental illnesses lack the objective reality of physical ailments like cancer. He opposed many aspects of the contemporary psychiatric system in developed countries.
Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which epilepsy medication can alleviate concerns about weight gain and may even lead to weight loss for a patient with epilepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test
Explanation:The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test
The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a tool used to evaluate a person’s ability to think abstractly and form concepts effectively. This test involves sorting objects based on their colour of material and copying block patterns using coloured cubes. The purpose of this test is to assess the patient’s cognitive abilities and determine their level of abstract thinking. By analyzing the patient’s performance on this test, healthcare professionals can gain insight into their cognitive functioning and develop appropriate treatment plans. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a valuable tool for assessing cognitive abilities and can be used in a variety of healthcare settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ordering is the most common compulsion
Explanation:In adults with learning disability, ordering is the most prevalent compulsion, whereas hand-washing, checking, and cleaning are more common in the general population. The prevalence rate of OCD in learning disability is higher at 2.5% compared to the general population. However, it can be challenging to distinguish OCD from other behaviors associated with learning disability syndromes, such as tics, stereotyped behaviors, and autism spectrum disorder. Additionally, assessing obsessional thoughts in individuals with learning disability can be challenging due to their difficulty in articulating them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which combination of organs is primarily responsible for the first pass effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver and bowel
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pairing
Explanation:Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 26
Incorrect
-
Who is recognized as the creator of interpersonal theory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Harry Stack Sullivan
Explanation:Fonagy and Bateman – Mentalisation-Based Treatment
Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT) was developed by Peter Fonagy and Anthony Bateman in the 1990s. It is a psychodynamic therapy that focuses on improving the patient’s ability to mentalise, which is the capacity to understand one’s own and others’ mental states. MBT is primarily used to treat borderline personality disorder, but it has also been used to treat other mental health conditions.
Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT was influenced by their research on attachment theory and the importance of early relationships in shaping mentalisation abilities. They believed that individuals with borderline personality disorder have difficulties with mentalisation due to early attachment disruptions, and that MBT could help them develop more stable and secure relationships.
MBT is typically delivered in a group of individual format, and it involves a combination of psychoeducation, cognitive-behavioral techniques, and psychodynamic interventions. The therapist helps the patient to identify and reflect on their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, and to understand how these are influenced by their past experiences and relationships. The therapist also helps the patient to develop more adaptive coping strategies and to improve their interpersonal skills.
Overall, Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT has contributed to the development of psychodynamic therapies that are more focused on specific treatment goals and evidence-based practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 27
Incorrect
-
What characteristic is unique to neurons and not present in other types of cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nissl substance
Explanation:Nissl bodies are sizable granules present in neurons that contain rough endoplasmic reticulum and free ribosomes, where protein synthesis occurs. These structures were named after Franz Nissl and exhibit a distinctive purple-blue hue when exposed to Cresyl violet solution, although the reason for this selective staining remains unknown.
Melanin
Melanin is a pigment found in various parts of the body, including the skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced by specialized cells called melanocytes, which are located in the skin’s basal layer. The function of melanin in the body is not fully understood, but it is thought to play a role in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Additionally, melanin may be a by-product of neurotransmitter synthesis, although this function is not well established. Overall, the role of melanin in the body is an area of ongoing research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
-
What is the maximum duration of psychotic symptoms required for a diagnosis of acute and transient psychotic disorder according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
-
For which of the following research areas are qualitative methods least effective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment evaluation
Explanation:While quantitative methods are typically used for treatment evaluation, qualitative studies can also provide valuable insights by interpreting, qualifying, of illuminating findings. This is especially beneficial when examining unexpected results, as they can help to test the primary hypothesis.
Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
What drug has been proven through placebo controlled RCT evidence to effectively manage hypersalivation caused by the use of clozapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyoscine
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
-
A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and appear to have both positive and negative symptoms. Which of the following assessment tools would be most useful in monitoring their psychotic symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PANSS
Explanation:Schizophrenia Assessment Tools: Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)
As a language model AI, I am familiar with the rating scales used to assess individuals with schizophrenia. Two of the most commonly used scales are the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and the Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS). While there are many other scales available, these two are particularly important for exam purposes. The BPRS is a tool used to assess the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia, including positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms such as apathy and social withdrawal. The PANSS, on the other hand, is a more comprehensive tool that assesses both positive and negative symptoms, as well as general psychopathology. Both scales are useful in helping clinicians to evaluate the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
What is the impact of lithium on the white blood cell count?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neutrophil levels are increased
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
As a consultant child and adolescent psychiatrist visiting a local high school, you have been asked by the principal for advice on interventions to reduce the suicide rate among students. Due to limited funds, it is important to focus on the most common method of suicide among this age group.
Which method of suicide would you recommend the principal to address in their intervention plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hanging
Explanation:The most prevalent method of suicide in prisons across the country is hanging of self-strangulation. As a result, the prison service places a high priority on eliminating ligature points. For more information on this topic, refer to the National Clinical Survey on Suicide by Prisoners conducted by Shaw et al. in 2004, which can be found in the British Journal of Psychiatry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
According to NICE, which SSRI is the recommended first-line treatment for body dysmorphic disorder in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:OCD and BDD are two mental health disorders that can affect children. OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions, while BDD is characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in one’s appearance. Both disorders can cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.
For mild cases of OCD, guided self-help may be considered along with support and information for the family of caregivers. For moderate to severe cases of OCD, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) that involves the family of caregivers and is adapted to suit the child’s developmental age is recommended. For all children and young people with BDD, CBT (including exposure and response prevention) is recommended.
If a child declines psychological treatment, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be prescribed. However, a licensed medication (sertraline of fluvoxamine) should be used for children and young people with OCD, while fluoxetine should be used for those with BDD. If an SSRI is ineffective of not tolerated, another SSRI of clomipramine may be tried. Tricyclic antidepressants other than clomipramine should not be used to treat OCD of BDD in children and young people. Other antidepressants (MAOIs, SNRIs) and antipsychotics should not be used alone in the routine treatment of OCD of BDD in children of young people, but may be considered as an augmentation strategy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
What physical finding is most indicative of hepatic encephalopathy in a 60-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver due to alcohol abuse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flapping tremor
Explanation:Hepatic encephalopathy is indicated by the presence of a distinctive ‘liver flap’.
Hepatomegaly
Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simpson-Angus scale
Explanation:The Simpson-Angus scale was created to evaluate parkinsonism caused by medication, utilizing consistent assessments for stiffness, shaking, and excessive saliva production. The scale solely relies on observable symptoms.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
A drug that has a constant elimination rate regardless of its concentration exhibits what characteristic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zero order kinetics
Explanation:The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the process of a drug moving from the site of administration to the systemic circulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absorption
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
What was the percentage of restricted patients who were convicted again within 2 years of transitioning into the community, based on UK data from 1998 to 2006?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7%
Explanation:Recidivism Rates of Restricted Patients vs. UK Prison Population
Restricted patients are individuals who are under the risk management of the Secretary of State for Justice and receive care in secure hospitals. From 1998 to 2006, less than 500 restricted cases per year were reintegrated into the community, and their two-year re-conviction rates were 7% for all offenses and 1% for serious offenses. In contrast, the UK prison population had a much higher recidivism rate. In the first quarter of 2004, out of 20,000 individuals released from prison, 65% were convicted again for any offense. These findings suggest that the risk management strategies for restricted patients may be more effective in reducing recidivism rates compared to the general prison population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
Which substance has the highest level of permeability through the blood brain barrier?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipid soluble molecules
Explanation:Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier
The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.
When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.
It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A team of scientists conduct a case control study to investigate the association between birth complications and attempted suicide in individuals aged 18-35 years. They enroll 296 cases of attempted suicide and recruit an equal number of controls who are matched for age, gender, and geographical location. Upon analyzing the birth history, they discover that 67 cases of attempted suicide and 61 controls had experienced birth difficulties. What is the unadjusted odds ratio for attempted suicide in individuals with a history of birth complications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.13
Explanation:Odds Ratio Calculation for Birth Difficulties in Case and Control Groups
The odds ratio is a statistical measure that compares the likelihood of an event occurring in one group to that of another group. In this case, we are interested in the odds of birth difficulties in a case group compared to a control group.
To calculate the odds ratio, we need to determine the number of individuals in each group who had birth difficulties and those who did not. In the case group, 67 individuals had birth difficulties, while 229 did not. In the control group, 61 individuals had birth difficulties, while 235 did not.
Using these numbers, we can calculate the odds ratio as follows:
Odds ratio = (67/229) / (61/235) = 1.13
This means that the odds of birth difficulties are 1.13 times higher in the case group compared to the control group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
What is a skin alteration that can be observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Skin Changes in Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. In addition to the physical effects of malnutrition, anorexia can also cause various skin changes. These changes include xerosis of dry skin, cheilitis of inflammation of the lips, gingivitis of inflammation of the gums, hypertrichiosis of excess hair growth in areas that do not normally have hair, hyperpigmentation, Russell’s sign of scarring on knuckles and back of hand, carotenoderma of yellow/orange skin color, acne, nail changes, acrocyanosis of persistent blue, cyanotic discoloration of the digits, and seborrheic dermatitis. These skin changes can be a sign of underlying malnutrition and should be addressed as part of the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
What is the percentage of completed suicides that occur in individuals aged 65 and above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Suicide in the Elderly
Self-harm in older individuals should be approached with caution as approximately 20% of completed suicides occur in those over the age of 65. Studies have consistently found that more than half of those who commit suicide after the age of 65 are suffering from a depressive disorder at the time of death. Personality traits also appear to play a role, with an association between suicide in older individuals and anankastic (obsessional) and anxious personality traits observed in one study. Dissocial of borderline disorders are more commonly found in younger suicide victims. It is important to be aware of these factors when assessing and treating suicidal behavior in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
What diagnosis is indicated when a man accused of a violent crime claims to only remember having one alcoholic drink on the day in question, yet witnesses observed him walking normally and displaying violent behavior at the time of the crime?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pathological intoxication
Explanation:The crucial details in this scenario are the restriction of one drink and the apparent absence of motor impairment in the individual. These factors help to differentiate pathological intoxication from other potential causes such as alcohol intoxication of alcohol-induced amnesia. Blackouts, which involve the inability to remember events that occurred while drinking, can be either complete of partial and are caused by alcohol interference with memory formation.
Pathological Intoxication: A Rare Legal Defence
Pathological intoxication, also known as mania a potu, is a legal defence that is seldom used. It refers to a sudden onset of aggressive and violent behaviour that is not typical of the individual when sober. This behaviour occurs shortly after consuming small amounts of alcohol that would not typically cause intoxication in most people. The individual may experience complete of partial amnesia following the episode. Unlike regular alcohol intoxication, there is no motor incoordination, slurred speech, of diplopia present in pathological intoxication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
A child is referred to a neurologist. On entering the neurologist's room, the child is observed to have a broad-based gait. When introduced, the child's speech is noted to be abnormal. When the child attempts to shake the doctor's hand, a tremor is observed. Which area of the brain is likely to be dysfunctional?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs
Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).
Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.
Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.
Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
In which sleep stage are K complexes mostly observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Sleep Stages
Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.
Sleep stage
Approx % of time spent in stage
EEG findings
CommentI
5%
Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.II
45%
Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.III
15%
Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.IV
15%
Mixed, predominantly beta
High dream activity.The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.
It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.
REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM
Characteristics of REM sleep
– Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
– Loss of muscle tone
– Dreaming
– Rapid eye movements
– Penile erectionDeafness:
(No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
What is the characteristic feature that is specific to Wilson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kayser-Fleischer Ring
Explanation:While other conditions may also present with the same symptoms, a Kayser-Fleischer Ring, characterized by a golden-brown corneal ring due to copper deposits at the Descemet’s membrane, is considered a definitive indicator of Wilson’s disease.
Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.
The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.
The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.
In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
Which route of administration is known to have the highest degree of first pass effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
What is a frequently observed negative outcome of taking rivastigmine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dizziness
Explanation:Rivastigmine often causes dizziness, while the other listed side effects are less frequently reported.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
From which amino acid is norepinephrine synthesized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tyrosine
Explanation:Norepinephrine: Synthesis, Release, and Breakdown
Norepinephrine is synthesized from tyrosine through a series of enzymatic reactions. The first step involves the conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by DOPA decarboxylase. Dopamine is further converted to norepinephrine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase. Finally, norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase.
The primary site of norepinephrine release is the locus coeruleus, also known as the blue spot, which is located in the pons. Once released, norepinephrine is broken down by two enzymes: catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO). These enzymes play a crucial role in regulating the levels of norepinephrine in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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