00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.

      Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
      Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
      Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
      Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe chest pain, scoring 9 out of 10, that began an hour ago. He is a smoker and is currently taking amlodipine for his hypertension. Following an ECG and troponin testing, he is diagnosed with NSTEMI. Using the GRACE score, his predicted 6-month mortality is 2%, and he is not at high risk of bleeding. However, the nearest primary percutaneous intervention unit is over an hour away. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin, clopidogrel and fondaparinux

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, ticagrelor and fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He works as a lawyer and reports feeling healthy with no recent illnesses. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking 10mg of ramipril daily. He has no known allergies.
      During his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his readings were consistently high at 158/92 mmHg, 162/94mmHg, and 159/93mmHg.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In individuals under the age of 55 and of Caucasian ethnicity, the first-line treatment for hypertension is an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril. If the blood pressure remains elevated despite maximum dose of ramipril, a second medication should be added. A calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic is the preferred choice for second-line therapy in this scenario.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old man contacts emergency services due to experiencing central crushing chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man contacts emergency services due to experiencing central crushing chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. Upon arrival at the emergency department, his heart rate is recorded at 50/min. An ECG is conducted, revealing ST elevation and bradycardia with a 1st-degree heart block. Based on the provided information, which leads are expected to display the ST elevation?

      Your Answer: II, III and aVF

      Explanation:

      An ST-elevated myocardial infarction affecting the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) can cause arrhythmias due to the involvement of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the AV node. This is evidenced by the patient’s presentation with 1st-degree heart block following the MI.

      Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the middle of the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the middle of the night with worsening pain in his left leg. The pain began at rest approximately 2 hours ago and has now become severe. The patient has a history of peripheral arterial disease and continues to smoke 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, the left lower limb appears pale and feels cold with no signs of edema or trauma. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent on palpation and inaudible on a doppler exam, while the right lower limb pulses are palpable. The patient has received IV morphine. What is the most appropriate initial management for this individual?

      Your Answer: IV unfractionated heparin and urgent vascular review

      Explanation:

      The appropriate initial management for acute limb ischaemia involves urgent vascular review and administration of IV unfractionated heparin for anticoagulation. The patient’s sudden onset of symptoms and absence of pulses on Doppler examination suggest arterial thrombosis, which is a surgical emergency. Low molecular weight heparin and a lower limb venous ultrasound scan are not indicated, as the thrombus is likely arterial. Similarly, ankle-brachial pressure index and imaging studies such as CT or lower limb arterial Doppler ultrasound should not delay urgent vascular review in this critical situation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      92.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are urgently requested to assess a 62-year-old female patient admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • You are urgently requested to assess a 62-year-old female patient admitted to the cardiology ward with complaints of breathing difficulty. During the examination, you observe a raised JVP and bilateral fine crackles to the mid zones. The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, and the pulse is irregular and ranges between 140-150. An ECG confirms atrial fibrillation, and there is no prior history of the condition in the patient's notes or previous ECGs. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: IV amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Urgent synchronised DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Urgent synchronised DC cardioversion is necessary when heart failure is observed as an adverse sign.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      81.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-week pregnant woman is referred to the pregnancy clinic with gestational hypertension....

    Correct

    • A 28-week pregnant woman is referred to the pregnancy clinic with gestational hypertension. There is no evidence of protein in her urine.
      Which of the following is the most suitable treatment?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Safe and Unsafe Hypertension Medications During Pregnancy

      Gestational hypertension, which is characterized by new hypertension after 20 weeks without significant proteinuria, can be treated with various medications. However, not all hypertension medications are safe during pregnancy. Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide and thiazide-like diuretics like indapamide, should be avoided as they can cause complications in the fetus. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) like losartan and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like ramipril can also affect fetal blood pressure control and should be avoided unless essential. Labetalol is recommended as the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension, with methyldopa and nifedipine as other safe options. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic BP >90 mmHg or a systolic BP >140 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      1325.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is...

    Correct

    • A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is found to have consistent blood pressure readings >170/95 mmHg. She is admitted under Gynaecology.
      Which of the following antihypertensives would you initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Treatment Options for Gestational Hypertension

      Gestational hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. According to NICE guidelines, labetalol is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension. However, if the patient has asthma, labetalol is contraindicated. In such cases, nifedipine is listed as the second-line treatment, followed by methyldopa if necessary.

      Diltiazem is not usually used in gestational hypertension, and the role of this medication in pregnancy is unclear. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated due to their potential adverse effects on fetal blood pressure and renal function.

      In cases of gestational hypertension, it is crucial to rule out pre-eclampsia. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 160/110, NICE guidelines recommend admission until the blood pressure is below this level.

      Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are safe and effective in pregnancy, while the role of diltiazem is uncertain. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated. It is essential to choose the appropriate medication based on the patient’s medical history and individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is currently on furosemide...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is currently on furosemide and ramipril. Which beta-blocker would be the most appropriate to add for improving his long-term prognosis?

      Your Answer: Esmolol

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication is recommended for controlling her heart rate?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.

      Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.

      The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      67.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the Emergency Department with an ECG indicative of an anterior myocardial infarction. Tragically, he experiences cardiac arrest shortly after arrival. What is the leading cause of mortality in patients following a heart attack?

      Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Complications of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Patients are treated with defibrillation as per the ALS protocol. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a significant portion of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, leading to a decrease in ejection fraction. This condition is challenging to treat and may require inotropic support and/or an intra-aortic balloon pump. Chronic heart failure may develop if the patient survives the acute phase, and loop diuretics such as furosemide can help decrease fluid overload. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications of MI. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI.

      Pericarditis is a common complication of MI in the first 48 hours, characterized by typical pericarditis pain, a pericardial rub, and a pericardial effusion. Dressler’s syndrome, which occurs 2-6 weeks after MI, is an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed during myocardial recovery. It is treated with NSAIDs. Left ventricular aneurysm may form due to weakened myocardium, leading to persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Patients are anticoagulated due to the increased risk of thrombus formation and stroke. Left ventricular free wall rupture and ventricular septal defect are rare but serious complications that require urgent surgical correction. Acute mitral regurgitation may occur due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle, leading to acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema. Vasodilator therapy and emergency surgical repair may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to...

    Correct

    • A 59 year old man with a history of aortic stenosis presents to his cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and fainting episodes. His recent ECHO reveals a mean gradient of 45 mmHg and mild aortic regurgitation, while his ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, left bundle branch block, and a prolonged PR interval. What factor is most indicative of the need for valve replacement surgery?

      Your Answer: Presence of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Aortic valve replacement is typically recommended for patients with severe aortic stenosis who are experiencing symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. Without treatment, these symptoms can lead to a mortality rate of 2-3 years. However, the decision to perform valve replacement on asymptomatic patients is a topic of debate.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and nausea. He is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V2-V4, and troponin levels are elevated. The patient receives a STAT 300mg aspirin, and there are no immediate plans for primary PCI. According to the GRACE score, the 6-month mortality risk is 8.0%. The patient is stable. What is the best course of treatment going forward?

      Your Answer: Fondaparinux and ticagrelor

      Correct Answer: Fondaparinux, prasugrel or ticagrelor, and refer for coronary angiography within 72 hours

      Explanation:

      The current treatment plan of prescribing fondaparinux, clopidogrel, and scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months is incorrect. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for patients with a higher risk of bleeding or those taking an oral anticoagulant. Additionally, delaying definitive treatment for a high-risk patient by scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months could lead to increased mortality. Instead, a more appropriate treatment plan would involve prescribing prasugrel, unfractionated heparin, and a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor, and referring the patient for urgent PCI within 2 hours. However, it should be noted that this treatment plan is specific to patients with STEMI and access to PCI facilities.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man is being evaluated after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is being evaluated after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during his recent hospitalization. He has a history of mitral stenosis and takes ramipril for hypertension. He was started on warfarin during his admission and was discharged with plans for follow-up in the cardiology clinic. However, he is now found to be in sinus rhythm during his current review. What is the appropriate course of action regarding anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Continue warfarin for 1 month

      Correct Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin should be continued indefinitely due to the patient’s risk factors for stroke and history of atrial fibrillation. It is preferred over direct oral anticoagulants due to his valvular heart disease.

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      118.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had...

    Correct

    • You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse, and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (IV), and continue CPR

      Explanation:

      Managing Cardiac Arrest: Correct and Incorrect Approaches

      When dealing with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to follow the correct management protocol. In the case of a patient in asystole, CPR 30:2 (compressions: ventilations) should be initiated, along with 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1:10 000 IV every other cycle of CPR. Direct current (DC) shock is not indicated for asystole. Adrenaline 1:1000 IM is not appropriate for cardiac arrest situations, as it is used in anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is indicated in severe bradycardia, not asystole. It is essential to follow the correct approach to manage cardiac arrest effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man presents to the ambulatory care unit with complaints of tenderness...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the ambulatory care unit with complaints of tenderness in his calf. His GP referred him for evaluation. Upon examination, there is no visible swelling, and the leg appears symmetrical to the other leg. However, he experiences tenderness when the deep veins of the calf are palpated. The patient has no significant medical history. What is the initial management option recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start anticoagulant treatment, whilst arranging a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Arrange a D dimer test with results available within 4 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a Wells’ score of 1 or less for a suspected DVT, the first step is to arrange a D dimer test with results available within 4 hours, according to NICE guidelines. In this case, the score of 1 is due to localized tenderness along the deep venous system, with no other risk factors present. A proximal leg vein ultrasound scan is not the first-line investigation option for a Wells’ score of 1 or less, and anticoagulant treatment should not be started without a D dimer test. If the D dimer results cannot be obtained within 4 hours, low molecular weight heparin injection may be considered, but therapeutic dose apixaban should not be started without a D dimer test.

      NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite being on current treatment with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he continues to experience breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, his chest is clear to auscultation and there is minimal ankle edema. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was recently attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      104
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club when an ejection systolic murmur is found. He is sent for echocardiogram and subsequently diagnosed with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Despite a normal electrocardiogram (ECG) and regular pulse, which complication of this condition is most likely to result in sudden death for this athlete?

      Your Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      Young athletes with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy are at risk of sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmia. This is believed to be caused by ventricular tachycardia resulting from ischaemia, which typically occurs during extreme exertion. Unlike myocardial infarction, which is commonly associated with atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries, it is unlikely for a young person to develop this condition. However, cocaine use may increase the risk of MI in young people. Although HOCM may cause a regurgitant mitral valve, valve rupture is not a known complication. While heart block may occur in some cases of HOCM, it is rare and is unlikely to cause sudden death.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is caused by mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins. It is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, and myofibrillar hypertrophy with disarray and fibrosis on biopsy. HOCM can be asymptomatic or present with exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death, arrhythmias, heart failure, jerky pulse, and systolic murmurs. It is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      136.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from work. She complains of experiencing a 'fluttering' sensation in her chest for the past 30 minutes. Although she admits to feeling 'a bit faint,' she denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, the results show a regular tachycardia of 166 bpm with a QRS duration of 110 ms. Her blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on room air. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Carotid sinus massage

      Explanation:

      Vagal manoeuvres, such as carotid sinus massage or the Valsalva manoeuvre, are the initial treatment for supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine should only be administered if these manoeuvres are ineffective. According to the ALS guidelines, direct current cardioversion is not recommended for this condition.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old caucasian man comes in for his annual hypertension check-up. He has...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old caucasian man comes in for his annual hypertension check-up. He has already completed a blood pressure diary at home, which shows an average daytime reading of 160/100 mmHg. During his visit today, his blood pressure is measured at 174/110 mmHg. He is currently taking ramipril 10mg daily and is fully compliant with his medication.

      In addition to hypertension, he has a history of recurrent gout and takes allopurinol for it. He has no other medical issues. Since his hypertension diagnosis, he has quit smoking and has taken steps to improve his lifestyle.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Add nifedipine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with hypertension is already on an ACE inhibitor and has a history of gout, it would be more appropriate to prescribe a calcium channel blocker rather than a thiazide as the next step in treatment. Nifedipine is the recommended choice for this patient. The target blood pressure for adults under 80 years old with hypertension is below 140/90 mmHg. If a single medication is not controlling the patient’s blood pressure, a second agent should be considered after checking treatment adherence. For a Caucasian man under 55 years old, the first step in treatment is an ACE inhibitor or an ARB. The second step is the addition of a CCB or thiazide-like diuretic, depending on clinical factors. However, in this case, the patient’s history of gout makes nifedipine a more appropriate choice than bendroflumethiazide. Doxazosin is not recommended for stage 2 hypertension, and losartan should not be used together with an ACE inhibitor. Lifestyle changes and repeat blood pressure in 3 months are not sufficient at this stage, as a single medication may not be enough to control hypertension.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She has a medical history of heart failure and reports that her symptoms began a few days after starting a new medication prescribed by her cardiologist. As a result, you order routine blood tests that reveal hypokalaemia. Which medication is the probable culprit for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Individuals with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 40% or lower should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, unless there are contraindications or intolerance. This is supported by numerous clinical trials that have shown their efficacy in reducing hospital admissions and mortality rates. The dosage should be started low and gradually increased until the target dose or the highest tolerated dose is achieved, with regular monitoring of renal function and serum electrolytes.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, requesting a health check. While he...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, requesting a health check. While he feels very well, he is concerned, as his father had a myocardial infarction (MI) at the age of 43.
      On examination, his blood pressure and pulse are normal. His body mass index (BMI) is also within the normal range. There is a white/grey opacity surrounding the periphery of his cornea in both eyes.
      What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lipid profile

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Laboratory Tests for Cardiovascular Health Check

      To assess a patient’s cardiovascular health, various laboratory tests may be conducted. However, the choice of tests should be based on the patient’s symptoms, medical history, and physical examination. In the case of a patient with signs of hyperlipidaemia, a lipid profile would be the most appropriate test to diagnose familial hyperlipidaemia. On the other hand, an ECG would be indicated if there was a family history of sudden death to rule out underlying rhythm issues. A fasting glucose test would not be necessary in this case, but it may be conducted as part of a cardiovascular health check. A full blood count would not aid in the diagnosis of hyperlipidaemia, but it may be conducted if the patient was experiencing chest pain to exclude anaemia as a cause of his symptoms. Lastly, a renal profile would not aid in the diagnosis of familial hyperlipidaemia, but it may be conducted to rule out secondary causes if the patient were hypertensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of dizziness is prescribed clopidogrel.
      What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Blocks glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors

      Correct Answer: Blocks platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel inhibits platelet activation by blocking the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to the platelet P2Y12 receptor. This is achieved by preventing the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIa/IIIb. It is recommended by NICE for secondary prevention following a cerebrovascular accident or in peripheral arterial disease. It can also be used in combination with aspirin for the management of ischaemic heart disease or for patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.

      Tirofiban and abciximab are drugs that block glycoprotein IIIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation by blocking fibrinogen from binding to platelet receptors. These drugs are used under specialist supervision only for the treatment of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction or during percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.

      Hirudin, produced by leeches, blocks thrombin receptors. Bivalirudin, a hirudin analogue, is used for the acute management of acute coronary syndrome or during PCI.

      Aspirin inhibits thromboxane production by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).

      Heparin binds to antithrombin III, activating it, which reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa. Heparin is an anticoagulant and plays a role in the treatment of venous thromboembolism, while clopidogrel is an anti-platelet agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old otherwise healthy man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old otherwise healthy man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath on minimal exertion that have been worsening over the past few months. Investigations reveal normal angiogram and chest x-ray results, but an echocardiogram shows severe aortic stenosis. What is the most suitable management option?

      Your Answer: Aortic balloon valvuloplasty

      Correct Answer: Surgical aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis (AS) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The gold standard treatment for symptomatic AS is surgical aortic valve replacement, which involves open-heart surgery and the use of mechanical or biological valves. However, for patients who are deemed too high risk for open-heart surgery, aortic balloon valvuloplasty or transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) may be considered as less invasive options.

      Annual echocardiography monitoring is necessary to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. It is important to note that oral nitrates are contraindicated in patients with AS as they can cause profound hypotension. Direct oral anticoagulants are also not licensed or indicated for the treatment of valvular heart disease. Overall, the choice of treatment depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and overall health status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute medical unit 14 days ago. She was admitted due to pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Apixaban was started during her hospital stay. The patient has a clean medical history and is generally healthy. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulation therapy for this individual?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms usually require anticoagulation treatment for a duration of 6 months, as there are no temporary risk factors for venous thromboembolism.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Samantha is a 55-year-old Hispanic woman who visits her primary care physician for...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old Hispanic woman who visits her primary care physician for a routine check-up of her hypertension. Despite being treated with amlodipine 10 mg once daily, her blood pressure has been poorly controlled during her last two appointments. During her examination today, her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, pulse 70/minute, respiratory rate 15/min, and she has no fever. What would be the next appropriate step to attempt to control Samantha's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Add candesartan

      Explanation:

      To manage poorly controlled hypertension in patients already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step is to add an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this particular case, since the patient is black, an ARB is the preferred choice. Beta-blockers like metoprolol are not commonly used for hypertension management. Increasing the dose of amlodipine may lead to more side effects, so it is generally better to add multiple drugs at lower doses instead of increasing the dose of one drug to its maximum.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?

      Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiac Biomarkers: Importance of BNP in Heart Failure Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing heart failure, healthcare professionals rely on various cardiac biomarkers to aid in their assessment. Among these biomarkers, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is considered the primary investigation according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      Unlike other biomarkers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), BNP is specific to heart failure and is not affected by inflammation. On the other hand, troponin T is useful in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes, while creatine phosphokinase is primarily used to detect muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.

      It is important to note that certain factors such as obesity and medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can falsely lower BNP levels. Therefore, if BNP levels are elevated, patients should be referred for an echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure.

      In summary, understanding the role of cardiac biomarkers such as BNP in heart failure diagnosis is crucial in providing accurate and timely treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent has been diagnosed with hypertension after ruling...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent has been diagnosed with hypertension after ruling out secondary causes. What is the best initial medication for treatment?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For black African or African-Caribbean patients newly diagnosed with hypertension, a calcium channel blocker should be added as first-line treatment instead of ACE inhibitors, which have shown lower effectiveness in this population.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for his annual medication review. He...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for his annual medication review. He has hypertension and gout and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg, amlodipine 10 mg and atorvastatin 20 mg. His home blood pressure readings average at 150/88 mmHg. His recent blood tests of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c), renal profile and lipids are normal. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate to add to his current regime?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      The patient’s hypertension is not well controlled despite being on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. According to NICE guidance, the next step in treatment should be a thiazide-like diuretic or an ACE inhibitor. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, a diuretic is not advisable, and an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril is the most appropriate choice.

      Aspirin 75 mg was previously recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in patients with multiple risk factors. However, current advice is to only consider prescribing aspirin after a careful risk assessment in patients with a high risk of stroke or myocardial infarction. Routine prescribing of antiplatelets for primary prevention is no longer recommended due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleed outweighing the benefits.

      NICE no longer recommends initiating thiazide diuretics for hypertension treatment. Patients already established on this medication and whose BP is well controlled should continue. However, thiazide-like diuretics or ACE inhibitors are preferred as second-line treatment for hypertension in patients already on a calcium-channel blocker.

      Diltiazem and amlodipine are both calcium-channel blockers, and medication from a different class of antihypertensives should be added.

      Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic recommended as a second-line treatment for hypertension not controlled on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, which can be exacerbated by thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics, an ACE inhibitor would be a more suitable choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and a calculated QRISK-3 score of 13.8%. He has no significant past medical history and is of Pakistani background. What initial pharmacological management should be offered, in addition to lifestyle advice?

      Your Answer: A statin and a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (20/30) 67%
Passmed