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  • Question 1 - In a 6-year-old boy, what could be a possible association with an uncomplicated...

    Correct

    • In a 6-year-old boy, what could be a possible association with an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect (VSD)?

      Your Answer: A pansystolic murmur of grade 4/6 in intensity

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Congenital Heart Disease

      A collapsing pulse can be a sign of aortic incompetence, while clubbing is a common feature of cyanotic congenital heart disease. A holosystolic murmur of varying intensity is also a characteristic of this condition. However, splenomegaly is not typically associated with congenital heart disease. In an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect, the S2 splits normally and P2 is normal. These are important characteristics to be aware of when diagnosing and treating congenital heart disease. Proper identification and management of these symptoms can greatly improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans to start trying for a baby. Despite feeling relatively well, she has several pre-existing medical conditions. She is classified as grade 2 obese and has type 2 diabetes (which is managed with metformin), hypertension (treated with ramipril), gastro-oesophageal reflux (using ranitidine), and allergic rhinitis (taking loratadine). Additionally, she experiences back pain and takes paracetamol on a daily basis.
      Which medication should she avoid during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should avoid taking ACE inhibitors like ramipril as they can lead to fetal abnormalities and renal failure. These medications are believed to hinder the production of fetal urine, resulting in oligohydramnios, and increase the likelihood of cranial and cardiac defects. However, other drugs do not pose any known risks during pregnancy and can be continued if necessary.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      210.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer, requiring a lumpectomy two years ago, is currently on tamoxifen therapy and presents to her follow-up clinic with her partner.
      She is feeling down, has a low mood and reports difficulty sleeping due to hot flashes. She is seeking assistance in improving her mood.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: A 2-week trial of fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms in Breast Cancer Patients

      Breast cancer patients experiencing mood disturbance, anxiety, and depression related to menopausal symptoms can benefit from cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and lifestyle modifications. A 2-week trial of fluoxetine may be an option, but it is contraindicated in patients receiving tamoxifen therapy. Combined cyclic hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) is not routinely offered due to the increased risk of breast cancer recurrence, but can be prescribed in exceptional circumstances. Over-the-counter herbal products like black cohosh are not recommended due to safety concerns and potential interactions with medications. Lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine and alcohol consumption, using a handheld fan, and regular exercise can also help alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      256
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior medical history has been unremarkable and his immunisations are up-to-date. The mother is concerned about his growth. After you determine that the baby has grown appropriately since the last visit and is unchanged from the 50th centile, you provide the mother with advice regarding growth.
      What signalling pathway does growth hormone (GH) use?

      Your Answer: A tyrosine kinase receptor that uses the JAK/STAT pathway

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Second Messenger Systems and Receptor Types in Hormonal Signaling

      Hormones utilize various signaling pathways to transmit their messages to target cells. One important aspect of hormonal signaling is the use of second messengers, which relay the hormone signal from the cell surface to the intracellular environment. Here, we compare and contrast the second messenger systems and receptor types used by different hormones.

      Growth hormone (GH) and prolactin both use the tyrosine kinase receptor, followed by activation of Janus kinase (JAK), signal transduction, and activation of transcription (STAT). In contrast, platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), fibroblast growth factor (FGF), insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and insulin use the MAP kinase or RAS system. Aldosterone uses steroid receptors, while GH uses the tyrosine kinase receptor.

      Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) works as a second messenger for hypothalamic hormones such as gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), and pituitary hormones such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.

      Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) is a second messenger that activates protein kinases and mediates endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), and nitric oxide.

      Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a second messenger of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and several other hormones, but not GH.

      In summary, different hormones use distinct second messenger systems and receptor types to transmit their signals, highlighting the complexity and diversity of hormonal signaling pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) by the Helicopter...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) by the Helicopter Emergency Medical Service (HEMS) in severe hypovolaemic shock. She was involved in a multiple vehicle accident and has sustained injuries all over her body, including her head, chest, abdomen, and long bones. She is intubated with C-spine control and a large bore subclavian line is inserted for resuscitation. In the ambulance, she received 2 units of packed red cells (PRC) and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP), but she still has a very weak pulse.
      Her initial blood gas shows a pH of 6.9 and resuscitation efforts continue as she is given another 3 units of PRC and 3 units of FFP on the way to the operating theatre. Platelets and cryoprecipitate are also requested. Despite these interventions, her pulse remains weak and the anaesthetist is struggling to place an arterial line for blood pressure monitoring and continued blood sampling. During this time, you observe a change in her electrocardiogram (ECG): it was previously narrow and fast, but is now broad and slowing down.
      What is the most likely explanation for this change in the ECG?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion

      Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion

      In a patient receiving massive transfusion, several factors can affect the electrolyte balance and lead to electrocardiogram (ECG) changes. One of the most critical complications is hyperkalaemia, which can cause tented T waves, widening of the PR and QRS intervals, and ventricular arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. Regular blood gas measurements and monitoring of electrolytes such as calcium and potassium are essential to detect and treat hyperkalaemia promptly. Calcium gluconate/chloride and insulin/50% dextrose can be used to control potassium levels.

      Hypokalaemia is unlikely to occur in this scenario, as massive transfusion and acidaemia tend to raise potassium levels. Hypokalaemia typically causes ECG changes such as prolonged PR interval, prominent U waves, and ST depression, which can progress to supraventricular and ventricular tachycardias.

      Hypocalcaemia can result from chelation by the citrate in stored blood, but it is unlikely to cause the ECG signs described. The most common ECG change associated with hypocalcaemia is prolongation of the QTc interval due to lengthening of the ST segment.

      Coronary artery thrombosis is a possible cause of ECG changes, but it would typically manifest as ST elevation or depression, which is not the case here.

      A severe transfusion reaction can also occur, but it is unlikely to give rise to the ECG changes described. Signs of a transfusion reaction include pyrexia, shortness of breath, bronchospasm, and loss of consciousness, along with tachycardia and hypo- or hypertension.

      In summary, when evaluating ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion, hyperkalaemia should be the primary concern, followed by other electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Regular monitoring and prompt intervention can prevent life-threatening arrhythmias and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      325.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a nightclub altercation...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a nightclub altercation where he was hit on the side of the head with a bottle. His friend reports that he lost consciousness briefly but then regained it before losing consciousness again. The CT head scan upon admission reveals an intracranial haemorrhage. Based on the history, what is the most probable type of intracranial haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Patients who have an intracranial extradural haematoma may go through a period of lucidity where they briefly regain consciousness after the injury before slipping into a coma.

      Extradural haematomas are usually caused by low-impact blunt-force head injuries. Although patients may regain consciousness initially, they may eventually fall into a coma as the haematoma continues to grow.

      On the other hand, acute subdural haematomas are typically caused by high-impact injuries such as severe falls or road traffic accidents. These injuries are often accompanied by diffuse injuries like diffuse axonal injury, and patients are usually comatose from the beginning, without experiencing the lucid interval seen in extradural haematomas.

      Contusions are also a common consequence of traumatic head injury. Over the course of two to three days following a head injury, contusions may expand and swell due to oedema, a process known as blossoming. This process is slower than the neurological deterioration seen in extradural haematomas, which typically occurs within minutes to hours.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with recurring headaches. He reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with recurring headaches. He reports experiencing impotence and a decrease in libido that has progressively worsened over the past year. During visual field examination, a bitemporal hemianopia is observed. Laboratory tests show an elevation in serum prolactin levels, while serum luteinizing hormone (LH) and testosterone are reduced. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with hyperprolactinaemia, headaches, visual field defects, and hypogonadism

      Prolactinoma, idiopathic panhypopituitarism, craniopharyngioma, isolated LH deficiency, and pituitary infarction are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with hyperprolactinaemia, headaches, visual field defects, and hypogonadism. Prolactinomas are the most common functional pituitary tumours and can cause local effects on the optic chiasm and hypothalamus-pituitary-gonadal axis. Idiopathic panhypopituitarism would result in decreased levels of all anterior pituitary hormones, including prolactin. Craniopharyngioma, more common in children and adolescents, can lead to hypopituitarism but rarely causes hyperprolactinaemia. Isolated LH deficiency could explain the loss of libido and decreased plasma levels of LH and testosterone, but not the increase in prolactin or bitemporal hemianopia. Pituitary infarction, such as in Sheehan syndrome, can cause varying degrees of hypopituitarism but not hyperprolactinaemia. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s clinical and laboratory findings, imaging studies, and medical history is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      179.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the correct statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

      Your Answer: The macula densa is a specialised region of the afferent arteriole

      Correct Answer: A fall in pressure in the afferent arteriole promotes renin secretion

      Explanation:

      Renin secretion and the role of the macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

      Renin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells, which are modified smooth muscle cells located in the wall of the afferent arterioles. Renin secretion is stimulated by a fall in renal perfusion pressure, which can be detected by baroreceptors in the afferent arterioles. Additionally, reduced sodium delivery to the macula densa, a specialized region of the distal convoluted tubule, can also stimulate renin production. However, it is important to note that the macula densa itself does not secrete renin. Understanding the mechanisms behind renin secretion can help in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions such as hypertension and kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A senior citizen is referred to the Emergency Department by his General Practitioner,...

    Correct

    • A senior citizen is referred to the Emergency Department by his General Practitioner, feeling generally unwell and with reduced urine output. Bloods tests show: Na+ 128 mmol/l, K+ 7.2 mmol/l, urea 42.6 mmol/l, creatinine 828 μmol/l.
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows widespread tenting of T-waves.
      Which of the following treatments should be given first?

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: Immediate Actions and Treatment Options

      Hyperkalaemia, defined as a serum potassium level greater than 6.5 mmol/l, requires immediate attention to prevent fatal arrhythmias. The first step is to confirm the result with repeat electrolyte testing and administer calcium gluconate or chloride to stabilize cardiac membranes. ECG changes such as peaked/tented T-waves and prolonged PR interval may indicate the need for urgent intervention.

      Insulin and dextrose infusion, along with salbutamol nebulizers, can be used to lower serum potassium levels. Calcium resonium may be used for continued potassium reduction, but it is not effective in acute management.

      It is important to prioritize cardioprotection by administering calcium gluconate first, followed by insulin and dextrose and salbutamol nebulizers as needed. Intravenous saline may be useful in cases of dehydration-related acute kidney injury, but it will not have an immediate effect on significant hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of hyperkalaemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend who...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend who found him confused and drowsy, with his hands over his abdomen. The patient has vomited twice on the way to the hospital and appears to be in pain. An arterial blood gas reveals the following results: pH 7.29 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 17 mmol/L (normal range: 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6kPa), p02 12kPa (normal range: 10-14kPa), and anion gap 20mEq/L (normal range: 10-14mEq/L). Which diagnostic test would provide the quickest indication of the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Blood glucose monitoring (BM)

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      86.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Medicine (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Passmed