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  • Question 1 - What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases?

      Your Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Bone Metastases: Common Tumours, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Bone metastases are a common occurrence in patients with malignant disease, affecting approximately 30% of cases. The most frequent tumours that cause bone metastases are breast, prostate, bronchus, kidney, and thyroid, with breast and prostate cancers accounting for the majority. Symptoms of bone metastases typically include bone pain, the presence of a lump, pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, or cord compression. Pathological fractures occur in about 10% of patients with bone metastases. Radiological changes usually occur late, and bone scintigraphy is the most sensitive diagnostic tool available to detect metastatic spread. Most metastases are osteolytic, but some tumours, such as prostate carcinoma, cause osteosclerotic lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their GP with complaints of worsening breathlessness and symptoms of ptosis and constriction of the pupil. The GP refers them for a chest x-ray, which reveals the presence of an apical mass. What is the term used to describe the cause of this person's condition?

      Your Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Horner’s Syndrome and Pancoast Tumour

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by ptosis and constriction of the pupil. However, in some cases, it can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung that invades the chest wall and brachial plexus. This lady is likely to have a Pancoast tumour as she presents with Horner’s syndrome. On the other hand, Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition where the pupil is larger than normal and slow to react to direct light. Peyronie’s disease is a hardening of the corpora cavernosa of the penis caused by scar tissue, while Pott’s cancer is a scrotal cancer caused by coal tar exposure. Wilms’ tumour, on the other hand, is a malignant tumour of the kidney that usually occurs in childhood.

      In summary, Horner’s syndrome can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung. Other conditions that present differently from Horner’s syndrome include Holmes-Adie syndrome, Peyronie’s disease, Pott’s cancer, and Wilms’ tumour. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man presented with non-specific abdominal discomfort lasting for 8 months. Physical...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presented with non-specific abdominal discomfort lasting for 8 months. Physical examination revealed no lymphadenopathy, abdominal masses or organomegaly, and bowel sounds were present. A stool sample tested negative for occult blood. Imaging with abdominal CT revealed a 22-cm retroperitoneal soft tissue mass that was obstructing the left psoas muscle. What is the most probable neoplasm in this case?

      Your Answer: Liposarcoma

      Explanation:

      Liposarcoma is a type of sarcoma that commonly affects adults in their 40s to 60s. It typically develops in the deep soft tissues of the proximal extremities and retroperitoneum and can grow into large tumors. There are different histological variants of liposarcoma, with varying degrees of malignancy. All types of liposarcoma have a high likelihood of recurring locally unless completely removed.

      Adenocarcinoma is a type of cancer that originates from glandular tissue in organs such as the oesophagus, pancreas, prostate, cervix, stomach, colorectal, and lungs. It does not arise in soft tissues.

      Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur in younger patients and often arises from pre-existing moles. Suspicious signs include changes in size, shape, color, itching, crusting, bleeding, inflammation, or sensory changes. Melanomas can metastasize.

      Hamartoma is a benign neoplasm that consists of normal tissues in a disorganized mass. The most common type is pulmonary hamartoma, which grows at the same rate as surrounding tissue.

      Lymphoma is a type of cancer that results from the malignant proliferation of lymphocytes. It typically presents with lymphadenopathy and constitutional symptoms, and may also involve organs such as the liver and spleen. Matted nodes of this size are unlikely to be caused by lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A child with leukaemia is given etoposide.
    What is the mechanism of action...

    Correct

    • A child with leukaemia is given etoposide.
      What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Topoisomerase II inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy agents can be classified into different categories based on their mechanism of action. Topoisomerase II inhibitors, such as etoposide, prevent the re-ligation of DNA strands by forming a complex with the topoisomerase II enzyme, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. Microtubule inhibitors, like paclitaxel and vinblastine, block the formation of microtubules, which are essential for cell proliferation and signaling, resulting in cell death. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, interfere with DNA replication by attaching an alkyl group to the guanine base of DNA. Antimetabolites, including base analogues, nucleoside analogues, nucleotide analogues, and antifolates, disrupt cell metabolism and inhibit DNA replication and repair. Topoisomerase I inhibitors, like irinotecan and topotecan, inhibit DNA transcription and replication by binding to the topoisomerase I-DNA complex. These chemotherapy agents have various side effects, including bone marrow suppression, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, and allergic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman has a solitary thyroid nodule that is confirmed to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has a solitary thyroid nodule that is confirmed to be a medullary thyroid tumour on histology. Which type of cells secrete the biochemical tumour marker used to monitor for recurrence?

      Your Answer: Follicular cells

      Correct Answer: Parafollicular cells

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Thyroid Cells

      Thyroid cancer can be detected and monitored through the use of tumor markers, which are substances produced by cancer cells. Different types of thyroid cells produce different tumor markers.

      Parafollicular cells, also known as clear cells or C cells, produce calcitonin, which is a tumor marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC). Elevated levels of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of MTC and can also be used to monitor for recurrence after treatment.

      Follicular cells produce thyroglobulin, which is a tumor marker for papillary and follicular thyroid tumors. Monitoring thyroglobulin levels can help detect the presence of these types of thyroid cancer and monitor for recurrence.

      Pericytes, colloid cells, and endothelial cells do not produce any tumor markers and therefore cannot be used for cancer detection or monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her neck....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her neck. She is anxious because her sister was diagnosed with a highly aggressive type of thyroid cancer that is prevalent in older adults and has a poor prognosis. What type of cancer is she talking about?

      Your Answer: Anaplastic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Thyroid Cancer: An Overview

      Thyroid cancer is a relatively rare malignancy that affects the thyroid gland. There are several types of thyroid cancer, each with its own unique characteristics and prognosis. Here is an overview of the most common types of thyroid cancer:

      1. Anaplastic carcinoma: This is a highly aggressive form of thyroid cancer that is typically found in elderly patients. It has a low survival rate and is usually treated palliatively.

      2. Papillary carcinoma: This is the most common type of thyroid cancer and typically affects younger patients. It tends to spread to local lymph nodes but rarely metastasizes via the bloodstream.

      3. Follicular carcinoma: This is the second most common type of thyroid cancer and is more aggressive than papillary carcinoma. It tends to spread via the bloodstream.

      4. Medullary carcinoma: This type of thyroid cancer originates from thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. It produces calcitonin, which is used as a tumor marker.

      5. Thyroid lymphoma: This is a rare type of thyroid cancer that is almost always a non-Hodgkin’s B-cell lymphoma. It is treated as a lymphoma rather than a thyroid cancer.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. If you have concerns about your thyroid health, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe mouth pain. On examination, you see white plaques over his tongue.
      Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Nystatin mouthwash for 10 days

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole for 7–14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Oral Candida Infection During Chemotherapy

      During chemotherapy, patients may experience immunosuppression, which can lead to oral candida infection. There are several treatment options available for this condition, including oral fluconazole, nystatin mouthwash, and oral mycafungin. However, the most appropriate choice for mild to moderate oral candida infection is oral fluconazole, as it is more likely to prevent or delay recurrence than nystatin. Intravenous amphotericin B and oral voriconazole are not recommended for this condition, as they are used for systemic fungal infections and other types of fungal infections, respectively. It is important for healthcare providers to consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting a treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell, with fever...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell, with fever and a cough. She had chemotherapy for her breast cancer 4 days ago. There are no known drug allergies. On examination:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Blood pressure (BP) 108/70 < 120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate (HR) 101 60–100 beats/min
      Respiratory rate (RR) 26 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      Temperature 38.7ºC 36.1–37.2°C
      There is some scattered crepitations at the right lung base. You check on the system and see that bloods were done 2 days ago, and showed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 120 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 3.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next-step management?

      Your Answer: Start IV piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

      Explanation:

      Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Post-Chemotherapy Patient

      When a patient presents with neutropenic sepsis post-chemotherapy, it is crucial to start a broad-spectrum antibiotic immediately, without waiting for blood results or investigations. Tazocin is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE, but local hospital guidelines should be consulted if there is a known penicillin allergy. The Sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated promptly, and antibiotics should be administered within an hour of presentation. Once the patient is stabilized, an urgent chest X-ray can be performed. While granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) administration may have a role in selected patients, it is not routinely used in neutropenic sepsis. Consultation with the haematology team is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      39.8
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  • Question 9 - A 66-year-old smoker visits his GP complaining of a persistent cough, difficulty breathing,...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old smoker visits his GP complaining of a persistent cough, difficulty breathing, weight loss (5 kg), and night sweats that have been going on for 8 months. An urgent chest X-ray is ordered, which reveals multiple well-defined central opacities. A blood test shows the following abnormality:
      calcium: 3.7 mmol/l (2.1–2.6 mmol/l).
      What type of lung cancer is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Cancer Types Based on CXR Findings and Hypercalcemia

      When examining a patient with lung cancer and hypercalcemia, the CXR findings can help narrow down the potential types of cancer. Central opacities make adenocarcinoma and bronchoalveolar cancer less likely, as they typically present in the peripheral lung fields and with extensive widespread opacities, respectively. Squamous cell carcinoma is a possible culprit, as it is known to produce parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP), which can cause hypercalcemia. Small-cell cancer is known for producing ADH and ACTH, not PTHrP. Large-cell cancer is unlikely to produce PTHrP, and adenocarcinoma usually presents peripherally and is unlikely to produce PTHrP. Therefore, considering CXR findings and hypercalcemia can aid in differentiating between lung cancer types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      18.7
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  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man undergoing chemo-radiotherapy treatment for prostate cancer complains of poor appetite...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man undergoing chemo-radiotherapy treatment for prostate cancer complains of poor appetite and nausea secondary to his treatment. He is finding it difficult to cope with his illness and has become depressed.
      Which of the following may be the most suitable appetite stimulant for him?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Appetite Stimulation and Mood Improvement in a Patient with Anorexia

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant that can also stimulate appetite, making it a suitable option for a patient with anorexia who needs both mood improvement and increased food intake. Dexamethasone can also be used to boost appetite in the short term. However, metoclopramide is not effective for mood improvement and would require dual therapy with another medication. Megestrol, a progestin, is indicated for anorexia, cachexia, or significant weight loss, but it does not address mood issues. Trazodone, on the other hand, is an antidepressant but may not be the first choice for a patient with anorexia as it can cause weight loss and anorexia as side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Oncology (8/10) 80%
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