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  • Question 1 - A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. During examination, the GP discovers that the patient has atrial fibrillation. If the patient continues to have chronic atrial fibrillation, what is the most appropriate type of anticoagulation to use?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in patients with AF, DOACs should be the first option. In the case of this patient, her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3, with 2 points for the transient ischaemic attack and 1 point for being female. Therefore, it is recommended that she be given anticoagulation treatment with DOACs, which are now preferred over warfarin.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      149.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a past medical history of hypertension, migraine, and obesity (BMI is 38). Currently, he takes metformin 1 g BD and ramipril 5 mg OD for blood pressure control. His latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol, and his total cholesterol is 5.2 with an LDL cholesterol of 3.5. His QRisk2 score is 21%.

      During the consultation, you discuss the addition of lipid-lowering medication to reduce his cardiovascular risk, especially in light of his recently treated hypertension. You both agree that starting him on Atorvastatin 20 mg at night is an appropriate treatment for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      Before prescribing the medication, you review his latest blood results, which show normal full blood count, renal function, and thyroid function. However, his liver function tests reveal an ALT of 106 IU/L (<60) and an ALP of 169 IU/L (20-200). Bilirubin levels are within normal limits.

      Upon further investigation, you discover that the ALT rise has persisted since his first blood tests at the surgery over four years ago. However, the liver function results have remained stable over this time, showing no significant variation from the current values. A liver ultrasound done two years ago reports some evidence of fatty infiltration only.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Statin treatment is not contraindicated but in view of the liver function abnormalities ezetimibe should be used in preference to lipid-lowering therapy

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg nocte can be initiated and repeat liver function tests should be performed within the first three months of use

      Explanation:

      Liver Function and Statin Therapy

      Liver function should be assessed before starting statin therapy. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can be used. It is important to repeat liver function tests within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months, as well as if a dose increase is made or if clinically indicated.

      In the case of a modest ALT elevation due to fatty deposition in the liver, statin therapy can still be beneficial for primary prevention, especially if the patient’s Qrisk2 score is over 10%. Mild derangement in liver function is not uncommon in overweight type 2 diabetics. The patient can be treated with the usual NICE-guided primary prevention dose of atorvastatin, which is 20 mg nocte. A higher dose or alternative statin may be required in the future, depending on the patient’s response to the initial treatment and lifestyle modifications. The slight ALT rise doesn’t necessarily require a lower statin dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      343.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine check-up. He reports having noticed some irregularity in his pulse for a few weeks. What is the appropriate management for him?

      Your Answer: Verapamil can be added to the ß-blocker if rate control is inadequate

      Correct Answer: ß-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment

      Explanation:

      Rate Control vs Rhythm Control in Atrial Fibrillation: Recent Trials and Treatment Guidelines

      Recent trials have confirmed that for most patients with atrial fibrillation, rate control is superior to rhythm control in terms of survival benefit. However, DC cardioversion may be considered for new onset and younger patients. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend first-line therapy with ß-blockers or rate-limiting calcium antagonists, or digoxin if these are not tolerated. Verapamil should not be used in combination with a ß-blocker. These guidelines provide a framework for the management of atrial fibrillation and can help clinicians make informed treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      65.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Digoxin in Congestive Heart Failure Treatment

      Digoxin, a medication commonly used in the past for congestive heart failure, has lost its popularity due to the lack of demonstrated mortality benefit in patients with this condition. However, it has shown a reduction in hospitalizations for congestive heart failure. Therefore, it is recommended to maximize the use of other therapies such as ACE inhibitors, β blockers, and spironolactone before considering digoxin. If the ACE inhibitor cannot be tolerated, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist like candesartan can be used as an alternative. Digoxin should only be considered as a third-line treatment for severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after first- and second-line treatments have been exhausted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs may...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Pharmaceutical Treatments for Heart Failure: A Summary

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. There are several pharmaceutical treatments available, each with its own benefits and limitations. Here is a summary of some of the most commonly used drugs:

      Enalapril: This drug blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to improved cardiac output and reduced hospitalization rates.

      Digoxin: While this drug doesn’t improve mortality rates, it can be useful in managing symptoms.

      Amlodipine: This drug has not been shown to improve survival rates, but may be used in conjunction with other medications.

      Aspirin: This drug is only useful in cases of coronary occlusion or myocardial infarction.

      Furosemide: This drug can relieve congestive symptoms, but is not relevant for all heart failure patients.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started while he was mowing the lawn but subsided after he drank a glass of cold lemonade. However, his symptoms have returned. On physical examination, his pulse is regular and measures 150 bpm. An ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with P waves linked to each QRS complex.
      What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular (AV) nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia from Other Arrhythmias: An ECG Analysis

      AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is a type of arrhythmia that causes recurrent palpitations lasting for minutes to hours. Patients may also experience chest pain, shortness of breath, and syncope. The heart rate is usually between 150-250 bpm, and the rhythm is regular with narrow QRS complexes. Vagal manoeuvres can terminate the episode. However, it is essential to differentiate AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, torsades de pointes, and ventricular tachycardia. An ECG analysis can help in this regard.

      Atrial fibrillation is characterised by irregular ventricular complexes with an absence of P waves. In contrast, atrial flutter shows a saw-tooth pattern with the absence of P waves. Torsades de pointes is a rare form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that causes a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. It is associated with a prolonged QT interval. Ventricular tachycardia, on the other hand, is characterised by broad complexes on ECG.

      In conclusion, an ECG analysis is crucial in differentiating AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias. It helps in providing accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment to the patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit registration medical.

      He is completely asymptomatic but his blood pressure measures 150/95 mmHg, then 148/90 mmHg and 155/98 mmHg on two further visits a few weeks apart. He is not taking any medication currently.

      What is the next best treatment option for this gentleman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Organise a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Blood Pressure Monitoring

      The latest NICE guidelines recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) before starting therapy, except for patients with severe hypertension (BP 180/120 mmHg). If the clinic blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, ABPM should be offered to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. When using ABPM to confirm hypertension, it is important to take at least two measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours (e.g., between 08:00 and 22:00). To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, the average value of at least 14 measurements taken during the person’s usual waking hours should be used. These guidelines aim to improve the accuracy of hypertension diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks ago. She needs to have a dental filling.

      Which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antibiotic Prophylaxis for High-Risk Patients

      NICE has released new guidance regarding the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients. The guidance acknowledges that patients with pre-existing cardiac lesions are at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis (IE). However, NICE has concluded that clinical and cost-effectiveness evidence supports the recommendation that at-risk patients undergoing interventional procedures should no longer be given antibiotic prophylaxis against IE.

      It is important to note that antibiotic therapy is still necessary to treat active or potential infections. The current antibiotic prophylaxis regimens may even result in a net loss of life. Therefore, it is crucial to identify patient groups who may be most at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis so that prompt investigation and treatment can be undertaken. However, offering antibiotic prophylaxis for these patients during dental procedures is not considered effective. This new guidance marks a paradigm shift from current accepted practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits her GP after experiencing a 10-minute episode where she couldn't move her left arm. Her arm function has since returned to normal and her neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most accurate diagnosis for Sophie based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurological dysfunction caused by a transient episode of brain ischaemia

      Explanation:

      The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on the affected tissue rather than the duration of symptoms. It is now defined as a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from restricted blood flow to the brain, spinal cord, or retina, without causing acute tissue damage. An ischaemic stroke, on the other hand, is characterized by neurological dysfunction caused by cerebral infarction, while multiple sclerosis is defined by neurological dysfunction caused by demyelination. Finally, a functional neurological disorder is characterized by transient symptoms of psychological origin.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling his heart skip a beat regularly but denies any other symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, chest pain, or fainting.

      Upon examination, his chest is clear and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral edema. His blood pressure is 126/64 mmHg and his ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves and a heart rate of 82/min.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessment using ORBIT bleeding risk tool and CHA2DS2-VASc tool

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct an assessment using both the CHA2DS2-VASc tool and the ORBIT bleeding risk tool. This applies to all patients with atrial fibrillation, according to current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, the option to commence on apixaban and bisoprolol is not correct.

      The patient’s symptoms and ECG findings indicate atrial fibrillation, but there is no indication for a 24-hour ECG. Therefore, referral for a 24-hour ECG and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not necessary.

      As there are no signs or symptoms of heart failure and no evidence of valvular heart disease on examination, referral for an echocardiogram and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not the appropriate option.

      The patient is currently haemodynamically stable.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.

      What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old man with controlled angina complains that he is experiencing nightmares, constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man with controlled angina complains that he is experiencing nightmares, constant fatigue, and impotence. Upon reviewing his medication, you note that he is taking ramipril, isosorbide mononitrate, atenolol, and simvastatin.
      What is the most suitable approach to managing this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce the atenolol dosage and arrange to review him in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Beta Blockers and Other Medications

      Beta blockers are known to cause a range of side effects, including erectile dysfunction, nightmares, and reduced exercise capacity. In some cases, they can even trigger bronchospasm or heart failure. Patients on beta blockers may also experience depression, although this typically resolves once the medication is discontinued.

      Simvastatin, another commonly prescribed medication, can cause sleep dysfunction and erectile problems. However, in the case of this patient, it is more likely that the beta blocker is responsible for these symptoms.

      Ramipril, yet another medication, can cause a dry cough. While it may be worth trying an angiotensin II-receptor antagonist in some cases, it would not be effective in addressing the symptoms experienced by this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 13 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce all cause mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statins

      Explanation:

      Lipid Management in Primary Care

      Lipid management is a common scenario in primary care, and NICE has produced guidance on Lipid modification (CG181) in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The use of statins in primary prevention is supported by clinical trial data, with WOSCOPS (The West of Scotland Coronary Prevention Study) being a landmark trial. This study looked at statin versus placebo in men aged 45-65 with no coronary disease and a cholesterol >4 mmol/L, showing a reduction in all-cause mortality by 22% in the statin arm for a 20% total cholesterol reduction.

      Other study data also supports the use of statins as primary prevention of coronary artery disease. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on lipid modification – CVD prevention recommends Atorvastatin at 20 mg for primary prevention and 80 mg for secondary prevention. Risk is assessed using the QRISK2 calculator. Overall, lipid management is an important aspect of primary care, and healthcare professionals should be familiar with the latest guidance and clinical trial data to provide optimal care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical assessment you decide to treat him with a course of antibiotics. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes lifelong warfarin. His notes state he is penicillin allergic and the patient confirms a history of a true allergy.

      You decide to prescribe a course of doxycycline, 200 mg on day 1 then 100 mg daily to complete a 14 day course.

      You can see his INR is very well managed and is consistently between 2.0 and 3.0 and he has been taking 3 mg and 4 mg on alternate days for the last six months without the need for any dose changes.

      What is the most appropriate management of his warfarin therapy during the treatment of this acute exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check his INR three to five days after starting the doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Managing Warfarin Patients on Antibiotics

      When a patient on warfarin requires antibiotics, it is a common clinical scenario that requires careful management. While there is no need to stop warfarin or switch to aspirin, it is important to monitor the patient’s INR levels closely. Typically, extra INR monitoring should be performed three to five days after starting the antibiotics to check for any potential impact on the INR. If necessary, a dosing change for warfarin may be needed.

      According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology Guidelines for oral anticoagulation with warfarin (2011), it is important to follow specific recommendations for INR testing when a potential drug interaction occurs. By carefully monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosing as needed, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment for patients on warfarin who require antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.

      On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness of breath on exertion. You suspect left ventricular failure. Identify the single test that, if normal, would make the diagnosis of heart failure highly unlikely.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ECG

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Heart Failure: Importance of ECG and Natriuretic Peptides

      When a patient is suspected of having heart failure, several investigations are recommended to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and blood glucose, are typically performed. However, the results of these tests alone are not sufficient to diagnose heart failure.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is also commonly performed, although its predictive value for heart failure is limited. A normal ECG can make left ventricular systolic dysfunction unlikely, with a negative predictive value of 98%. On the other hand, an abnormal ECG may indicate the need for further testing, such as echocardiography.

      Serum natriuretic peptides, which are released by the heart in response to increased pressure or volume, can also be helpful in diagnosing heart failure. If these levels are normal, the diagnosis of heart failure is less likely. However, this test is not always available or necessary in the initial investigation.

      A chest x-ray can provide supportive evidence for heart failure and rule out other potential causes of breathlessness. It is important to note that oxygen saturation may be normal in heart failure, so this alone cannot be used to rule out the condition.

      Echocardiography is the gold standard for diagnosing heart failure and determining the underlying cause. It is recommended in patients who have either a raised natriuretic peptide level or an abnormal ECG. By providing detailed images of the heart’s structure and function, echocardiography can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

      In summary, a combination of tests is necessary to diagnose heart failure and determine the best course of treatment. The ECG and natriuretic peptides can provide important clues, but echocardiography is essential for confirming the diagnosis and identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of pain and swelling in her left lower leg. She denies any recent injury.

      Upon examination, you observe that her left calf is swollen and red, measuring 3 cm larger in diameter than the right side. She experiences localised tenderness along the deep venous system.

      Based on your clinical assessment, you suspect a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and order blood tests, which reveal a D-Dimer level of 900 ng/mL (< 400).

      You initiate treatment with therapeutic doses of apixaban and schedule a proximal leg ultrasound for the next day.

      However, the ultrasound doesn't detect any evidence of a proximal leg DVT.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop apixaban and repeat ultrasound in 7 days

      Explanation:

      Most isolated calf DVTs do not require treatment and resolve on their own, but in some cases, the clot may extend into the proximal veins and require medical intervention.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman has started to experience episodes of pallor in the distal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has started to experience episodes of pallor in the distal parts of the middle three digits of her hands. A feeling of pain and numbness and cyanosis follows this. Finally, the digits become red and feel warm. This first occurred around six months ago.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive that these symptoms occur secondary to an underlying disorder, rather than occurring in isolation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her age

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Primary Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition characterized by recurrent vasospasm of the fingers and toes, typically triggered by stress or cold exposure. Here are some key characteristics that can help distinguish primary Raynaud’s phenomenon from secondary disease:

      Age of onset: Symptoms that develop before age 30 are more likely to be primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while later onset may suggest an underlying autoimmune disorder.

      Gender: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is more common in females than males.

      Digital ulceration: Absence of digital ulceration is more likely to indicate primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while secondary disease is associated with more severe symptoms.

      Antinuclear antibody: The presence of an antinuclear antibody may suggest an underlying condition, while its absence is more associated with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Symmetry: Symmetrical involvement of digits is more indicative of primary Raynaud’s phenomenon and the absence of an underlying disorder.

      By considering these characteristics, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage patients with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of cardiogenic syncope. During the syncope episodes, ECG monitoring revealed that he had a sustained ventricular arrhythmia. He has opted for an elective ICD insertion and seeks your guidance on driving. He is employed as a software programmer in a business park located approximately 10 miles outside the town center, and he typically commutes to and from work by car. What are the DVLA regulations concerning driving after an ICD implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No driving for 6 months

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has stringent rules in place for individuals with ICDs. They are prohibited from driving a group 1 vehicle for a period of 6 months following the insertion of an ICD or after experiencing an ICD shock. Furthermore, they are permanently disqualified from obtaining a group 2 HGV license.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is generally in good health, but experiences occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground. He continues to smoke five cigarettes per day. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological examination is normal, and his fundi appear normal. Examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent foot pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He was started on antihypertensive therapy, and his U+Es were measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This man has diabetes and hypertension, along with mild symptoms of claudication and absent foot pulses, indicating arteriopathy. These factors suggest a diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS), which can cause macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment.

      When an antihypertensive medication was introduced, the patient’s renal function deteriorated, indicating that the drug was an ACE inhibitor. This is because hypertension in RAS is caused by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system trying to maintain renal perfusion. Inhibiting this system with ACE inhibitors can result in relative renal ischemia, leading to further deterioration of renal function.

      In summary, patients with diabetes and hypertension who present with arteriopathy symptoms should be evaluated for RAS. The use of ACE inhibitors in these patients should be carefully monitored, as it can exacerbate renal impairment.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic blood pressure reading of 148/92 mmHg. His GP requests ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. The average ABPM is found to be 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. Urine dip is negative. His BMI is 35 kg/m². Appropriate further management in this case would be to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      For individuals under the age of 40 who have stage 1 hypertension and no signs of target organ damage, NICE suggests referring them to rule out secondary causes of hypertension. It is recommended to conduct a thorough evaluation of potential target organ damage in this age group as risk assessments may not accurately predict the lifetime risk of cardiovascular events.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic with a complaint of intermittent swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic with a complaint of intermittent swelling of her tongue and face that has been occurring for the past ten weeks. The episodes last for 36 hours and then resolve on their own. She has tried taking oral antihistamines but they did not help. Her medical history is significant for hypertension which was diagnosed and treated with appropriate medications six months ago. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What medication is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      ACE Inhibitors and Angioedema

      ACE inhibitors are medications that can lead to the development of angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling in various parts of the body. This is because ACE inhibitors block the action of the ACE enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down bradykinin. When bradykinin accumulates in the body, it causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the interstitium. This can result in rapid swelling, particularly in areas with less connective tissue, such as the face.

      Interestingly, ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema appears to be more common in African-American individuals. If angioedema occurs, the medication should be discontinued immediately and an alternative treatment should be sought. One option is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, which works similarly to ACE inhibitors but doesn’t affect bradykinin levels. It is important to monitor patients closely for signs of angioedema when prescribing ACE inhibitors, particularly in those with a history of the condition.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin, ramipril and bisoprolol upon discharge. After a month, he experiences some muscle aches and undergoes routine blood tests at the clinic. His serum creatine kinase (CK) activity is found to be 650 u/l (normal range 30–300 u/l). What is the probable reason for the elevated CK levels in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Effect of statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Elevated CK Levels in a Post-MI Patient on Statin Therapy

      When a patient complains of symptoms while on statin therapy, it is reasonable to check their CK levels. An elevated level suggests statin-induced myopathy, and the statin should be discontinued. However, if the patient doesn’t complain of further chest pain suggestive of another MI, CK is no longer routinely measured as a cardiac marker. Heavy exercise should also be avoided, and CK levels usually return to baseline within 72 hours post-MI. While undiagnosed hypothyroidism can cause a rise in CK, it is less likely than statin-induced myopathy, and other clinical features of hypothyroidism are not mentioned in the scenario.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents for a follow-up appointment. She recently experienced a transient ischemic attack and is currently taking bendroflumethiazide for hypertension. Her blood pressure at the appointment is 130/80 mmHg. As you discuss management options to decrease her risk of future strokes, what is her CHA2DS2-VASc score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman is visiting the clinic several months after experiencing a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is visiting the clinic several months after experiencing a heart attack. She has been prescribed medications to lower her risk of cardiovascular disease and has made dietary changes to promote healthy living. However, she has recently reported experiencing muscle aches and pains and her CK levels are elevated. Which of the following foods or substances may have contributed to the increased risk of statin-related myotoxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranberry juice

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Fruit Juices and Supplements

      Grapefruit juice can significantly increase the serum concentrations of certain statins by reducing their first-pass metabolism in the small intestine through the inhibition of CYP3A4. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming large amounts of grapefruit juice while taking atorvastatin or to adjust the dosage accordingly. CYP3A4 is a member of the cytochrome P450 system.

      On the other hand, while an interaction between cranberry juice and warfarin has been recognized, there have been no reported interactions with other drugs metabolized via the P450 system. Additionally, there have been no known interactions between statins, carrot juice, garlic, or omega-3 fish oils. However, it is important to note that according to NICE CG172, patients should no longer be advised to take omega-3 supplements to prevent another MI.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has a medical history of hypothyroidism, asthma, and high cholesterol. He reports feeling well, and his QRISK score is calculated at 11%.

      The patient is currently taking levothyroxine, atorvastatin, lercanidipine, beclomethasone, and salbutamol. He has no known allergies.

      After taking three readings, his blood pressure averages at 146/92 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addition of losartan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s current therapy doesn’t affect the treatment decision, but an additional medication from either the ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker class is recommended to control their blood pressure. According to updated guidelines from 2019, a thiazide-like diuretic may also be used. As losartan is the only medication from these classes, it is the correct choice. Bisoprolol, doxazosin, and spironolactone are typically reserved for cases of resistant hypertension that do not respond to combinations of a calcium channel blocker, a thiazide-like diuretic, and an ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Since the patient is only on a single therapy, adding any of these options is not currently indicated. Choosing to make no changes to the medication is incorrect, as the patient’s blood pressure remains above the target range of 140/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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