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  • Question 1 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Correct

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer: Renal Medulla

      Correct Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The substructures of the nephrons are mainly located within the cortex. The JGA sits next to the glomerulus in the cortex (click on the magnifying glass of the image to see the arrangement). They play an important role in blood pressure homeostasis as the juxtaglomerular cells produce renin. The descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle and collecting ducts have sections within both the cortex and medulla

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which facultative anaerobic bacteria is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common infection of the vagina caused by the overgrowth of atypical bacteria, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis, a gram indeterminate bacteria, which is also a facultative anaerobe. Patients often complain of foul-smelling fishy discharge and dysuria. In diagnosing BV, a swab is taken for microscopy, often revealing clue cells. Of the other organisms listed in the options, Neisseria is an obligate anaerobe, while Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular aerobe. Treponema Pallidum is an aerophilic bacteria and Mycoplasma hominis is a pleomorphic parasitic bacterium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur? ...

    Correct

    • In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?

      Your Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male...

    Correct

    • If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male offspring having beta thalassemia major?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      This is not an X-linked condition so the sex of the child makes no difference to the inheritance. Any child will have a 1 in 4 chance of having beta thalassaemia major.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Methyldopa (Aldomet)

      Correct Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)

      Explanation:

      Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.

      Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term. Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications. She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour. What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?

      Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.

      Explanation:

      In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.

      However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.

      A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.

      CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.

      Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.

      Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already. Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D

      Correct Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The second stage of labour involves: ...

    Correct

    • The second stage of labour involves:

      Your Answer: Expulsion of the foetus

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour is having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know...

    Correct

    • A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know how long it will take for her wound to completely heal. How much time does it take for healing by primary intention to reach full tensile strength?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Wound healing typically undergoes different stages that include haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation and remodelling. The phases are often shortened when healing occurs by primary intention such as in a surgical wound. Remodelling, which is the major strengthening phase, takes about 3 weeks, while it takes a total of 12 weeks to reach maximum tensile strength.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old lady complained of pelvic pain for three months. A tumour in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady complained of pelvic pain for three months. A tumour in her right iliac fossa was discovered during an examination. An ovarian cyst measuring 8 cm x 12 cm is visible on ultrasonography. What is the next management step?

      Your Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist

      Explanation:

      Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
      In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.

      Premenopausal women with asymptomatic simple cysts smaller than 8cm on sonograms in whom the CA125 value is within the reference range may be monitored, with a repeat ultrasonographic examination in 8-12 weeks.

      Persistent simple ovarian cysts larger than 5-10 cm, especially if symptomatic, and complex ovarian cysts should be considered for surgical removal.

      For this patient, a premenopausal woman, with an ovarian cyst size 8 cm x 12cm. Surgical management is indicated, hence referral to gynaecologist is appropriate.

      Laparotomy or laparoscopic excision of cyst should be considered and performed by the gynaecologist not general practitioner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic with yellow, frothy vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. Trichomoniasis is confirmed after microscopy on a wet smear. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg TDS 7 days

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour.

      For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy.

      The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The amniotic fluid volume progressively increases during pregnancy. At which of the following...

    Correct

    • The amniotic fluid volume progressively increases during pregnancy. At which of the following gestational ages will amniotic fluid volume reach a maximum?

      Your Answer: 35 weeks

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid volume begins to increase rapidly in the second and third trimester as the fetal kidneys continue to develop. By 35 weeks gestation the amniotic fluid volume reaches a maximum average of about 800 ml after which it decreases slightly to term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except:

      Your Answer: Moderate bleeding

      Explanation:

      Normal labour is characterized by spontaneous onset, rhythmical uterine contractions along with vertex presentation. Cervical dilatation starts from the 1st stage of labour and intensity of the uterine contractions increases with passing time. Bleeding occurs after the child is expelled and the average loss is about 250-500 ml in a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick...

    Correct

    • A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is defined as hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week. Significant proteinuria = urinary protein: creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You see a diabetic women in preconception clinic. Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • You see a diabetic women in preconception clinic. Which of the following is appropriate advice regarding folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: 5 mg daily until week 12

      Explanation:

      The aim of pre-pregnancy counselling is to achieve the best possible glycaemic control before pregnancy and to educate diabetic women about the implications of pregnancy. Patient information leaflets about pregnancy should make clear the risks of pregnancy in diabetes, and include advice to take high dose (5 mg) folic acid pre-conception and for the first 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has...

    Correct

    • A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - CTG showing early decelerations is : ...

    Incorrect

    • CTG showing early decelerations is :

      Your Answer: A decrease in the fetal heart beat that peaks after the peak of uterine contraction

      Correct Answer: From increased vagal tone secondary to head compression

      Explanation:

      Early decelerations: a result of increased vagal tone due to compression of the fetal head during contractions. Monitoring usually shows a symmetrical, gradual decrease and return to baseline of FHR, which is associated with a uterine contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: A blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
      Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
      Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Correct

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      GI Tract initially forms via gastrulation from the endoderm of the trilaminar embryo around week 3. It extends from the buccopharyngeal membrane to the cloacal membrane. Later in development there are contributions from all three germ cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 42 year old smoker attends clinic due to vulval soreness and shows...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old smoker attends clinic due to vulval soreness and shows you a number of vulval lumps. Biopsy is taken and reported as showing

      Your Answer: Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN)

      Explanation:

      This is VIN. Smoking is a risk factor. It is also more common in immunocompromised patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health. Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Continue the same OCP, but start her on antihypertensive medications

      Correct Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)

      Explanation:

      The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.

      Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her symptoms started after laparoscopicfilshie clip sterilization was performed 3 years ago. She has three children aged eleven, seven, and six years. Her periods used to last 10 days before she was sterilized because she didn't use any form of contraception. Her periods lasted only four days when she was on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP), which was the case right before the sterilization. At the time of sterilization, a hysteroscopic check revealed a normal uterine cavity, and no abnormalities were found during the laparoscopic surgery. Which of the following would be the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

      Explanation:

      Although a dilatation and curettage (D&C) is frequently recommended as part of a woman’s menorrhagia examination.
      D&C is not indicated in a woman who had a normal hysteroscopy and laparoscopy only two years ago, and who experienced comparable symptoms when not taking the OCP in the past, especially after the age of 40.
      The Filshie clips should not be removed because they will not improve the symptoms.

      Although an endometrial ablation or possibly a hysterectomy may be required in the future to address the symptoms, the first line of treatment should be a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which will reduce the loss in up to half of the women treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding threatened abortion: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding threatened abortion:

      Your Answer: Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer: S2,S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding amniotic fluid volume: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding amniotic fluid volume:

      Your Answer: Maybe predicted by ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid can be measured with the help of ultrasound to gauge the amniotic fluid index. The normal value ranges between 8-18.
      Amniocentesis is a procedure by which amniotic fluid is removed. In rhesus disease, it appears yellow due to raised bilirubin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice regarding contraception in view of wanting to start being sexually active. Which contraceptive option would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: An intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).

      Correct Answer: The OCP and a condom.

      Explanation:

      This patient should be advised to use both an OCP and a condom. The combined oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to be very effective. However, she should be made aware that it would not provide any protection from any sexually transmitted diseases so she might still be at risk of developing a STD, depending on her sexual partner preferences. To ensure protection from STDs, she should be advised to use both condoms as well as the combined OCP. An IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) would not be preferable if she has multiple sexual partners (high risk of STDs). If she has been screened for STDs, does not actively have an STD and has only one sexual partner then IUCD is a possible option. Some issues that may arise with spermicide use could be related to compliance. This also applies to using condoms alone. These two options are less reliable as compared to COCP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.

      E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid. On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix. In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound? ...

    Correct

    • What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 3.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      4.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Obstetrics (4/8) 50%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Gynaecology (2/4) 50%
Clinical Management (5/5) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Passmed