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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and unexplained weight gain. During the physical examination, a diffuse, painless goitre is observed. The following blood tests are conducted:
TSH 15.1 mU/l
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
ESR 14 mm/hr
Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies Negative
Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies Positive
Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks ago. She needs to have a dental filling.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antibiotic Prophylaxis for High-Risk Patients
NICE has released new guidance regarding the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients. The guidance acknowledges that patients with pre-existing cardiac lesions are at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis (IE). However, NICE has concluded that clinical and cost-effectiveness evidence supports the recommendation that at-risk patients undergoing interventional procedures should no longer be given antibiotic prophylaxis against IE.
It is important to note that antibiotic therapy is still necessary to treat active or potential infections. The current antibiotic prophylaxis regimens may even result in a net loss of life. Therefore, it is crucial to identify patient groups who may be most at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis so that prompt investigation and treatment can be undertaken. However, offering antibiotic prophylaxis for these patients during dental procedures is not considered effective. This new guidance marks a paradigm shift from current accepted practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped breastfeeding her youngest child one week ago. She has a history of mastitis during breastfeeding her older children. On examination, a non-tender lump is found in the left breast at the three o'clock position, 4 cm away from the nipple. The skin overlying the lump appears unaffected. Her vital signs are as follows:
Heart rate: 88, respiratory rate: 12, blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg, Oxygen saturation: 98%, Temperature: 37.4 Cº.
What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?Your Answer: Galactocele, ultrasound imaging
Correct Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary
Explanation:Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation. Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a common risk factor for both conditions. However, galactoceles are typically painless and non-tender on examination, with no signs of infection, while breast abscesses are usually associated with local or systemic signs of infection. Although the patient’s history of mastitis raises suspicion for a breast abscess, the absence of tenderness, erythema, and fever strongly suggests a galactocele in this case.
Understanding Galactocele
Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and doesn’t cause any local or systemic signs of infection.
In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and doesn’t require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A toddler has had a seizure. He has been unwell for a few hours and has a temperature of 38.2°C. There are no concerning features in his previous medical history.
Which of the following is most compatible with a diagnosis of ‘simple febrile seizure’?Your Answer: A seizure lasting longer than 15 minutes
Correct Answer: Age of child 18 months
Explanation:Febrile seizures are most common in children between 6 months and 6 years old, with the highest incidence at 18 months. They are associated with fever and affect 2-4% of European children. While tonic-clonic movements are typical during febrile seizures, complex febrile seizures may present with focal or myoclonic features. If a seizure lasts longer than 15 minutes, it is considered complex and may require hospitalization. Signs of meningeal irritation, such as neck stiffness and Kernig’s sign, suggest a possible CNS infection and require further evaluation. Recurrence of seizures within 24 hours or during the same illness may indicate a complex febrile seizure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient has just been prescribed clozapine by his psychiatrist for his treatment-resistant schizophrenia. As he has not responded to conventional antipsychotic drugs in the past, he started taking clozapine last week. As his primary care physician, what additional monitoring should be done for this patient?
Your Answer: Full blood count fortnightly for 18 weeks
Correct Answer: Full blood count once a week for 18 weeks
Explanation:The need for weekly full blood counts for the first 18 weeks, followed by fortnightly checks for up to a year, and then monthly monitoring is necessary for clozapine due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, the other choices are inaccurate.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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During an injury involving valgus displacement and external rotation of the knee, which ligament is most commonly torn?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial collateral
Explanation:Common Knee Injuries and Diagnostic Tests
Knee injuries are common among young athletes participating in sports that involve aggressive knee flexion. Of all knee injuries, those to the medial side are the most frequent. Symptoms include pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the knee joint, instability with side-to-side movement, and tenderness along the course of the medial collateral ligament. Medial collateral ligament injuries often occur in association with cruciate and meniscal injuries, which should be excluded.
The valgus stress test is a diagnostic test used to measure the amount of joint-line opening of the medial compartment of the knee when a valgus stress is applied at the ankle. A proficient tester may be able to quantify the amount of joint-line opening to determine the severity of the tear of the medial collateral complex of ligaments.
Other knee injuries include anterior cruciate, lateral collateral, patellar, and posterior cruciate injuries. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries are most often a result of low-velocity, non-contact deceleration injuries and contact injuries with a rotational component. Lateral collateral ligament injuries may be due to a direct blow to the medial aspect of the knee or a varus stress. Patellar tendon ruptures are relatively infrequent and often the result of chronic tendon degeneration or sudden contraction of the quadriceps. Posterior cruciate injuries are most often due to hyperflexion, such as from a fall on a flexed knee or a car accident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on the pneumococcal vaccination. As per the current NICE CKS guidance, what would be your recommendation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise the patient she needs the pneumococcal vaccination every 5-years
Explanation:It is important to note that sickle cell patients require the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years, as per current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, advising them that they do not need this vaccination would be incorrect. This is because sickle cell patients, along with those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, and chronic renal disease, are likely to experience a rapid decline in antibody concentration. In contrast, patients with conditions such as chronic respiratory disease or diabetes mellitus may only require vaccination once in their lifetime.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old lady presents to your clinic for a check-up after recently joining the practice. She visited a colleague two weeks ago for a painful right hip and was prescribed Diclofenac for possible osteoarthritis.
Her repeat prescriptions include Sertraline 50 mg OD, which she has been taking for three months and is very satisfied with the response, Metformin 500 mg BD, Ramipril 5 mg OD, and Simvastatin 40 mg OD. Her HbA1c level is 51 mmol/mol.
When reviewing her medication, what would be the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase her dose of Sertraline to 100mg OD
Explanation:Medication Management for an Elderly Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This elderly patient is currently taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and has recently had Diclofenac added as well. However, this combination puts her at a greatly increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidance, gastroprotection should be added if patients are on aspirin or NSAIDs. Therefore, it is recommended that Diclofenac be stopped and alternative analgesia be considered.
The patient has a satisfactory response at her current dose of SSRI, which is the recommended dose for the elderly. Dose increases in this group should be undertaken with great caution, and there is no indication to do so in this patient.
Additionally, the patient has tight glycaemic control very close to the target of 48 mmol/mol for people with type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is advisable to monitor her HbA1c in three months and then six monthly thereafter if it remains stable.
While optimizing her Ramipril dose according to evidence is important, addressing the significant risk of bleeding on her current treatment should be the priority.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin which disappears when he is recumbent. It is accompanied by some discomfort.
He has a chronic cough due to smoking. He has had an appendicectomy previously.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Inguinal Hernia: A Likely Cause of a Lump in the Groin
Inguinal hernia is the most probable reason for a lump in the right groin of a patient in this age group. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for a while, cause discomfort or pain, and resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias are more common in females, while an epigastric hernia or an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be unlikely in this anatomical site.
This patient’s persistent cough due to smoking puts him at a higher risk of developing hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his medication for hypertension. He is currently taking ramipril 10 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and immediate-release indapamide 1.5 mg daily. Despite tolerating this treatment without any side-effects, his clinic blood pressure remains high at an average of 155/100 mmHg. The patient has no adverse lifestyle factors and a family history of hypertension and stroke. Secondary causes for hypertension have been ruled out, and routine blood tests including renal function, electrolytes, lipids, and glucose are all normal. His serum potassium level is 4.7 mmol/l (normal range 3.5-5.5 mmol/l). What is the most appropriate modification to this patient's treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase indapamide to 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:Treatment options for resistant hypertension
Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals make informed decisions. In step 4 of the guidelines, NICE recommends a combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and diuretic therapy, with the addition of further diuretic or alpha or beta blocker if necessary.
If further diuretic therapy is required, NICE suggests a higher-dose thiazide-like diuretic or spironolactone, depending on the patient’s serum potassium level. However, if spironolactone is not licensed for use or not tolerated, increasing the dose of indapamide is a suitable alternative. It’s important to note that the maximum dose of modified-release indapamide is 1.5mg daily.
If further diuretic therapy is not tolerated or contraindicated, NICE recommends considering an alpha or beta blocker. In cases of resistant hypertension, seeking expert advice may also be beneficial. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective treatment options for patients with resistant hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent epigastric pain for the past three months. He denies any weight loss, haematemesis, or melaena. On examination, there is tenderness in the epigastrium, but otherwise, the abdominal examination is unremarkable. The patient is currently taking Citalopram 20 mg, Lisinopril 20 mg OD, Aspirin 75 mg OD, and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. He recently had a painful knee and has been taking Ibuprofen at least three times a day. He has a history of severe depressive disorder, which has been effectively controlled on Citalopram for the past 9 months. What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce his Ibuprofen and change his antidepressant
Explanation:Medication Review for Patient with Multiple Symptoms
This patient is experiencing symptoms that are likely caused by the combination of aspirin, ibuprofen, and citalopram. Co-prescribing NSAIDs and SSRIs can increase the risk of gastric bleeding, so it is important to alter the medication rather than refer for endoscopy. The patient should be closely monitored and may benefit from a PPI for gastroprotection.
Although citalopram may be contributing to the symptoms, it has been effective in managing the patient’s recurrent depressive episodes. Patients with a history of depression should remain on antidepressants for at least 2 years into remission.
To ensure the patient responds well to the altered medication, a review should be scheduled in two weeks. It may also be appropriate to check the patient’s Hb level for anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings her 12 day old daughter to your clinic. The baby has developed a scaly, yellowish patch on her scalp and the mother seeks your advice. Upon examination, you notice the patch located on the occipital area of the baby's head, but she appears to be in good health otherwise. What would be the best course of treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance and advise use of baby shampoo
Explanation:Seborrheic dermatitis, also known as ‘cradle cap’, is a frequently observed condition in newborns. Parents usually do not seek medical advice and the issue often resolves on its own with minimal intervention. It is unnecessary to seek extensive treatment for a 10-day-old child with this condition.
Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Common Skin Disorder
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a skin disorder that is commonly seen in children. It usually affects the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the early signs of this condition is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. Cradle cap is characterized by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.
The management of seborrhoeic dermatitis in children depends on its severity. For mild to moderate cases, baby shampoo and baby oils can be used. However, for severe cases, mild topical steroids such as 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary.
Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. It is important to seek medical advice if the condition persists or worsens despite treatment. With proper management, children with seborrhoeic dermatitis can have healthy and clear skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding benign rolandic epilepsy is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Typically occurs between the age of 1 and 3 years
Explanation:Understanding Benign Rolandic Epilepsy
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that commonly affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that usually occur at night and are typically partial, affecting only certain parts of the body such as the face. However, in some cases, the seizures may progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
One of the key diagnostic features of benign rolandic epilepsy is the presence of centrotemporal spikes on an electroencephalogram (EEG). This test measures the electrical activity in the brain and can help doctors identify the specific type of epilepsy a child may have.
Fortunately, the prognosis for children with benign rolandic epilepsy is excellent. Most children will outgrow their seizures by the time they reach adolescence. While the condition can be concerning for parents, it is important to remember that it is a relatively mild form of epilepsy and doesn’t typically cause any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever following a dental extraction 5 days ago. He is usually in good health. On examination, he has a tender swelling in the left submandibular region and mild trismus. His tongue is slightly displaced upwards and he is unable to protrude it. There is no respiratory distress or stridor. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a 999 ambulance for immediate transfer to hospital
Explanation:Ludwig’s Angina is a medical emergency that falls under the domain of ENT. The patient in question is displaying symptoms and indications that suggest the presence of this rare infection, which affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. While it is typically caused by dental issues, it can also arise from other types of soft tissue infections in the neck. Due to the effectiveness of modern antibiotics and dental hygiene, Ludwig’s Angina is now quite uncommon, and many physicians may not be familiar with its presentation. However, it can lead to rapid deterioration and airway obstruction within a matter of minutes, necessitating immediate airway management and aggressive surgical intervention. If there is any suspicion of Ludwig’s Angina, it is crucial to transfer the patient to the emergency department without delay.
Understanding Ludwig’s Angina
Ludwig’s angina is a serious form of cellulitis that affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. It is usually caused by an infection that originates from the teeth and spreads to the submandibular space. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as neck swelling, fever, and difficulty swallowing.
Ludwig’s angina is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. The management of this condition involves airway management and the administration of intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have been managing in the community with palliative care who has died today. You fill out the death certificate. In which of the following circumstances would you be required to refer the case to the coroner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness
Explanation:A death should be referred to the coroner if the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness, if the cause of death is unknown, if the death was violent or unnatural, if the death was sudden and unexplained, if a medical certificate is not available, if the person who died wasn’t seen by the doctor who signed the medical certificate within 28 days before death or after they died, if the death occurred during an operation or before the person came out of anaesthetic, or if the medical certificate suggests the death may have been caused by an industrial disease or industrial poisoning.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic dandruff that worsens during the winter months and has not responded to over-the-counter treatments. She reports a rash on her elbows and knees. On examination, she has silvery scale on her scalp, elbows, and knees that can be removed but causes pinpoint bleeding. The thickness of the scalp scale is not significant. What is the most suitable initial management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Betamethasone lotion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scalp Psoriasis: NICE Guidelines and Beyond
Scalp psoriasis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment. One telltale sign is Auspitz’s sign, where pinpoint bleeding occurs when a scale is removed due to thinning of the epidermal layer overlying the dermal papillae. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a potent corticosteroid as initial treatment for up to four weeks, followed by a different formulation or calcipotriol if necessary. Topical agents containing salicylic acid, emollients, or oils can also be used to remove scale before resuming corticosteroid treatment. However, tar-based shampoos are not recommended as a sole treatment option. A combined product containing calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate may be used as a first-line treatment, as it has been shown to be more effective than using the drugs separately. Overall, there are various treatment options available for scalp psoriasis, and it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is concerned about breast cancer. An older cousin on her mother’s side has been diagnosed with breast cancer and she knows of one other cousin on her mother’s side with the disease. Additionally, her paternal grandmother was diagnosed with breast cancer in her seventies. She has no knowledge of any unusual cancers or gene abnormalities in the family.
What is the most suitable course of action for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice about breast awareness
Explanation:Breast Awareness and Management for Women with a Family History of Breast Cancer
Breast cancer is a common disease that affects many families. However, having a family history of breast cancer doesn’t necessarily mean that a woman is at substantial risk. The risk increases with the number and closeness of relatives affected and the age at which they were diagnosed. Other factors that increase the risk include the presence of certain other cancers or some gene patterns.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has produced guidance for managing breast cancer in people with a family history of the disease. Women with only one second-degree relative with breast cancer, such as a grandmother, and who was diagnosed in her seventies, do not normally require referral. However, being breast aware is good advice for all women.
For women considered to have a high risk, annual mammography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are secondary care options for screening and detecting breast cancer. Genetic testing is also available, and referral to a specialist genetic clinic is based on several factors, including the number of people involved, closeness of the relationship, age at diagnosis, and the presence of other cancers.
In some cases, prophylactic bilateral mastectomy may be recommended for high-risk women. This involves breast removal before cancer develops and is recommended for women with a strong family history, the presence of certain genes, previous cancer in one breast, or when biopsies show certain conditions.
In summary, breast awareness and management for women with a family history of breast cancer involve several options, including screening, genetic testing, and prophylactic mastectomy. Women should discuss their options with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques with clusters of small vesicles. These are present in a band on the left side of the body extending from the lower dorsal area of the back around the front of the abdomen but not crossing the midline. The rash has been present for 48 hours.
Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe for a patient presenting at this stage of the illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a viral infection that affects a specific dermatome. It is recommended to start antiviral treatment, such as aciclovir, within 72 hours of rash onset for individuals over 50 years old. Aciclovir has been shown to reduce the duration of symptoms and the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia. It is also indicated for those with ophthalmic herpes zoster, non-truncal rash, moderate to severe pain or rash, and immunocompromised individuals. Prednisolone may be added to aciclovir, but results are mixed. Pain relief can be achieved with co-codamol, but stronger medications may be necessary. Amitriptyline or gabapentin may be used for post-herpetic neuralgia. Antiviral treatment is not recommended for immunocompetent children with mild symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous complaints have been type-2 diabetes and mild long-standing back pain. Screening tests reveal an elevated serum creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and anaemia with Hb of 101 g/d (135-175 g/L). He has marked proteinuria. An X-ray shows collapse of the lumbar spine and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
Select the most likely cause of his abnormal renal function.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Understanding Amyloidosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis
Amyloidosis is a group of conditions characterized by the abnormal deposition of amyloid proteins in organs or tissues, leading to damage. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 60 and 70 years. In most cases, amyloidosis is caused by light-chain deposition from a myeloma, as evidenced by a monoclonal band on electrophoresis and lumbar spine collapse. Symptoms of generalized amyloidosis include fatigue, dyspnea, diarrhea, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and weight loss. Cardiac involvement may result in a restrictive picture with right-sided heart failure and jugular venous distension. Renal amyloidosis can lead to the development of the nephrotic syndrome.
Apart from myeloma, other causes of amyloidosis include hereditary forms such as familial Mediterranean fever, and those related to chronic disease, infection, or malignancy, such as rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis, and renal cell carcinoma. Amyloidosis associated with myeloma has a very poor prognosis, with less than 1-year survival. In contrast, familial forms are associated with much better outcomes, with a prognosis of up to 10-15 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with oesophageal cancer is having difficulties with taking regular oral morphine medications. After consulting with the oncology team, it is decided to switch him to transdermal fentanyl patches. He is currently taking 50 mg twice daily of modified-release oral morphine which has been effectively managing his pain. You prescribe a fentanyl '25' patch which provides the same level of pain relief. What instructions do you give the patient when starting to use the patches?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue to use the oral modified-release morphine for 72 hours following patch initiation
Explanation:Considerations for Drug Delivery in Palliative Care
Drug delivery is a crucial aspect to consider in palliative care, as patients may have difficulties with certain formulations or preparations. For instance, some patients may have trouble swallowing medication due to dysphagia, while others may be intolerant to specific preparations. In such cases, transdermal fentanyl and buprenorphine can be used as alternatives.
However, it’s important to note that transdermal preparations may not be suitable for patients who require treatment for acute pain or those with variable pain relief needs. This is because the route of administration affects the pharmacokinetics, resulting in a delay in achieving a steady state.
When switching from oral morphine preparations to transdermal fentanyl, the British National Formulary (BNF) provides a section on equivalent doses. For example, 60 mg daily of oral morphine equates to the fentanyl ’25’ patch. However, if the opioid problem is hyperalgesia, it’s recommended to cut the dose of the new opioid by one quarter to one half of the equivalent dose.
It’s essential to consult the palliative care section in the BNF for further details on other dose equivalencies. Fentanyl patches should be applied every 72 hours, and patients may require extra analgesia for up to 24 hours after the patch is started due to its slow onset of action. Doses of the patch can be adjusted at 72-hour intervals.
If a patient is taking a long-acting 12-hourly morphine, the patch should be applied when the last dose is given. On the other hand, if a patient is taking a short-acting morphine, it should be continued four hourly for the first 12 hours of patch use. By considering these drug delivery factors, healthcare professionals can provide effective pain relief for patients in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of severe ear pain. He reports experiencing pain and white discharge from his left ear for the past two weeks, along with a feeling of dulled hearing. The patient has a medical history of glaucoma, hypertension, and type two diabetes, with a recent HbA1c of 59 mmol/mol.
During the examination, the patient appears to be in discomfort. The right ear appears normal, but the left external auditory canal is swollen and painful to examine, with copious amounts of white discharge. There is no swelling or erythema affecting the pinna nor mastoid. Cranial nerve exam detects a conductive hearing loss in the left ear and a subtle inability to wrinkle the forehead on the left. The patient is afebrile with a blood pressure of 142/96 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission for intravenous antibiotics, imaging
Explanation:If a patient has unilateral ear discharge and a facial nerve palsy on the left side, it is more likely to be a case of malignant otitis externa. This is a serious condition where the infection has spread to the temporal bone and can affect the facial nerve. The pain associated with this condition is severe and persistent, often waking the patient at night. Malignant otitis externa can be life-threatening in severe cases, and immediate referral to an ENT specialist for intravenous antibiotics and imaging is necessary.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.
Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.
In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour, his wife has also noticed a few aggressive outbursts over the past months. His mini-mental test score is 20.
Which patterns of cognitive deficit would favour a dementia of subcortical origin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced verbal output
Explanation:Understanding the Differences between Cortical and Subcortical Dementia
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many different types of dementia, two of the most common are cortical and subcortical dementia. Understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in diagnosing and treating the condition.
Cortical dementia is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain. This area is responsible for memory and language, so patients with cortical dementia often experience severe memory loss and difficulty with language. Alzheimer’s, frontotemporal dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are all common causes of cortical dementia.
Subcortical dementia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to areas beneath the cortex and disruption in the frontostriatal connections. This can result in early frontal lobe problems such as planning difficulties, poor verbal fluency, personality change, and task switching. While complex motor functions are typically preserved in subcortical dementia, patients may experience psychomotor slowing, reduced verbal output, and reduced alertness. Parkinson’s disease, vascular dementia, and multiple sclerosis are all common causes of subcortical dementia.
It’s important to note that the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is not always clear-cut, and as the condition progresses, patients may experience symptoms of both types of dementia. However, understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in identifying the underlying cause of the condition and developing an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.
She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.
Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets
Explanation:Medications and Depression
Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on their legs. The infant is healthy and has received all recommended vaccinations. The caregiver is unsure how the bruising occurred and is worried about a possible bleeding disorder.
What would be the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient for same day paediatric assessment and discuss with the paediatric consultant on-call
Explanation:Any bruising observed in a non-mobile infant should be immediately referred for paediatric assessment on the same day. The urgency of the situation is the main concern.
Delaying the assessment until later in the week, waiting for blood test results, or consulting with the safeguarding lead is not appropriate. It is also not necessary to contact emergency services at this point, unless the parents refuse to take the child for assessment.
The appropriate action is to refer the infant for same-day paediatric assessment and inform the on-call consultant. If the child doesn’t attend the hospital on the same day, the paediatric team should escalate the situation.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.
Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.
His glycaemic control is suboptimal on diet alone and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46).
You elect to treat him with metformin 500 mg bd.
As per NICE NG28 guidance on the management of diabetes, what would be the most suitable interval to re-evaluate his HbA1c after each treatment intensification?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Understanding HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control
The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose. This measurement is widely used in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control, as there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of HbA1c and average plasma glucose concentrations. Additionally, studies have shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.
The lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately 120 days, and HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, HbA1c should be re-checked at 3/6 monthly intervals with each treatment intensification. Understanding HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial for managing diabetes effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for depression. She is currently taking reboxetine but is experiencing over-energization and only sleeping for 4.5-5 hours per night. After discussing her options, you both agree that switching to sertraline may be the best course of action.
What advice would you give her regarding the switch to sertraline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A washout period of two weeks between drugs is needed
Explanation:Switching from Reboxetine to Sertraline
When switching from reboxetine to sertraline, it is recommended to start sertraline immediately but gradually increase the dose as the reboxetine dose is reduced. It is important to note that reboxetine is metabolized by CYP3A4, which means that taking inhibitors such as macrolides and antifungals like fluconazole may increase its effects by raising plasma concentration. Therefore, caution should be exercised when taking these medications together. Proper management and monitoring of the switch from reboxetine to sertraline can help ensure a smooth transition and minimize potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male patient requests a house call because he has been feeling unwell. Upon arrival, he reports experiencing double vision and difficulty with balance.
During the physical examination, you observe nystagmus, significant ataxia, and slurred speech.
The patient mentions that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his hospital specialist, but he is unsure about the correct dosage.
What medication has he been prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Side-Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, it can have various undesirable side-effects, both in the long-term and with excessive dosage.
Acute phenytoin overdose can cause nystagmus, diplopia, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and hyperglycaemia. On the other hand, common side-effects not related to acute intoxication include tremors, paraesthesia, gingival hypertrophy, rashes, acne, hirsutism, and coarse facies.
In rare cases, serious haematological and neurological side-effects can occur with regular usage. Haematological side-effects include megaloblastic anaemia, aplastic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, and agranulocytosis. Meanwhile, neurological side-effects include peripheral neuropathy and dyskinaesias.
It is important to monitor the dosage and usage of phenytoin to avoid these side-effects and ensure the patient’s safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for improving cognitive function in adults over 60 with existing methods. Her null hypothesis is that there is no difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and existing cognitive function improvement methods. After collecting sufficient data, she wants to calculate the probability of finding a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and the existing methods.
Which value is this referring to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Power
Explanation:The correct term for the probability of detecting a statistically significant difference is power. It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and can be calculated as ‘1 – probability of a type II error’. The null hypothesis value is not a specific value used in statistics, but rather a statement that two treatments are equally effective. P-value is not the correct answer as it refers to the probability of obtaining a result by chance. Type I error value is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, while a type II error is accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Samantha is an 72-year-old woman who visits your clinic to inquire about breast cancer screening. She has been receiving regular mammograms, but she recently discovered that the NHS stops screening at 71. Samantha wants to know if she can still receive NHS screening mammograms.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yes, she can self-refer
Explanation:The NHS is extending its breast screening initiative to cover women between the ages of 47 and 73. Women over this age can still undergo screening by making their own arrangements.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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