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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner, worried about his lack of normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner, worried about his lack of normal development. He has not observed any growth of pubic or axillary hair or testicular growth.

      During the examination, the boy is found to have a short stature, a broad chest, a short, webbed neck, and no palpable testes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this case is Noonan syndrome, a genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner and occurring in 1 in 1000 to 1 in 2500 children. It is characterized by multiple congenital abnormalities, including short stature, a high forehead, a webbed neck, a broad chest, and cryptorchidism. Bardet-Biedl syndrome (BBS) is an autosomal-recessive multisystemic genetic disorder that is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality that causes delayed puberty and infertility, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but it is not associated with the physical attributes seen in this case. Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects phenotypic females and is characterized by short stature, a broad chest, widely spaced, hypoplastic or inverted nipples, a short, webbed neck, and short fourth and fifth metacarpals. While the physical attributes of Turner and Noonan syndrome are similar, Turner syndrome doesn’t fit with this case as the patient is phenotypically male.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      42
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  • Question 2 - A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test...

    Correct

    • A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test is based on measurement of certain biomarkers in the blood that are associated with the disease. The sensitivity and specificity of the test is 80% and 85%, respectively.

      What is the likelihood ratio for a negative test result?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The formula for calculating the likelihood ratio for a positive test result is to divide the sensitivity of the test by the difference between 1 and the specificity of the test. For example, if the sensitivity is 0.9 and the specificity is 0.7, the likelihood ratio for a positive test result would be 3. This means that the odds of having the disease increase by three times when the test is positive.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postpartum seeks your advice on contraception....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postpartum seeks your advice on contraception. She wants to know when she can have an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted. She had a caesarean section due to failure to progress during labor. What would be your recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An IUD can be inserted 4 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      The guidelines indicate that there is no requirement to delay further, even if a caesarean section was performed.

      Contraindications for Insertion of Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices

      When it comes to the insertion of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs), there are very few contraindications. However, it is important to note that some conditions may increase the risks associated with the procedure. According to the Faculty of Family Planning and Reproductive Health Care, there are certain conditions that fall under UKMEC Category 3, where the risks outweigh the benefits. These include insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks postpartum, as well as initiation of the method in women with ovarian cancer.

      On the other hand, UKMEC Category 4 lists conditions that pose an unacceptable risk for IUD insertion. These include pregnancy, current pelvic infection, puerperal sepsis, immediate post-septic abortion, unexplained vaginal bleeding, and uterine fibroids or anatomical abnormalities that distort the uterine cavity.

      In addition, NICE guidelines from 2005 recommend screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) before IUD insertion. Women at risk of STIs should be tested for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, especially in areas where the latter is prevalent. Women who request it should also be tested for any STIs. For those at increased risk of STIs, prophylactic antibiotics should be given before IUD insertion if testing has not yet been completed.

      It is important to consider these contraindications and guidelines before undergoing IUD insertion to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 4 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics of patients attending a hypertension clinic. She calculates that the mean age of the patients is 56 years old, and that the variance of the data is 64. She wants to calculate the standard deviation of the data set.

      What is the connection between standard deviation and variance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation is the square root of variance

      Explanation:

      The square root of variance is equal to standard deviation, while variance is the squared value of standard deviation.

      Understanding Variance as a Measure of Spread

      Variance is a statistical measure that helps to determine how far apart a set of scores is from the mean. It is calculated by taking the square of the standard deviation. In other words, variance is a way to quantify the amount of variability or spread in a data set. It is a useful tool in many fields, including finance, engineering, and science, as it can help to identify patterns and trends in data. By understanding variance, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the distribution of data and make more informed decisions based on their findings. Overall, variance is an important concept to grasp for anyone working with data, as it provides a way to measure the degree of variability in a set of scores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches that have been ongoing for two weeks. The headaches are felt on both sides of her forehead, persist throughout the day, and intensify when she bends over. She doesn't experience any aura with the headaches. During a fundoscopy, the doctor notices blurring of the optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a possible diagnosis for a young woman with a high BMI, headache, and visual symptoms, as it is associated with papilloedema. Cluster headaches, migraines, and sinus headaches do not account for papilloedema and have different characteristics.

      Understanding Papilloedema

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.

      It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 7 - A father brings his 9-month-old to the pediatrician with concerns about a rash....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 9-month-old to the pediatrician with concerns about a rash. The infant developed a fever and cold-like symptoms a few days ago, and the rash appeared yesterday evening. It's worth noting that the baby started daycare two weeks ago. During the examination, the child is alert and responsive with good muscle tone. The baby has no fever, and all vital signs are normal. There is some nasal congestion, and a papular rash is present on the trunk, which disappears when pressed.

      What is the probable cause of the rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 8 - A 52-year-old gentleman presents with an acute flare up of his gout. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old gentleman presents with an acute flare up of his gout. He has a history of gout over the past year and was recently switched from allopurinol to febuxostat. The current episode started three days ago and is causing pain in his left big toe. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol, but it has not been effective. He is also on warfarin for atrial fibrillation.

      What recommendations would you make to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop his febuxostat until his pain resolves and then restart and prescribe colchicine in the meantime

      Explanation:

      Management of Gout with Febuxostat

      In the management of gout, NICE recommends febuxostat as a second-line therapy if allopurinol is not tolerated or contraindicated. It is important to start febuxostat 1-2 weeks after inflammation has settled and adjust the dose according to the serum uric acid level. Urate-lowering medication is usually Lifelong and requires monitoring. Patients should not stop taking febuxostat during acute attacks if it has already been started. However, ibuprofen should not be used if the patient is taking warfarin.

      It is important to note that if the patient is already taking febuxostat, switching back to allopurinol would not be indicated. A rheumatology referral is not necessary at this stage unless complications arise or febuxostat is not tolerated or ineffective. For more information on the management of gout, please refer to the NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her worried parent who has observed...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her worried parent who has observed a significant space between her ankles and is anxious as her knees seem to be close together while standing. The parent mentions that the girl has a balanced diet and gets enough exposure to sunlight and is healthy otherwise.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parent that knock knees are a usual variant and usually resolve by the age of 8 years

      Explanation:

      Genu valgum, commonly known as knock knees, is a typical condition that typically resolves on its own by the age of 8 years. As such, there is no need to refer the patient to an orthopaedic clinic or provide specific physiotherapy. Supportive shoes or leg braces are not recommended.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed.

    She was recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher comes to see you because she feels depressed.

      She was recently given a new class to teach and feels overwhelmed. She believes that her colleagues think she is not capable of handling the class and that her teaching is not up to par. She has started to wake up in the early hours and then worry about her job.

      Her reason for coming to the clinic is that she has been feeling irritable and short-tempered with her students, and her partner thinks she should seek help. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.

      How would you evaluate her symptoms of depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An IPSS symptom score

      Explanation:

      Popular Questionnaires in General Practice

      Questionnaires are commonly used in general practice to detect and assess the severity of illnesses. One such questionnaire is the PHQ-9, which is a nine-item depression scale that assists general practitioners in diagnosing depression and monitoring treatment. The PHQ-2, a two-item questionnaire, is also used for screening depression.

      The CAGE questionnaire, on the other hand, is a screening test for alcohol problem drinking and is not used to assess depression. The GPCOG assessment is a screening tool for symptoms of dementia, while the GPPAQ questionnaire is a validated short measure of physical activity commissioned by the Department of Health.

      It is important to note that the IPSS questionnaire, which is an international prostate symptom score questionnaire, is not relevant to the assessment of depression. Overall, these questionnaires serve as powerful tools for general practitioners in diagnosing and monitoring various illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - What is a factor that increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a factor that increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infertility treatment

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Risk Factors for Ovarian Cancer in Primary Care

      It can be challenging to diagnose ovarian cancer in primary care, as patients often present with vague abdominal symptoms. However, early detection is crucial for improving outcomes. One way to increase early detection rates is to recognize the risk factors for ovarian cancer. The Macmillan organization has compiled a list of possible risk factors, including family history, age, early menarche, late menopause, HRT use, endometriosis, and ovarian cysts before the age of 30. Protective factors include pregnancy, increased numbers of children, combined oral contraceptive use, and hysterectomy. By asking a few questions about risk factors and family history, primary care providers can better assess the risk of ovarian cancer in their patients. It is important to consider ovarian cancer as a possibility, particularly in women with predominantly gastrointestinal symptoms. By recognizing the risk factors and being alert to the possibility of ovarian cancer, primary care providers can improve early detection rates and ultimately improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 12 - A 24-year-old man has been experiencing painful redness in his left eye for...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man has been experiencing painful redness in his left eye for three days, along with blurred vision and sensitivity to light. He finds that the pain worsens when he tries to read. The redness is most prominent around the cornea, and the pupil on the affected side is slightly smaller and irregular compared to the right. Upon investigation, his haemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets are within normal range, but his erythrocyte sedimentation rate is elevated at 40 mm/hour. Additionally, he tests positive for HLA-B27. What is the most likely underlying cause of his eye problems?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      The man in question is displaying symptoms of acute anterior uveitis, which can be caused by a variety of underlying systemic diseases or may be idiopathic. Non-granulomatous uveitis is often associated with diseases related to HLA-B27, such as ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and Behçet’s disease. Sarcoidosis, syphilis, toxoplasmosis, and tuberculosis can also cause uveitis, but each has its own unique ocular manifestations and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old patient is initiated on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis related to Wegener's granulomatosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is initiated on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis related to Wegener's granulomatosis. What is the most typical association with cyclophosphamide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhagic cystitis can be caused by cyclophosphamide.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old patient comes to the doctor with complaints of back pain. While...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient comes to the doctor with complaints of back pain. While discussing his medical history, he requests to see the list of diagnoses on his medical record. He expresses his desire to have the diagnosis of asthma removed, claiming that it is inaccurate. Upon reviewing his medical record, there are no recorded instances of asthma exacerbations, no current medications, and no recent prescriptions for asthma-related drugs.

      What should be the appropriate next step in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retain the diagnosis on the record but remove it from the active diagnoses list

      Explanation:

      According to the Data Protection Act, patients have the right to request the correction of factually incorrect information about them. In this case, the patient has requested the correction of an incorrect diagnosis of asthma. The correct course of action would be to remove the diagnosis from the active diagnoses list, while retaining the evidence that it was previously considered. It is not appropriate to delete previous information or to arrange for an asthma nurse review, as the patient has no current signs or symptoms of asthma. It is also not necessary to ask the patient to submit a written request for amendment, as verbal requests are also valid. It is important to explain to the patient that they have the right to request corrections to their medical records and that this will not erase any previous information, but rather ensure that the record is accurate going forward.

      Understanding the Data Protection Act

      The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.

      In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man has Huntington's disease.

    He asks you how this is inherited.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has Huntington's disease.

      He asks you how this is inherited.

      Which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Understanding Huntington’s Disease

      Autosomal dominant inheritance is a genetic pattern in which an affected individual has one copy of a mutant gene and one normal gene on a pair of autosomal chromosomes. This means that individuals with autosomal dominant diseases, such as Huntington’s disease, have a 50:50 chance of passing the mutant gene and the disorder on to each of their children.

      Unlike autosomal recessive diseases, which require an individual to have two copies of the mutant gene, autosomal dominant diseases only require one copy for the disorder to manifest. Other examples of autosomal dominant diseases include neurofibromatosis and polycystic kidney disease. Understanding the inheritance pattern of these diseases can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man presents with left-sided hearing loss that has been gradually worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with left-sided hearing loss that has been gradually worsening over the past few months. He reports no pain or discharge and has been using olive oil drops for three weeks with no improvement. Upon examination, the right ear appears normal, but the left external auditory canal is obstructed by impacted earwax.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suggest sodium bicarbonate drops

      Explanation:

      When olive oil drops fail to remove impacted earwax, sodium bicarbonate drops can be used as an alternative treatment. This is recommended by NICE as a first line treatment for 3-5 days. Sodium bicarbonate drops can be purchased over-the-counter without a prescription.

      In the past, GP surgeries would offer ear canal irrigation as a treatment option. However, this has been slowly withdrawn in recent years. If drops alone have failed, ear canal irrigation may still be recommended if there is local provision.

      earwax removal by ENT is generally not funded on the NHS unless certain qualifying criteria are met, such as previous ear surgery. Antibiotic ear drops are not indicated as there is no evidence of infection.

      Ear candling is not recommended as a treatment option.

      Understanding earwax and Its Impacts

      earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review and is found to have new vessel formation at the optic disc. His visual acuity in both eyes is unaffected (6/9) and his blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg. His HbA1c level is 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What is the primary intervention that should be taken for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laser therapy

      Explanation:

      An ophthalmologist should be urgently referred for panretinal photocoagulation as the patient is suffering from proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovasculization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularisation, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy complains of a burning pain in his feet that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. Despite taking duloxetine, he has not experienced any relief. Upon clinical examination, the only notable finding is reduced sensitivity to fine touch on both soles. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Although amitriptyline is typically the preferred option, it is advisable to steer clear of it in this case due to the patient’s history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, which increases the risk of urinary retention.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells...

    Incorrect

    • Tom is a 35-year-old carpenter, who comes to your clinic because he tells you that his wife is concerned about his family history of bowel cancer.

      On questioning, Tom denies any history of abdominal discomfort, changes in bowel habit or rectal bleeding. He is generally fit and well, and rarely attends your surgery.

      Which one of the following is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take a full family history

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer

      Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) is a genetic condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. If you or a family member have been diagnosed with HNPCC, it is important to take the necessary precautions to manage the risk.

      If you are a reluctant clinic-attendee, it is important to take your concerns seriously. Reassurance should not be given prematurely without knowing the full family history, including the ages of cancer diagnoses. A full family history can help determine if there is evidence of a genetic susceptibility. The modified Amsterdam criteria are widely recognized for assessing this risk.

      It is important to understand the clinical presentation of HNPCC and to take proactive measures to manage the risk. By working with healthcare professionals and staying informed, individuals with HNPCC can take steps to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches for the past year. These headaches occur around 5-6 times per month and last all day. There is no associated aura. He describes the headache as a severe throbbing on both sides of his head with nausea and lethargy. He typically goes to bed when he gets a headache as activity makes it worse. He takes one of his father's diclofenac tablets before bed, which seems to help. Neurological examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that this headache is indicative of a migraine. The symptoms described align with the typical presentation, although it is worth noting that most patients experience symptoms on only one side of the head. Additionally, there is no indication of medication overuse, which can lead to frequent headaches.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucella serology

      Explanation:

      The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 22 - What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical treatment should be considered for patients with large goitres

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism: Medications, Radio-Iodine, and Surgery

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and tachycardia. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are medications used to treat hyperthyroidism, but they require monitoring and should be initiated under specialist advice. A β-blocker may also be used to relieve adrenergic symptoms. Treatment is typically on a titration-block or block-and-replace regime, with a remission rate of about 50% after 6-18 months of treatment.

      Radio-iodine is another treatment option for hyperthyroidism, particularly for toxic nodular hyperthyroidism or when medical treatment is not effective. However, it is contraindicated in thyroid eye disease and pregnancy, and can lead to hypothyroidism in 80% of patients. There is no increased risk of cancer from radio-iodine treatment.

      Surgical treatment by total or near-total thyroidectomy may be necessary for recurrent hyperthyroidism after drug treatment, compression symptoms from a large toxic multinodular goitre, potentially malignant thyroid nodules, or in certain cases of pregnancy or active eye disease.

      Overall, treatment options for hyperthyroidism should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - You have a phone consultation scheduled with Mrs. Smith, a 26-year-old woman. She...

    Incorrect

    • You have a phone consultation scheduled with Mrs. Smith, a 26-year-old woman. She has received a letter inviting her for his first routine cervical screening test. She says that from what she understands from news coverage about the HPV vaccine, cervical cancer is caused by HPV, so she is wondering if she needs to be screened as she has never had sexual intercourse. She says she is willing to come if you still advise it. You take some further history and confirm she has never engaged in any sexual activity.

      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her risk is very low so it would be reasonable to opt-out, but she can still attend if she wishes

      Explanation:

      Women who have never had sex have a very low risk of cervical cancer and can opt out of screening, but remain eligible if they choose to do so. Screening is not recommended unless the woman develops symptoms, and the age range for screening is 25-64.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 24 - A 2-month-old baby is here for their initial vaccinations. What immunisations are recommended...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old baby is here for their initial vaccinations. What immunisations are recommended at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + rotavirus + Men B

      Explanation:

      The vaccine regimen includes immunization against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenza type b, and hepatitis B, as well as vaccination against pneumococcus, rotavirus, and meningococcus B.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old myopic woman came in with a complaint of left flashing lights...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old myopic woman came in with a complaint of left flashing lights and an increase in floaters for the past three days. She has a best corrected visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes according to the Snellen chart. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to an ophthalmologist urgently

      Explanation:

      Importance of Referral to an Ophthalmologist for Myopia Patients

      A referral to an ophthalmologist is highly recommended for patients with myopia. This is because myopia is a risk factor for retinal detachment, which can lead to serious vision problems if left untreated. While an ocular examination by a non-ophthalmologist is a good start, it may not be enough to detect small retinal tears or breaks that can lead to more extensive retinal detachment in the future.

      Therefore, it is crucial to have a thorough examination by a specialist who is trained to identify and treat such conditions. By referring myopia patients to an ophthalmologist, they can receive the best possible care and ensure that any potential issues are addressed promptly. This can help prevent further complications and preserve their vision in the long run. So, if you or someone you know has myopia, don’t hesitate to seek a referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive eye exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and muscle weakness for the past 4 months. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a healthy weight. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be consistently high at 160/95 mmHg. However, there are no other significant findings on physical examination. Her blood sugar levels are normal, but her potassium levels are low at 3.4 mmol/L. The GP suspects primary hyperaldosteronism and plans to refer the patient to secondary care. What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio

      Explanation:

      The initial investigation for suspected primary hyperaldosteronism is a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. A CT abdomen may be used to detect an adrenal adenoma, but it is not the first-line investigation. A dexamethasone suppression test is primarily used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome by observing cortisol level responses after dexamethasone injection. A short synacthen test is utilized to identify hypoadrenalism, such as Addison’s disease.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old woman is confused. She has become gradually more so over a...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman is confused. She has become gradually more so over a period of some months. Which of the following features suggest a diagnosis of early Alzheimer's disease as opposed to delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic course

      Explanation:

      Identifying Alzheimer’s Disease and Delirium

      Alzheimer’s disease and delirium are two conditions that can affect cognitive function. Alzheimer’s disease is a slow and chronic condition that leads to gradual deterioration, while delirium is a sudden onset of confusion and disorientation.

      Early signs of Alzheimer’s disease include a slow and chronic course with gradual deterioration. On the other hand, delirium is suggested by disorganised thought, poor attention, frequent fluctuations, and dysarthria.

      To learn more about delirium, the British Geriatrics Society offers a great education resource on their Delirium hub. For information on managing and preventing cognitive symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease, check out the BMJ Clinical Review. Additionally, the BMJ Practice provides resources for suspected early dementia.

      By understanding the differences between Alzheimer’s disease and delirium, individuals can seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old female comes to see you at the GP surgery complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female comes to see you at the GP surgery complaining of hot flashes. Her LMP was 13 months ago. She wants to have some blood tests to confirm she has gone through the menopause.

      What is the most appropriate management from the list below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can be advised that she has gone through the menopause. No bloods required

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Menopause According to NICE NG23

      According to NICE NG23 guidelines, menopause can be diagnosed without laboratory tests in otherwise healthy women aged over 45 years with menopausal symptoms. Perimenopause can be diagnosed based on vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods, while menopause can be diagnosed in women who have not had a period for at least 12 months and are not using hormonal contraception. Menopause can also be diagnosed based on symptoms in women without a uterus.

      However, in women aged 40 to 45 years with menopausal symptoms, including a change in their menstrual cycle, and in women aged under 40 years in whom menopause is suspected, a FSH test may be considered to diagnose menopause.

      In the case of a woman aged over 45 years with amenorrhoea for over 12 months, a clinical diagnosis of menopause can be made without the need for blood tests. It is important to note that premature ovarian failure is not a concern in this case as the woman is aged 48.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 29 - A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry...

    Incorrect

    • A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry out a clinical examination. She wants to know if there are any indications that her child may have an underlying condition.
      What feature in this boy would be most suggestive of a high risk of a serious underlying problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unilateral Moro reflex

      Explanation:

      Common Infant Characteristics and Abnormalities

      The following are common characteristics and abnormalities that may be observed in infants:

      Unilateral Moro Reflex: A response to something that startles the infant, such as a loud noise or a sudden loss of support. Absence may indicate a profound disorder of the motor system, while persistence beyond four or five months of age occurs in infants with severe neurological defects.

      Scattered Red Marks with Papules and Pustules on the Face and Trunk: This is toxic erythema of the newborn, a common finding in neonates. It doesn’t cause the child discomfort and usually lasts several days.

      Fall in Weight from Birth Weight: Most babies lose about 10% of their birth weight after birth, but they usually regain this weight after about two weeks.

      Pink Moist Granuloma in the Umbilicus: An overgrowth of granulation tissue that occurs after the cord has fallen off. The discharge from an umbilical granuloma may irritate the surrounding skin.

      Single Palmar Crease: About 5% of newborns have a single palmar crease on at least one hand, frequently inherited as a familial trait. It is sometimes associated with Down and other syndromes, although other signs would point to these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon conducting an ECG, it is revealed that she has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication should be prescribed to manage her heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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