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  • Question 1 - What is the most prevalent personality disorder among individuals in Great Britain? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent personality disorder among individuals in Great Britain?

      Your Answer: Borderline

      Correct Answer: Anankastic

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder: Understanding the Clinical Diagnosis

      A personality disorder is a long-standing pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, clinicians must first establish that the general diagnostic threshold is met before identifying the subtype(s) present. The course of personality disorders varies, with some becoming less evident of remitting with age, while others persist.

      DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different classification systems for personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into three clusters (A, B, and C), while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain is 4.4%, with Cluster C being the most common. Clinicians are advised to avoid diagnosing personality disorders in children, although a diagnosis can be made in someone under 18 if the features have been present for at least a year (except for antisocial personality disorder).

      Overall, understanding the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders is important for effective treatment and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old woman with a history of low self-esteem, but no family of personal history of major mental disorder, gradually began to experience obsessive thinking centered around the thought that she was harmful to her husband before he passed away 5 years ago. She also had the thought that she should kill herself to avoid further troubles. She was not actually unhappy in her marriage and was, in fact, helpful to her husband. These obsessive thoughts occurred to her automatically, without apparent relation to her actual circumstances.

      Two months later, her symptoms worsened, and she was brought to the outpatient clinic by her daughter, suffering from depressed mood, guilt, suicidal ideation, insomnia, loss of appetite, loss of interest, psychomotor retardation, anxiety and paranoid symptoms. Furthermore, the ideas about her previous conduct towards her husband had progressed to the point of being delusional. Her BMI was within normal range and although her appetite was reduced, her fluid intake was normal.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline in combination with olanzapine

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with psychotic depression and the recommended treatment is a combination of TCA and antipsychotic medication. While ECT has been shown to be effective, it is not necessary at this time as the patient’s condition is not life-threatening. There is some evidence, although limited, to suggest that ketamine and mifepristone may also be beneficial in treating this condition.

      Psychotic Depression

      Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.

      Diagnosis

      Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.

      Treatment

      The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 40 year old man with schizophrenia and essential hypertension (with a systolic...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man with schizophrenia and essential hypertension (with a systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg) is admitted to hospital with a relapse in psychotic symptoms. He is currently on aripiprazole and wishes to explore other options. He has previously been tried with haloperidol. Which (if any) of the following would be contraindicated in this scenario?:

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Although many individuals may choose clozapine as the answer, it is not the correct option. The current recommendation is that clozapine should only be considered after a patient has attempted two prior antipsychotics, with only one of them being an atypical antipsychotic.

      Antipsychotics and Hypertension

      Clozapine is the antipsychotic that is most commonly linked to hypertension. However, it is important to note that essential hypertension is not a contraindication for any antipsychotic medication. Therefore, no antipsychotics should be avoided in patients with essential hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, what term is used to describe a state...

    Incorrect

    • According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, what term is used to describe a state of mania without depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar VI

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes

      Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.

      In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.

      Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.

      Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).

      Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - During which time period is postpartum psychosis most likely to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which time period is postpartum psychosis most likely to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The specific onset of puerperal psychosis is a topic of varying information from different sources. It is difficult to determine whether it is more common in the first two weeks of weeks 2-4. However, an article in Advances in Psychiatric Treatment by Brockington in 1998 suggests that the most common time period for onset is within the first two weeks. As this is a widely used resource in college, it is the source we have chosen to rely on.

      Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period

      The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.

      However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.

      Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old female who has experienced Herpes encephalitis presents with significant weight gain...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female who has experienced Herpes encephalitis presents with significant weight gain and intense cravings for carbohydrates. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - What drug has been proven through placebo controlled RCT evidence to effectively manage...

    Incorrect

    • What drug has been proven through placebo controlled RCT evidence to effectively manage hypersalivation caused by the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyoscine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - What are the accurate statements about evaluating and handling self-injury in adults? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the accurate statements about evaluating and handling self-injury in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A psychosocial assessment should not be delayed until after medical treatment is complete

      Explanation:

      It is important to conduct a psychosocial assessment early on in the treatment process, rather than waiting until after medical treatment is complete. During this assessment, it is crucial to speak with the service user alone to ensure confidentiality and allow for open discussion. In cases where physical treatment may trigger traumatic memories, sedation should be offered beforehand. It is also important to assume mental capacity unless evidence suggests otherwise when assessing and treating individuals who have self-harmed. All members of the healthcare team should be able to assess capacity, and challenging cases should involve a team discussion.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - What treatment option would NICE recommend for an adult patient with bipolar affective...

    Incorrect

    • What treatment option would NICE recommend for an adult patient with bipolar affective disorder and moderate depression who is currently on an effective dose of lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add fluoxetine combined with olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - What are the accurate statements about the renal and biochemical complications associated with...

    Incorrect

    • What are the accurate statements about the renal and biochemical complications associated with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients usually have normal albumin levels

      Explanation:

      Infection may be indicated by low serum albumin levels, as the body shifts its production from albumin to acute phase proteins. It is important to note that normal albumin levels should not be relied upon as a marker of nutritional status, as patients with anorexia may still have normal levels despite electrolyte imbalances. Additionally, eGFR may overestimate renal function in these patients due to low muscle mass. Binge-purge anorexia carries a higher risk of electrolyte disturbance, particularly hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia, due to induced vomiting and subsequent loss of hydrogen ions and potassium in the urine.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - The patient inquires about the likelihood of developing neutropenia while taking clozapine. What...

    Incorrect

    • The patient inquires about the likelihood of developing neutropenia while taking clozapine. What is the estimated risk of neutropenia associated with the use of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - Which symptom is not commonly linked to PTSD? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which symptom is not commonly linked to PTSD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Common signs of PTSD may include:

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - What factors during pregnancy can cause fingernail hypoplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factors during pregnancy can cause fingernail hypoplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - What is the average suicide rate in the general population of England? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average suicide rate in the general population of England?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The suicide rate for mental health service users in England is ten times higher than the average suicide rate for the general population, with 1 in 1000 individuals taking their own lives.

      2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What is a true statement about women who experience postnatal depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about women who experience postnatal depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Associated with lack of support from the partner

      Explanation:

      Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression

      Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.

      Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.

      Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A reduction in the quantity of leukocytes is known as: ...

    Incorrect

    • A reduction in the quantity of leukocytes is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukopenia

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of granulocytes, a type of white blood cell that includes neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - What structure has been linked to the development of post traumatic stress disorder?...

    Incorrect

    • What structure has been linked to the development of post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amygdala

      Explanation:

      Aetiology of Post Traumatic Stress Disorder

      Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing of witnessing a traumatic event. The aetiology of PTSD is complex and involves various factors, including changes in cortisol levels and alterations in brain structures.

      Studies have shown that individuals with PTSD have lower ambient cortisol levels than normal, which has been attributed to chronic adrenal exhaustion resulting from the inhibition of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis by persistent severe anxiety. This suggests that the stress response system in individuals with PTSD may be dysregulated, leading to abnormal cortisol levels.

      Two brain structures, the amygdala and the hippocampus, have also been implicated in the aetiology of PTSD. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, particularly fear, and is hyperactive in individuals with PTSD. This hyperactivity may contribute to the intense fear and anxiety experienced by individuals with PTSD. The hippocampus, which is involved in memory processing, is also affected in individuals with PTSD. Studies have shown that the hippocampus is smaller in individuals with PTSD, which may contribute to the difficulty in recalling traumatic events and the intrusive memories associated with PTSD.

      Overall, the aetiology of PTSD is multifactorial and involves changes in cortisol levels and alterations in brain structures, particularly the amygdala and hippocampus. Understanding these underlying mechanisms is crucial for developing effective treatments for individuals with PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - What would be an appropriate treatment option for a patient with panic disorder...

    Incorrect

    • What would be an appropriate treatment option for a patient with panic disorder who has been taking citalopram for four months without improvement and is interested in trying a different medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      After a 12 week trial of an SSRI with no improvement, NICE recommends switching to a different type of antidepressant such as imipramine of clomipramine.

      Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.

      Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      PTSD can develop from a single traumatic event, such as a car accident, of from ongoing and repeated trauma, such as childhood abuse. The latter is known as complex PTSD. However, there is some discussion about whether complex PTSD and borderline personality disorder are distinct conditions, as they have many similar symptoms.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following is not a consistent predictor of a poor outcome...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a consistent predictor of a poor outcome in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Comorbid depressive disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Prognosis: Factors Predicting Poor Outcome

      Several factors have been identified that predict a poor outcome for individuals with schizophrenia. These include being male, having an early age of onset, experiencing a prolonged period of untreated illness, and having severe cognitive and negative symptoms. These symptoms can include difficulties with memory, attention, and decision-making, as well as a lack of motivation, emotional expression, and social functioning. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia to receive early and effective treatment to improve their chances of a better outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causes inhibition of the P450 system

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort is recognized as a substance that stimulates the P450 system.

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - Which condition is believed to be linked to puerperal psychosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is believed to be linked to puerperal psychosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period

      The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.

      However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.

      Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - Which treatment option is not suggested by the Maudsley Guidelines to enhance the...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment option is not suggested by the Maudsley Guidelines to enhance the effectiveness of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines, there is insufficient evidence to support the use of olanzapine as an addition to treatment, and it may worsen metabolic side effects.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - Which antidepressant medication, as per NICE Guidelines, necessitates hematological monitoring (FBC) for elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which antidepressant medication, as per NICE Guidelines, necessitates hematological monitoring (FBC) for elderly individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mianserin

      Explanation:

      Mianserin is a type of antidepressant that falls under the category of tetracyclic antidepressants. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends that patients undergo a full blood count every four weeks during the first three months of treatment. Even after this initial period, patients should continue to be clinically monitored. If any signs of infection, such as fever, sore throat, of stomatitis, develop, treatment should be stopped and a full blood count should be obtained.

      In 1979, there were reports of blood dyscrasias associated with mianserin, including neutropenia/leukopenia and agranulocytosis, which led to fatalities. The elderly population was particularly affected, with an excess of cases and deaths reported in this group. The estimated rate of agranulocytosis was between 1:2000 and 1:4000 exposures. These findings were controversial, and the manufacturer even went to court to prevent the drug withdrawal in the UK.

      Due to the risk of blood dyscrasias, mianserin requires close haematological monitoring for at least the first three months of use, especially in the elderly population. This monitoring requirement limits the drug’s usefulness in this group, even though it lacks cardiotoxicity.

      Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:

      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
      – Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
      – After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
      – Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
      – Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.

      The stepped care approach involves the following steps:

      – Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.

      Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.

      NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.

      NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.

      When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.

      The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A middle-aged woman experiences a sudden loss of vision after witnessing her husband...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman experiences a sudden loss of vision after witnessing her husband get knocked down by a car. No medical cause can be found to explain this. She is surprisingly unconcerned by her symptoms.
      Select the most likely diagnosis:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dissociative neurological symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      The apparent disregard for her visual impairment is indicative of La belle indifference, a common characteristic of conversion disorder. Based on this presentation, a possible diagnosis according to the ICD-11 would be dissociative neurological symptom disorder with accompanying visual disturbances.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a child developing schizophrenia...

    Incorrect

    • According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a child developing schizophrenia if they have an affected parent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 13%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is not considered a characteristic of anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient with anorexia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low cortisol

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is marked by prolonged hypercortisolism, with increased levels of free cortisol in both the plasma and CSF. Dexamethasone typically fails to suppress cortisol in individuals with anorexia.

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - What is a true statement about catatonia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about catatonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with schizophrenia who develop catatonia are less likely to respond to treatment than those with mood disorders

      Explanation:

      Catatonia can occur in both functional mental illnesses like schizophrenia and general medical conditions such as infections, drug withdrawal, and endocrine disorders. The primary treatment for catatonia is benzodiazepines, with a typical response time of 3-7 days. If benzodiazepines are ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be necessary. However, patients with schizophrenia are less likely to respond to either treatment compared to those with mood disorders.

      Catatonia Treatment

      Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - How would NICE recommend augmenting treatment for a patient with depression who is...

    Incorrect

    • How would NICE recommend augmenting treatment for a patient with depression who is already taking an SSRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:

      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
      – Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
      – After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
      – Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
      – Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.

      The stepped care approach involves the following steps:

      – Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.

      Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.

      NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.

      NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.

      When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.

      The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - Which tricyclic antidepressant should breastfeeding women avoid using? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which tricyclic antidepressant should breastfeeding women avoid using?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxepin

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 32 - You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum...

    Incorrect

    • You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum levels for different medications. Which of the following falls outside the typical range for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium - 1.3 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Here are some possible ways to rewrite the given optimal therapeutic ranges:

      – The recommended therapeutic levels for olanzapine are between 20 and 40 nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).
      – To achieve optimal treatment outcomes, clozapine levels should be maintained within the range of 350 to 500 ng/mL.
      – The therapeutic window for quetiapine spans from 100 to 1000 ng/mL, depending on the patient’s condition and response.
      – Valproate therapy is typically effective when the serum concentration falls between 50 and 100 micrograms per milliliter (mcg/mL).

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 33 - According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a parent developing schizophrenia...

    Incorrect

    • According to Gottesman (1982), what is the risk of a parent developing schizophrenia if they have an affected child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors

      Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.

      While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.

      Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.

      Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.

      Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - What therapy is founded on Otto Kernberg's idea of 'borderline personality organization'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What therapy is founded on Otto Kernberg's idea of 'borderline personality organization'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transference focused psychotherapy

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder (Borderline)

      History and Terminology

      The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.

      Features

      The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.

      Abuse

      Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.

      comorbidity

      Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.

      Psychological Therapy

      Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.

      NICE Guidelines

      The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 35 - Among which group did the AESOP study report the least occurrence of psychosis?...

    Incorrect

    • Among which group did the AESOP study report the least occurrence of psychosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: White British

      Explanation:

      The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.

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  • Question 36 - If a woman with a history of mild depression comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • If a woman with a history of mild depression comes to the clinic and reports that she is pregnant, and has been in remission for 5 months after taking sertraline 50mg, what would you suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdraw the sertraline and monitor

      Explanation:

      Although sertraline can be used to treat depression during pregnancy, it is important to note that no psychotropic medication is completely safe. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid medication if possible and carefully consider the risk versus benefit. In cases of mild depression, it may be reasonable to explore non-medication options.

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 37 - What is the rate of spontaneous abortion among pregnancies that have been confirmed?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rate of spontaneous abortion among pregnancies that have been confirmed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - A 38-year-old female patient presents with a 2-year history of low mood. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient presents with a 2-year history of low mood. She reports feeling intermittently low for approximately half of the days each month and during this time she feels tired and disinterested in life but manages to keep going albeit with tremendous effort. When low she says that it can be a bit difficult to control her worrying thoughts and that she feels ‘on edge’, but denies sympathetic autonomic symptoms. She is tearful during interview but shows mood reactivity. She is passively but not actively suicidal.

      She denies any history of mania or hypomania and there is no family history of mood disturbance. Aside from having hypertension and gout she is medically fit.

      She reports that her symptoms have been quite consistent throughout the preceding 2-year period and denies any previous history of low mood. She denies insomnia, significant issues with concentration, and appetite disturbance.

      Which of the following ICD-11 diagnoses would best apply?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate diagnosis according to ICD-11 would be mixed depressive and anxiety disorder due to the presence of symptoms related to both anxiety and depression. The evidence is insufficient to diagnose either a depressive episode of generalised anxiety disorder. The symptoms in this case are limited to half the days of each month, which is not pervasive enough for a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder of a depressive episode. Dysthymic disorder is not applicable as the duration of symptoms is less than two years. If anxiety symptoms were absent, the diagnosis would be ‘other specified depressive disorders’ until the two-year duration criterion is met.

      Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.

      For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.

      Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.

      Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.

      Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.

      Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - What is a true statement about eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When treating anorexia nervosa, helping people to reach a healthy body weight of BMI for their age is a key goal

      Explanation:

      A key objective in the treatment of anorexia nervosa is to assist individuals in achieving a healthy body weight of BMI appropriate for their age. It is not recommended to rely solely on screening tools like SCOFF to diagnose eating disorders. While eating disorders can occur at any age, it is important to note that the risk is greatest for adolescents between the ages of 13 and 17, particularly young men and women. It is not advisable to use a single metric such as BMI of duration of illness to determine whether treatment for an eating disorder is necessary.

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - A young adult with schizophrenia is seeking advice on antipsychotic medication and expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult with schizophrenia is seeking advice on antipsychotic medication and expresses concern about developing high blood pressure due to a family history. Which antipsychotic is known to have the strongest association with hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Hypertension

      Clozapine is the antipsychotic that is most commonly linked to hypertension. However, it is important to note that essential hypertension is not a contraindication for any antipsychotic medication. Therefore, no antipsychotics should be avoided in patients with essential hypertension.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 41 - In the management of acute mania in adult patients, NICE recommends which of...

    Incorrect

    • In the management of acute mania in adult patients, NICE recommends which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 42 - A young man who still experiences seizures during his sleep is interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A young man who still experiences seizures during his sleep is interested in reapplying for his driver's license. He has had seizures during the day in the past, but it has been a while since his last one. What guidance would you provide him with regarding reapplying for his license?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can reapply as long as she has not had a seizure during the day for 3 years

      Explanation:

      Driving is still an option for individuals experiencing nocturnal seizures. Those who have solely experienced nocturnal seizures can reapply for their license after a 12-month period. However, if they have experienced both nocturnal and diurnal seizures, they must wait for 3 years without a diurnal seizure before reapplying.

      Epilepsy and Driving Regulations in the UK

      If an individual has experienced epileptic seizures while awake and lost consciousness, they can apply for a car of motorbike licence if they haven’t had a seizure for at least a year. However, if the seizure was due to a change in medication, they can apply when the seizure occurred more than six months ago if they are back on their old medication.

      In the case of a one-off seizure while awake and lost consciousness, the individual can apply for a licence after six months if there have been no further seizures.

      If an individual has experienced seizures while asleep and awake, they may still qualify for a licence if the only seizures in the past three years have been while asleep.

      If an individual has only had seizures while asleep, they may qualify for a licence if it has been 12 months of more since their first seizure.

      Seizures that do not affect consciousness may still qualify for a licence if the seizures do not involve loss of consciousness and the last seizure occurred at least 12 months ago.

      It is important to note that the rules for bus, coach, and lorry licences differ. For these licences, an individual must be seizure-free for 10 years if they have had more than one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication. If they have only had one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication, they must be seizure-free for five years.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 43 - What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can cause a cleft lip when used during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      By week 12 of embryonic development, the lip and palate region is usually completely developed. Cleft lip and palate are primarily caused by the use of anticonvulsants, benzodiazepines, and steroids as medications.

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 44 - What is a true statement about medication prescribed for insomnia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about medication prescribed for insomnia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolerance to the hypnotic effects of benzodiazepines may occur within a few days

      Explanation:

      Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.

      Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 45 - Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indifference to praise and criticism

      Explanation:

      Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 46 - Which medication(s) may lead to hypertension, as cautioned by NICE guidelines for healthcare...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication(s) may lead to hypertension, as cautioned by NICE guidelines for healthcare providers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:

      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
      – Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
      – After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
      – Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
      – Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.

      The stepped care approach involves the following steps:

      – Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.

      Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.

      NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.

      NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.

      When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.

      The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 47 - What is a true statement about self harm? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about self harm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Older people who self-harm often have a degree of suicidal intent

      Explanation:

      Self Harm in Older Adults

      Self harm in older adults should be taken very seriously as it often indicates suicidal intent. The NICE guidelines on Self Harm (2004) recommend that all acts of self-harm in people over 65 years of age should be regarded as evidence of suicidal intent until proven otherwise. This is because the number of older adults who complete suicide is much higher than in younger adults.

      Unfortunately, many individuals who self-harm never receive psychiatric care and are discharged from emergency departments without any psychosocial needs assessment. This is contrary to the 2004 recommendations by the UK’s National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) for those who self-harm.

      Self harm can take many forms, including overdose, cutting, burning, hitting of mutilating body parts, and attempted hanging of strangulation. It is important to recognize the signs of self harm and provide appropriate support and care to those who engage in this behavior.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - What is a true statement about dissociative disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about dissociative disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The onset is usually acute

      Explanation:

      Dissociative disorders involve an involuntary disturbance of interruption in the usual integration of various aspects such as identity, sensations, perceptions, emotions, thoughts, memories, bodily movements, of behavior. This disruption can be complete of partial and may vary in intensity over time. The condition usually develops suddenly.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 49 - Which medication is most likely to reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is most likely to reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Mood stabilisers and contraception: Some anticonvulsants/mood stabilisers can interfere with contraception, such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, and topiramate. However, others like valproate, lamotrigine, gabapentin, and lithium do not tend to cause this problem and are preferred for women using contraception. It is important to note that valproate should only be used in girls and women of childbearing potential if other treatments are ineffective of not tolerated, as judged by an experienced specialist. Additionally, valproate is contraindicated in girls and women of childbearing potential unless the conditions of the valproate pregnancy prevention programme (‘prevent’) are met.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - Which of the following is an unrecognized physical complication of anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an unrecognized physical complication of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 51 - What is a correct statement about the epidemiological catchment area study? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about the epidemiological catchment area study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The survey instrument used was the Diagnostic Interview Schedule

      Explanation:

      The DIS was the survey instrument used in the Epidemiological Catchment Area Study, which was conducted in the United States.

      Epidemiological Catchment Area Study: A Landmark Community-Based Survey

      The Epidemiological Catchment Area Study (ECA) was a significant survey conducted in five US communities from 1980-1985. The study included 20,000 participants, with 3000 community residents and 500 residents of institutions sampled in each site. The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used to conduct two interviews over a year with each participant.

      However, the DIS diagnosis of schizophrenia was not consistent with psychiatrists’ classification, with only 20% of cases identified by the DIS in the Baltimore ECA site matching the psychiatrist’s diagnosis. Despite this, the ECA produced valuable findings, including a lifetime prevalence rate of 32.3% for any disorder, 16.4% for substance misuse disorder, 14.6% for anxiety disorder, 8.3% for affective disorder, 1.5% for schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder, and 0.1% for somatization disorder.

      The ECA also found that phobia had a one-month prevalence of 12.5%, generalized anxiety and depression had a prevalence of 8.5%, obsessive-compulsive disorder had a prevalence of 2.5%, and panic had a prevalence of 1.6%. Overall, the ECA was a landmark community-based survey that provided valuable insights into the prevalence of mental disorders in the US.

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  • Question 52 - What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action for treating mania in a 15 year old female?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 53 - What is the recommended initial treatment for a patient with generalised anxiety disorder...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended initial treatment for a patient with generalised anxiety disorder who has not shown improvement with psychological therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      If Sertraline were included in the list of options, it would be a preferable choice.

      Anxiety (NICE guidelines)

      The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.

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  • Question 54 - A 42-year-old man is evaluated by an occupational health physician for prolonged absence...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is evaluated by an occupational health physician for prolonged absence from work. He reports persistent lower back pain as the reason for his inability to work, but the physician notes discrepancies in his physical examination and suspects a non-organic etiology. Upon further questioning, the man confesses to intentionally exaggerating his symptoms to avoid his bullying boss. What is the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Both factitious disorder and malingering involve the deliberate manifestation of symptoms, but the latter is characterized by the presence of a motive for personal gain, while the former is not.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 55 - Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an atypical characteristic of paranoid personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unusual perceptual disturbances

      Explanation:

      Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by atypical perceptual experiences.

      Paranoid Personality Disorder is a type of personality disorder where individuals have a deep-seated distrust and suspicion of others, often interpreting their actions as malevolent. This disorder is characterized by a pattern of negative interpretations of others’ words, actions, and intentions, leading to a reluctance to confide in others and holding grudges for long periods of time. The DSM-5 criteria for this disorder include at least four of the following symptoms: unfounded suspicions of exploitation, harm, of deception by others, preoccupation with doubts about the loyalty of trustworthiness of friends of associates, reluctance to confide in others due to fear of malicious use of information, reading negative meanings into benign remarks of events, persistent grudges, perceiving attacks on one’s character of reputation that are not apparent to others and reacting angrily of counterattacking, and recurrent suspicions of infidelity in a partner without justification. The ICD-11 does not have a specific category for paranoid personality disorder but covers many of its features under the negative affectivity qualifier under the element of mistrustfulness.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old patient with schizophrenia is found motionless in his bed at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with schizophrenia is found motionless in his bed at home. His sister tells you that he has been that way for a week. He is brought to hospital and will not accept food of fluids and just repeats what you say back to you when you ask him questions. His blood pressure is 170/110 mmhg and pulse is 88 bpm. in the past he had poor compliance on medication. Recently he was on clozapine which he had stopped a month ago. Which of the following would be the most appropriate ways to manage this situation?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Provide a course of ECT

      Explanation:

      The man’s symptoms suggest that he may be experiencing catatonia, as he is displaying immobility, echolalia, has a history of schizophrenia, and may have stopped taking clozapine. It is alarming that he is not consuming food of water, and urgent action is necessary to prevent a potentially fatal outcome. In cases of acute catatonia, antipsychotics are typically avoided, and benzodiazepines could be considered as a treatment option (although they are not listed as choices in the question). Given the man’s risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be a reasonable recommendation.

      Catatonia Treatment

      Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 57 - Which trial did not show any advantage of the assertive outreach intensive case...

    Incorrect

    • Which trial did not show any advantage of the assertive outreach intensive case management system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: UK700

      Explanation:

      UK700 Trial on Assertive Community Treatment

      Assertive community treatment was created to assist patients who have difficulty staying out of the hospital to live more successfully in the community. The UK700 case management trial aimed to determine if enhanced outcomes could be achieved under CPA by reducing case-load size. The trial tested the hypothesis that reducing CPA case-loads to 10-15 patients (intensive case management) would result in less hospitalization. However, the findings did not support the hypothesis.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 58 - What changes in the blood profile are anticipated in a patient diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • What changes in the blood profile are anticipated in a patient diagnosed with bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 59 - What factor is most likely to cause dyslipidaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to cause dyslipidaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Dyslipidaemia

      Antipsychotics have been found to have an impact on lipid profile. Among the second generation antipsychotics, olanzapine and clozapine have been shown to have the greatest effect on lipids, followed by quetiapine and risperidone. Aripiprazole and ziprasidone, on the other hand, appear to have minimal effects on lipids.

      Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 60 - What is the minimum time interval required after a suspected paracetamol overdose before...

    Incorrect

    • What is the minimum time interval required after a suspected paracetamol overdose before levels can be measured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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