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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor finds evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.
What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-recessive fashion; de novo presentations are common
Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor, reporting a progressive weakness on the left side of her face for the past 48 hours. What symptom would be indicative of Bell's palsy in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and their Causes
Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing weakness or paralysis on one side of the face. Here are some common symptoms of Bell’s palsy and their causes:
1. Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue: This is due to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which carries taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
2. Deviation of the tongue to the left on tongue protrusion: This is caused by a hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) lesion, which affects the movement of the tongue.
3. Sparing of function of the forehead muscles and eye closure: This occurs with an upper motor neurone lesion, which affects the muscles of facial expression on the whole of one side of the face.
4. Weakened voluntary facial movements but normal spontaneous movements: Bell’s palsy affects both voluntary and involuntary movements equally, but some stroke patients may show relative sparing of spontaneous movements.
5. Inability to close both the right and the left eye: Bell’s palsy refers to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which affects the facial muscles on the side ipsilateral to the lesion only.
Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help in the diagnosis and treatment of Bell’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension and depression has been experiencing severe pins and needles in her hands upon waking in the morning. The patient has worked as a stenographer for the last 25 years, and this sensation has been increasing in intensity over the past 7 years.
What would be the anticipated findings for this patient based on her medical history and symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flattening of the thenar eminence
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Median Nerve Compression in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve is compressed within the carpal tunnel of the wrist. This can lead to a variety of symptoms, including numbness, weakness, and pain in the affected hand and fingers. Here are some common symptoms of median nerve compression in carpal tunnel syndrome and what they mean:
Flattening of the thenar eminence: The thenar eminence is the fleshy area at the base of the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, the muscles in this area may undergo wasting, leading to a flattened appearance.
Numbness over the medial aspect of the ring finger: The median nerve supplies sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, including the ring finger. Numbness in this area may be a sign of median nerve compression.
Inability to abduct the thumb: The abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve, is responsible for abducting the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, this movement may be weakened.
Numbness over the proximal palm: The median nerve gives off a palmar cutaneous branch before entering the carpal tunnel. This branch supplies sensation to the proximal palm and is therefore unaffected by median nerve compression.
Normal sensation over the radial aspect of the ring finger: Despite supplying sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, the median nerve does not supply sensation to the dorsal aspect of the interdigital web between the thumb and index finger or the radial aspect of the ring finger. Therefore, sensation in this area would not be affected by median nerve compression.
Understanding these symptoms can help individuals recognize the signs of carpal tunnel syndrome and seek appropriate treatment. Treatment options may include medication, wrist splints, and surgery to release the compressed nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following indicates a psychiatric illness rather than an organic brain disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness
Explanation:Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease
Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. It is important to distinguish between psychiatric and organic brain diseases in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.
According to Prof Anton Helman, a psychiatric emergency can be due to either disease or psychological illness. In order to determine the cause, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Medical mimics of psychotic symptoms can often be mistaken for psychiatric disease, making it crucial to consider all possible causes.
The NHS England’s Mental Health in Older People A Practice Primer emphasizes the importance of recognizing mental health issues in older individuals. While organic brain diseases are more common in this population, psychiatric diseases can also occur and should not be overlooked. By the typical features of psychiatric disease and differentiating them from organic brain disease, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that have been occurring on and off for the past few months. She reports experiencing episodes of weakness accompanied by rapid, involuntary movements of her arms. Additionally, she has been experiencing persistent tingling sensations, occasional double vision, electric shocks down her arms and trunk when she flexes her neck, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, what would be the most appropriate initial test to diagnose her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI
Explanation:Diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis: The Importance of MRI
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a debilitating disease that affects many individuals, particularly women. Symptoms can range from spastic weakness to loss of vision, making it difficult to diagnose. However, the first line investigation for somebody with MS is an MRI of the brain and spinal cord. This is because MRI is much more sensitive for picking up inflammation and demyelination than a CT scan, and it does not involve irradiation. Additionally, lumbar puncture can be used to detect IgG oligoclonal bands, which are not present in the serum. While other tests such as antibody testing and slit-lamp examination of the eyes may be useful, they are not first line investigations. It is important to diagnose MS early to prevent further damage to myelin sheaths and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about his recent forgetfulness. She also reveals that he has been experiencing hallucinations of small children playing in the house. On examination, there is nothing significant to note except for a mild resting tremor in the hands (right > left).
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Dementia: Lewy Body Dementia, Korsakoff’s Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, Multi-Infarct Dementia, and Pick’s Disease
Lewy Body Dementia: This type of dementia is characterized by memory impairment and parkinsonism. It is caused by the build-up of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, resulting in a movement disorder similar to Parkinson’s disease and memory problems. Visual hallucinations are common, and symptoms often fluctuate. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and levodopa, while neuroleptics are contraindicated.
Korsakoff’s Dementia: This type of dementia is typically associated with alcohol misuse. Patients tend to confabulate and make up information they cannot remember.
Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common type of dementia. However, visual hallucinations and resting tremor are not typical symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.
Multi-Infarct Dementia: This type of dementia is caused by problems that interrupt blood supply to the brain, such as multiple minor and major strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.
Pick’s Disease: Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, this type of dementia is characterized by the patient sometimes losing their inhibitions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old retired pharmacist is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease after being investigated for worsening memory problems and getting lost on his way home from the shops. What is associated with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan = dilation of the sulci and ventricles
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Their Relevance in Alzheimer’s Disease
Computed tomography (CT) brain scan can be used to exclude vascular disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and space-occupying lesions in patients with cognitive decline. In pure Alzheimer’s disease, changes consistent with cerebral atrophy, such as dilated sulci and ventricles, are observed.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein levels of 0.5-1.0 g/l are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate bacterial or viral meningitis.
An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 100 mm/hour is not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may be significant in multiple myeloma or vasculitis.
Hemoglobin levels of 85 g/l and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 112 fl suggest macrocytic anemia, which requires further investigation and is most likely due to B12 or folate deficiency.
CSF white cells of 100-150 neutrophils/mm3 are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate meningitis.
Understanding the Relevance of Diagnostic Tests in Alzheimer’s Disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. He had not experienced any recent foreign travel or trauma. Upon examination, he had a fever but no rash or focal neurology. The medical team suspected bacterial meningitis and began treatment. They also requested a lumbar puncture. What is the appropriate spinal level and dural space for the needle to be advanced to during a lumbar puncture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space
Explanation:Proper Placement for Lumbar Puncture
The ideal location for a lumbar puncture is between L3 and L4, as this avoids the risk of piercing the spinal cord. To locate this area, a line is drawn across the superior aspect of the posterior iliac crests. The purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. However, there are contraindications to this procedure, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to coning and respiratory arrest.
It is important to note that advancing the needle too high, such as between L1 and L2, can pose a risk to the spinal cord. Additionally, the epidural space is too superficial to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore, proper placement between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space, is crucial for a safe and successful lumbar puncture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned pregnancy. She has a history of grand mal epilepsy for two years and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has not had any seizures for the past six months and wishes to continue with the pregnancy if it is safe for her and the baby. She is concerned about the effects of her anticonvulsant therapy on the fetus and seeks advice on how to proceed. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue with carbamazepine
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants tend to fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Vitamin K should be given to the mother prior to delivery. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease comes in with sudden shaking, vertigo, and upward eye movement. What could be the probable reason for his abrupt onset?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Explanation:Oculogyric Crisis
Oculogyric crisis is a common ocular dystonic reaction that often occurs as a side effect of neuroleptic drug treatment. This condition is characterized by a sustained upward deviation of the eyes, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as restlessness, agitation, malaise, and a fixed stare. The onset of a crisis may be paroxysmal or stuttering over several hours, and the eyes may also converge, deviate upward and laterally, or deviate downward.
In addition to the ocular symptoms, oculogyric crisis may also be associated with other findings such as backwards and lateral flexion of the neck, widely opened mouth, tongue protrusion, and ocular pain. The causes or triggering factors of this condition include various medications such as neuroleptics, benzodiazepines, and tricyclics, as well as medical conditions like postencephalitic Parkinson’s, Tourette’s syndrome, multiple sclerosis, neurosyphilis, and head trauma.
It is important to recognize and manage oculogyric crisis promptly to prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes. Healthcare providers should be aware of the medications and medical conditions that may trigger this condition and monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of oculogyric crisis. Treatment options may include discontinuing the offending medication, administering anticholinergic or antihistaminic agents, or using benzodiazepines or other sedatives to manage symptoms. With proper management, most patients with oculogyric crisis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What do muscarinic receptors refer to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholinergic receptors
Explanation:Muscarinic Receptors: A Subclass of Cholinergic Receptors
Muscarinic receptors are a type of cholinergic receptors that are responsible for a variety of functions in the body. They are divided into five subclasses based on their location, namely M1-5. M1, M4, and M5 are found in the central nervous system and are involved in complex functions such as memory, analgesia, and arousal. M2 is located on cardiac muscle and helps reduce conduction velocity at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes, thereby lowering heart rate. M3, on the other hand, is found on smooth muscle, including bronchial tissue, bladder, and exocrine glands, and is responsible for a variety of responses.
It is important to note that muscarinic receptors are a subclass of cholinergic receptors, with the other subclass being nicotinic receptors. Adrenergic receptors, on the other hand, bind to adrenaline, while dopaminergic receptors bind to dopamine. Glutamatergic receptors bind to glutamate, and histamine receptors bind to histamine. the different types of receptors and their functions is crucial in the development of drugs and treatments for various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old gentleman is admitted following a fall with a painful right knee. He has a history of osteoarthritis and atrial fibrillation (AF). Prior to admission, he was independent and living alone. While in the Emergency Department, he gives a history of falling on his knee. Staff reported an incident of urinary incontinence while in their care. No seizure activity was reported. While on the ward, he becomes sleepy but arousable. Later in the night, the nurses state he is no longer opening his eyes to voices and is making incomprehensible noises.
What is the most important potential diagnosis which requires exclusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Subdural Haematoma: Vital Clues and Differential Diagnoses
Acute subdural haematoma is a serious neurosurgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention. Elderly patients and those on anticoagulant medications are at higher risk. A fluctuating conscious level in an elderly patient should raise suspicion. Vital clues from the patient’s history, such as a history of AF and fall, episode of urinary incontinence, and rapid drop in conscious level, should be considered. Urgent computed tomography (CT) brain imaging is necessary to exclude this diagnosis.
Other possible diagnoses, such as stroke, postictal state, obstructive sleep apnoea, and hypoglycaemia, may present with similar symptoms. However, given the history of a recent fall and deteriorating GCS, an intracranial event must be investigated. Checking the patient’s capillary glucose level is reasonable, but excluding an acute subdural haematoma is paramount.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to her general practitioner because of a tremor she has noticed in her left hand over the past few months. On examination, she has subtle dysarthria and a wide-based gait. When the doctor passively moves her left elbow, he notices hypertonia which is independent of whether he moves her elbows slowly or briskly. She has a history of bipolar disorder and was started on olanzapine by her psychiatrist 2 weeks ago.
Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24-h urine collection
Explanation:Investigations for Wilson’s Disease: Understanding the Different Tests
Wilson’s disease is a rare disorder of copper metabolism that affects young people and can cause neurologic and psychiatric symptoms, as well as hepatic damage. To confirm a diagnosis of Wilson’s disease, a 24-hour urine collection is the investigation of choice. This test quantifies copper excretion, and a value of >0.64 μmol in a 24-hour period is suggestive of Wilson’s disease. Additionally, a Dat scan can be used as an ancillary test to confirm a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease, but it is less likely to be useful in cases of Wilson’s disease. Urine toxicology is a reasonable test to perform on almost anyone presenting with neurologic symptoms, but toxic ingestion is less likely to account for Wilson’s disease. A CT brain is useful for looking for evidence of haemorrhage, trauma or large intracranial mass lesions, but an MRI brain is the neuroimaging of choice for Wilson’s disease as it provides greater soft tissue detail. EEG is not useful as a confirmatory test for Wilson’s disease, but it can be used to look for evidence of seizure activity or to look for areas of cortical hyperexcitability that might predispose to future seizures.
Understanding the Different Investigations for Wilson’s Disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman complains of weakness and difficulty breathing. These symptoms have been getting worse over the last three months and have now become so severe that she is unable to work. She has no history of any medical conditions.
During the examination, the patient appears pale. The only notable finding is a strange involuntary movement of her fingers when she closes her eyes. Her blood film shows the presence of multi-lobed neutrophils.
What clinical feature might be observed in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal haemorrhage
Explanation:Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Dorsal Column Signs
This patient is presenting with megaloblastic anaemia and dorsal column signs, specifically pseudoathetosis due to loss of proprioceptive input from the hands. These symptoms suggest a possible vitamin B12 deficiency, which may also be indicated by the presence of multilobed neutrophils and retinal haemorrhages. While absent ankle jerks and extensor plantar reflex are common in B12 deficiency, cerebellar symptoms and hemiplegia are not typically associated with this condition. Instead, these symptoms may be indicative of multiple sclerosis, which can also present with dorsal column signs. Glossitis or beefy tongue may be present in B12 deficiency, along with other oral features like angular stomatitis or cheilitis in cases of multiple vitamin deficiencies. While retinal haemorrhage is a rare manifestation of B12 deficiency, other rare features may include optic atrophy, generalized hyperpigmentation, and dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital headache while decorating at home. She experienced vomiting and a brief loss of consciousness. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score is 15, and she has a normal physical exam except for an abrasion on her right temple. She is afebrile, has a blood pressure of 146/84 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute. What investigation would be the most beneficial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan
Explanation:Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
The sudden onset of a severe headache in a young woman, accompanied by vomiting and loss of consciousness, is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage. The most appropriate diagnostic test is a CT scan of the brain to detect any subarachnoid blood. However, if the CT scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed as it can detect approximately 10% of cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage that may have been missed by the CT scan. It is important to diagnose subarachnoid haemorrhage promptly as it can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying the symptoms and conducting the appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations
Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:
1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.
2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.
3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.
4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.
5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.
6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.
By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old homeless individual is brought to the emergency department after being found vomiting. Upon examination, the patient appears confused and disoriented, with unkempt appearance and slurred speech. However, the patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14. Vital signs include a pulse of 108 bpm, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, and blood pressure of 124/78 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory exams are normal, with mild epigastric tenderness on abdominal exam. The patient has a broad-based gait and bilateral nystagmus with weakness of abduction of the eyes. Reflexes, power, and tone are generally normal with flexor plantar responses. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition caused by thiamine deficiency, which can be life-threatening if not treated urgently. This condition is often seen in alcoholics or malnourished individuals and can even occur during pregnancy due to hyperemesis gravidarum. The classic triad of symptoms includes ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia.
It is crucial to differentiate Wernicke’s encephalopathy from alcohol intoxication as the former requires immediate thiamine replacement. The recommended treatment is either oral thiamine 300 mg/24h or, preferably, intravenous Pabrinex. If left untreated, the condition can rapidly progress to irreversible Korsakoff’s psychosis due to haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent irreversible neurological damage. It is essential to be aware of the classic triad of symptoms and to differentiate it from alcohol intoxication to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. During the examination, a purpuric rash is observed on the trunk and limbs.
What condition is this patient at risk for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome
Explanation:Medical Syndromes and Their Characteristics
Waterhouse–Friderichsen Syndrome: This syndrome is caused by acute meningococcal sepsis due to Neisseria meningitidis. It can lead to sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), endotoxic shock, and acute primary adrenal failure.
Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome: This syndrome results from a gastrinoma, which leads to recurrent peptic ulcers.
Osler–Weber–Rendu Disease: Also known as hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, this disease results in multiple telangiectasias and arteriovenous shunting of blood.
Fitz–Hugh–Curtis Syndrome: This is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease, resulting in liver capsule inflammation.
Cushing Syndrome: This syndrome is due to excess cortisol, which causes hypertension, central obesity, striae, a moon face, and muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms
Explanation:Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.
For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.
However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.
For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.
Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the neuronal factor that influences the velocity of action potential transmission?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axon myelination
Explanation:Factors Affecting Action Potential Speed in Neurons
Action potential speed in neurons is influenced by various structural factors. The diameter and length of the axon determine the amount of resistance an action potential will encounter during propagation. Axonal myelination is another important factor that increases the speed of action potentials by enabling saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier. Myelin sheaths, which are electrically insulating materials that wrap around axons, cause action potentials to propagate via saltatory conduction, thus increasing their speed. Additionally, the kinetics of voltage-gated ion channels, especially sodium and potassium, play a critical role in the generation of action potentials.
On the other hand, there are factors that do not affect the propagation speed of an action potential. The number of dendrites a neuron has only affects the transmission of action potentials between neurons. The type of neurotransmitter and receptor type only influence the ultimate outcome of the action potential, but not its speed. Similarly, the postsynaptic potential only promotes or inhibits action potentials, but does not affect their speed of conduction.
In summary, the speed of action potentials in neurons is determined by structural factors such as axon diameter and length, axonal myelination, and the kinetics of voltage-gated ion channels. Other factors such as the number of dendrites, type of neurotransmitter and receptor, and postsynaptic potential do not affect the speed of action potential propagation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with an ‘ape hand’ deformity after being stabbed in his arm. Upon examination, he is found to have median nerve damage and is unable to abduct his thumb. What other function is likely to be impaired in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensation to the second and third digits
Explanation:Understanding Nerve Injuries: Implications for Sensation and Movement
Nerve injuries can have significant implications for both sensation and movement. One common example is the ape hand deformity, which occurs following a median nerve injury and results in an inability to abduct the thumb. In addition to this motor deficit, the median nerve also provides sensation to the dorsal aspect of the distal first two digits, the volar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the fourth digit, as well as the palm and medial aspect of the forearm.
Other nerve injuries can affect different aspects of movement and sensation. For example, the radial nerve innervates the extensor muscles of the wrist, while the ulnar nerve provides sensation to the fifth digit and controls the palmar interossei muscles responsible for finger adduction. Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint is controlled by the axillary nerve (deltoid muscle) and suprascapular nerve (supraspinatus muscle).
Understanding the specific nerve involved in an injury can help clinicians predict the potential deficits a patient may experience and develop appropriate treatment plans to address them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy spends the night out with his buddies, drinking 7 pints of beer and a few shots of whiskey. He dozes off in his friend's kitchen with his arm hanging over the back of a chair. The next morning, he experiences tenderness in his right armpit area and is unable to straighten his fingers. What other symptom is he likely to exhibit with this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Numbness over the dorsal aspect of the right hand between the thumb and index finger
Explanation:Understanding Hand Numbness and Weakness: A Guide to Nerve Supply
Hand numbness and weakness can be caused by nerve injuries in various locations. The radial nerve, a branch of the brachial plexus, can be injured in the axillary region, humerus, or forearm, resulting in numbness over the dorsal aspect of the hand between the thumb and index finger. The ulnar nerve supplies the little finger and adductor pollicis, while the median nerve innervates the palm and radial lumbricals. Understanding the nerve supply can aid in diagnosing and treating hand numbness and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He has been intermittently treated with varying doses of oral prednisolone and chloroquine. On this occasion, he complains of drooping and weakness affecting the left-hand side of his face, blurred vision, thirst and polyuria. On examination, he has a left facial nerve palsy.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 149 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Ca2+ corrected 2.21 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Random glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 36 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Which of the following diagnoses fit best with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurosarcoidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurological Symptoms: Neurosarcoidosis, Bacterial Meningitis, Bell’s Palsy, Viral Meningitis, and Intracerebral Abscess
A man with a history of sarcoidosis presents with neurological symptoms, including polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision. These symptoms suggest the possibility of cranial diabetes insipidus, a consequence of neurosarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia and hyperglycemia are ruled out as potential causes based on normal glucose and calcium levels. Treatment for neurosarcoidosis typically involves oral corticosteroids and immunosuppressant agents.
Bacterial meningitis, which presents with headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia, is ruled out as there is no evidence of infection. Bell’s palsy, an isolated facial nerve palsy, does not explain the patient’s other symptoms. Viral meningitis, which also presents with photophobia, neck stiffness, and headache, is unlikely as the patient’s white blood cell count is normal. An intracerebral abscess, which typically presents with headache and fever, is unlikely to produce the other symptoms experienced by the patient.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for this patient’s neurological symptoms includes neurosarcoidosis, bacterial meningitis, Bell’s palsy, viral meningitis, and intracerebral abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent
Explanation:Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.
One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.
Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.
Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.
Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hoarseness in her voice for a few weeks. She underwent a thyroidectomy a decade ago. During the examination, the doctor observed decreased breath sounds in the left upper lobe. The patient has a smoking history of 75 pack years and quit five years ago. A chest X-ray revealed an opacity in the left upper lobe. Which cranial nerve is likely to be impacted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagus
Explanation:Cranial Nerves and their Functions: Analysis of a Patient’s Symptoms
This patient is experiencing a hoarse voice and change in pitch, which is likely due to a compression of the vagus nerve caused by an apical lung tumor. The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve and provides innervation to the laryngeal muscles. The other cranial nerves, such as the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal, have different functions and would not be affected by a left upper lobe opacity. Understanding the functions of each cranial nerve can aid in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old left-handed man with permanent atrial fibrillation comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty finding words and weakness in his right arm and leg. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have persisted for 24 hours. He reports no changes in his vision.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS)
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Strokes: PACS, TACS, TIA, POCS, and LACS
Strokes can be classified into different types based on the location and severity of the brain damage. Here are some key features of five common types of strokes:
Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS): This type of stroke affects a part of the brain’s anterior circulation, which supplies blood to the front of the brain. Symptoms may include motor and speech deficits, but not hemianopia (loss of vision in one half of the visual field).
Total anterior circulation syndrome stroke (TACS): This type of stroke affects the entire anterior circulation, leading to a combination of motor deficit, speech deficit, and hemianopia.
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA): This is a temporary episode of neurological symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood flow to the brain. Symptoms typically last no longer than 24 hours.
Posterior circulation syndrome stroke (POCS): This type of stroke affects the posterior circulation, which supplies blood to the back of the brain. Symptoms may include brainstem symptoms and signs arising from cranial nerve lesions, cerebellar signs, or ipsilateral motor/sensory deficits.
Lacunar syndrome stroke (LACS): This type of stroke is caused by a small infarct (tissue damage) in the deep brain structures, such as the internal capsule. Symptoms may include isolated motor or sensory deficits.
Understanding the different types of strokes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. If you or someone you know experiences any symptoms of a stroke, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with a short, but progressive, history of double vision. It is noted by her husband that her speech is worse last thing in the evening. She is a non-smoker and drinks 18 units a week of alcohol.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disease characterized by weakness and fatigability due to antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation can objectively document the fatigability, showing a decrement in the evoked muscle action after repeat stimulation. A CT brain scan is not useful for MG diagnosis, but CT chest imaging is indicated as thymic hyperplasia or tumors are associated with MG. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is rare. Visually evoked potentials are useful for assessing optic nerve function but not for MG diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot drop over two months. He also states that he has begun to drop objects that he was previously able to lift with ease and feels that both of his hands are constantly shaking. He does not have any other medical conditions. He recalls that his brother and father passed away from a neurological disease, of which he does not know the name.
Examination reveals bilateral lower limb weakness. There is hyperreflexia on examination of the knees and ankles. Plantars are upgoing. Examination of the upper limb is pertinent for left arm weakness, in particular in the median and ulnar nerve-innervated hand muscles. Sensation is normal in both upper and lower limbs. A diagnosis of motor neurone disease (MND) (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is being considered.
Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the life expectancy of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Riluzole
Explanation:Riluzole is the only drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in patients with MND, although its exact mechanism of action is not fully understood. Studies have shown that patients who take riluzole have a lower mortality rate compared to those who do not, particularly those with bulbar-onset MND. However, riluzole may cause side effects such as liver damage, gastrointestinal discomfort, and, in rare cases, neutropenia. Baclofen can help manage spasticity in MND patients but does not improve life expectancy. Carbocisteine is a mucolytic that can reduce sputum viscosity and is often used in patients with bulbar symptoms, but it has not been shown to increase life expectancy. Citalopram can treat depression in MND patients but does not affect life expectancy. Memantine, an anti-glutamatergic agent used for severe Alzheimer’s disease, is not recommended for MND patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner for investigation of a headache. On further questioning, she reports a 2- to 3-week history of worsening left-sided pain which is most noticeable when she brushes her hair. She also reports that, more recently, she has noticed blurred vision in her left eye. On examination, she has stiffness of her upper limbs, as well as tenderness to palpation over her left scalp and earlobe. Her past medical history is notable for hypothyroidism.
Which is the diagnostic test of choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterial biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Temporal arthritis: Understanding Their Role in Diagnosis
Temporal arthritis is a condition that affects middle-aged women with a history of autoimmune disease. The most likely diagnostic test for this condition is a biopsy of the temporal artery, which shows granulomatous vasculitis in the artery walls. Treatment involves high-dose steroid therapy to prevent visual loss. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis is unlikely to be helpful, while CT brain is useful for acute haemorrhage or mass lesions. MRA of the brain is performed to assess for intracranial aneurysms, while serum ESR supports but does not confirm a diagnosis of temporal arthritis. Understanding the role of these diagnostic tests is crucial in the accurate diagnosis and treatment of temporal arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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