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Question 1
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 30-year-old teacher who has been referred to the mental health team with suspected bipolar disorder. The psychiatrist has confirmed the diagnosis and prescribed lithium, which has stabilized her condition. They have requested that you take over the monitoring of her medication levels. When you call Sarah to advise her on when to have her lithium levels checked, she cannot recall the specific timing related to her medication. How would you recommend that her medication levels be monitored?
Your Answer: Blood test 6 hours post dose every 3 months
Correct Answer: Blood test 12 hours post dose every 3 months
Explanation:According to NICE, lithium levels should be checked one week after starting treatment, one week after any dose changes, and weekly until stable levels are achieved. Once stable levels are reached, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months, with the sample taken 12 hours after the dose. It is important to note that a trough level taken immediately before a dose is only applicable for certain medications, such as twice-daily clozapine.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant presents to the labour suite with sporadic contractions. She had noticed a mucous plug in her underwear earlier in the day. Upon examination, she appears to be breathing heavily and experiencing some discomfort. The cardiotocography is normal and progressing smoothly. During a vaginal examination, her cervix is estimated to be dilated at 2 cm. What phase of labour is she currently in?
Your Answer: Latent 2nd stage
Correct Answer: Latent 1st stage
Explanation:The correct stage of labour for a woman with a cervix that is just beginning to ripen and dilate is the latent phase of the 1st stage. This stage is characterized by a cervix dilation of 0-3 cm. The active phase of the 1st stage, which is characterized by a cervix dilation of 3-10 cm and more regular contractions, is not applicable in this scenario. The active 2nd stage is also not a descriptive stage of labour, as it only refers to the general stage that ends with the expulsion of the foetus.
Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.
During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old left-handed man with permanent atrial fibrillation comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty finding words and weakness in his right arm and leg. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have persisted for 24 hours. He reports no changes in his vision.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lacunar syndrome stroke (LACS)
Correct Answer: Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS)
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Strokes: PACS, TACS, TIA, POCS, and LACS
Strokes can be classified into different types based on the location and severity of the brain damage. Here are some key features of five common types of strokes:
Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS): This type of stroke affects a part of the brain’s anterior circulation, which supplies blood to the front of the brain. Symptoms may include motor and speech deficits, but not hemianopia (loss of vision in one half of the visual field).
Total anterior circulation syndrome stroke (TACS): This type of stroke affects the entire anterior circulation, leading to a combination of motor deficit, speech deficit, and hemianopia.
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA): This is a temporary episode of neurological symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood flow to the brain. Symptoms typically last no longer than 24 hours.
Posterior circulation syndrome stroke (POCS): This type of stroke affects the posterior circulation, which supplies blood to the back of the brain. Symptoms may include brainstem symptoms and signs arising from cranial nerve lesions, cerebellar signs, or ipsilateral motor/sensory deficits.
Lacunar syndrome stroke (LACS): This type of stroke is caused by a small infarct (tissue damage) in the deep brain structures, such as the internal capsule. Symptoms may include isolated motor or sensory deficits.
Understanding the different types of strokes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. If you or someone you know experiences any symptoms of a stroke, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding gastric acid secretion?
Your Answer: It is inhibited by gastrin
Correct Answer: It is potentiated by histamine
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Acid Secretion: Factors that Stimulate and Inhibit its Production
Gastric acid, also known as stomach acid, is a vital component in the process of digesting food. Composed of hydrochloric acid, potassium chloride, and sodium chloride, it is secreted in the stomach and plays a crucial role in breaking down ingested food contents. In this article, we will explore the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion.
Stimulation of Gastric Acid Secretion
There are three classic phases of gastric acid secretion. The cephalic (preparatory) phase is triggered by the sight, smell, thought, and taste of food acting via the vagus nerve. This results in the production of gastric acid before food actually enters the stomach. The gastric phase is initiated by the presence of food in the stomach, particularly protein-rich food, caused by stimulation of G cells which release gastrin. This is the most important phase. The intestinal phase is stimulated by luminal distension plus the presence of amino acids and food in the duodenum.
Potentiation and Inhibition of Gastric Acid Secretion
Histamine potentiates gastric acid secretion, while gastrin inhibits it. Somatostatin, secretin, and cholecystokinin also inhibit gastric acid production.
Importance of Gastric Acid Secretion
Gastric acid secretion reduces the risk of Zollinger–Ellison syndrome, a condition characterized by excess gastric acid production that can lead to multiple severe gastric ulcers, requiring high-dose antacid treatment. Understanding the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function
The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70-year-old former miner is referred to the psycho-geriatrician by his general practitioner. His daughter is concerned over his increasingly poor memory and difficulty looking after himself particularly in the last month. Two years previously, he was well and an active member of the local Rotary Club. His past medical history includes a myocardial infarction aged 68 years, osteoarthritis of the knees and peripheral vascular disease.
On examination: bibasal fine inspiratory crepitations; right inguinal hernia; left renal bruit.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer: Multi-infarct dementia
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia: Multi-Infarct Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, and More
Dementia is a condition characterized by cognitive decline and disability, affecting memory, personality, and intellect. One type of dementia is multi-infarct dementia, which is caused by repeated small cerebrovascular accidents in the brain. This leads to a stepwise deterioration in cognitive status and is often accompanied by a history of arterial disease. Other types of dementia include frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Alzheimer’s disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). Each type has its own characteristic features, such as frontal lobe features in Pick’s disease, amyloid plaques and tau protein neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer’s disease, and urinary incontinence and gait abnormalities in normal pressure hydrocephalus and sporadic CJD. It is important to identify a reversible cause for dementia at the time of presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 78-year-old male presents to the ophthalmology clinic with a recent complaint of difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at night. His general practitioner referred him for evaluation. During fundoscopy, the doctor observes distinct red patches. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is a lifelong smoker. What is the most probable diagnosis, and what is the most suitable treatment?
Your Answer: Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
Explanation:The most effective treatment for wet AMD is anti-VEGF therapy. Wet age-related macular degeneration, also known as exudative or neovascular macular degeneration, is caused by choroidal neovascularization, which can lead to rapid vision loss due to fluid and blood leakage. Symptoms include reduced visual acuity, particularly for near objects, worse vision at night, and red patches visible on fundoscopy indicating fluid leakage or hemorrhage. Anti-VEGF therapy targets vascular endothelial growth factor, a potent mitogen that increases vascular permeability in patients with wet ARMD, reducing leakage. Treatment should begin as soon as possible to prevent further vision loss.
Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is treated with aspirin and is caused by a variety of conditions, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. It typically presents as a sudden loss of vision, as if a curtain is coming down.
Cataract surgery is the appropriate treatment for cataracts, which cause reduced vision, faded color vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex may be observed on fundoscopy.
High-dose steroids are used to treat optic neuritis, which presents with unilateral vision loss over hours or days, red desaturation, pain, and scotoma.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest X-ray, there are several rounded lesions with alveolar shadowing. Her serum test shows a positive result for cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Pulmonary Granulomas and Positive c-ANCA: A Case Study
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a rare autoimmune disease that often presents with granulomatous lung disease and alveolar capillaritis. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. Chest X-ray and computed tomography can show rounded lesions that may cavitate, while bronchoscopy can reveal granulomatous inflammation. In this case study, the chest radiograph appearances, epistaxis, and positive c-ANCA are more indicative of GPA than lung cancer, echinococcosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, or tuberculosis. While SLE can also cause pulmonary manifestations, cavitating lesions are not typical. Positive c-ANCA is associated with GPA, while SLE is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies, double-stranded DNA antibodies, and extractable nuclear antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with bone pain and muscle tenderness. He has a past medical history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease.
The GP decides to take some blood, and the results are shown below.
Calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.7)
Phosphate 0.72 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.8 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 10.8 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: Vitamin D supplements
Explanation:The appropriate management for osteomalacia, which is likely caused by chronic kidney disease, involves vitamin D supplementation with an initial loading dose regime. Blood tests for osteomalacia typically reveal low levels of calcium and phosphate, as well as high levels of alkaline phosphatase. Calcium supplementation may also be prescribed if the patient’s dietary intake is insufficient. Intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates are not recommended for the treatment of hypocalcaemia, while levothyroxine is used to manage hypothyroidism and oral bisphosphonates are used for osteoporosis.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old female visits her doctor with a complaint of oral ulcers that have been persistent for a month. She also mentions that her hands have become swollen and painful over the past two weeks. During the examination, the doctor observes a rash on her face that crosses the nasal bridge but spares the nasolabial folds. To identify the underlying condition, the doctor orders some blood tests. What is the most specific antibody test for the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA
Explanation:The presence of ANA is commonly seen in SLE patients, but it is not a specific indicator for the disease. Therefore, ANA positivity alone cannot confirm a diagnosis of SLE. Similarly, anti-CCP antibody is specific to rheumatoid arthritis and not SLE. While anti-Ro antibodies may be present in some SLE patients, it is not a reliable indicator as it is only found in 20-30% of cases.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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