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Question 1
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In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease among elderly patients, therapy is shown to reduce cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over the five years duration of the study.
In comparison with standard therapy, what is the number of elderly patients that needs to be treated to prevent one death over five years?Your Answer: 25
Explanation:Reduction in Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality
The drug has been found to decrease the risk of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, we could prevent one death. This reduction in mortality is significant and highlights the potential benefits of this drug in improving patient outcomes following a heart attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served in the military and was exposed to loud noises, which he thinks is the reason for his hearing loss.
What is the accurate statement regarding noise-induced hearing loss?Your Answer: It is usually bilateral and symmetrical
Explanation:Understanding Noise-Induced Hearing Loss and Its Unique Characteristics in Shooters
Noise-induced hearing loss is a gradual and symmetrical hearing loss that typically affects both ears. However, in the case of shooters, the loss occurs in the opposite ear to where they hold their gun, as the gun side is shielded. The damage is permanent and greatest at high frequencies. Examination of the tympanic membrane is usually normal, except in cases of glue ear. Prolonged exposure to excessive noise can result in permanent damage, but the loss doesn’t progress once exposure is discontinued. Patients with occupational exposure should be referred for further evaluation, as there may be legal implications. Employers have a duty to protect employees from noise under the Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005. Compensation may be available under the Armed Forces Compensation Scheme for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with advanced oesophageal cancer.
She has an inoperable tumour and is being managed palliatively. From the description of her symptoms you diagnose oesophageal spasm.
Which of the following would be most helpful in managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Nifedipine
Correct Answer: Pamidronate
Explanation:Treatment options for oesophageal spasm
This patient is suffering from oesophageal cancer and is experiencing odynophagia and dysphagia. A clinical diagnosis of oesophageal spasm has been made. There are several treatment options available depending on the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Dexamethasone is useful if the dysphagia is due to tumour enlargement and physical blockage is causing dysphagia. Fluconazole is used to treat oesophagitis caused by candidal infection. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can be helpful if symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease are present. Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered intravenously to treat bone pain and hypercalcaemia.
Nifedipine can work well in cases like this due to its action of relaxing smooth muscle and can help treat the painful spasm that is underlying the symptoms. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the oesophageal spasm to determine the most effective treatment option. With proper treatment, the patient can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 4
Correct
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Which pathogen is annual immunisation proven to reduce mortality and hospital admissions against in patients aged 65 or above who are more susceptible to community acquired infections?
Your Answer: influenza virus
Explanation:The Importance of influenza Vaccination in the Elderly Population
influenza vaccination is crucial for promoting health and preventing disease in the elderly population, especially those with underlying chronic conditions. While recommended for all individuals over 65, those with cardiorespiratory, metabolic, or neoplastic diseases are at the highest risk. Despite being cost-effective, protection rates against influenza-associated respiratory illness are lower in the elderly population. In England, the uptake for patients over 65 was 73% in 2010/2011. While vaccination doesn’t change the incidence of upper respiratory tract symptoms, it significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates by 72% and 87%, respectively, in community-dwelling elderly individuals. However, nursing-home residents may not experience the same efficacy due to a greater burden of chronic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old patient who has type two diabetes and has no other current health issues or significant medical history. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g bd. Their HbA1c was 56 mmol/mol six months ago and has increased to 59 mmol/mol in their most recent test from last week. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Your Answer: Repeat HbA1c in 6 months
Correct Answer: Add additional oral agent to metformin
Explanation:If a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking the maximum dose of metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol or higher, it is recommended to add a second drug to their treatment regimen. The patient should be closely monitored and have their HbA1c level checked again in 3-6 months to ensure stability on the new therapy. It is important to intensify treatment at this stage, but referral to secondary care is not necessary and primary care should manage the patient’s management. Insulin therapy is not recommended yet, and a further oral agent should be added first. If the second agent fails to reduce HbA1c, triple therapy may be considered. Lifestyle advice and management should also be provided at each review.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 21-year-old man comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by his father, who is worried about his son's lack of sleep.
During the consultation, the patient reveals that he no longer feels the need to sleep for more than 2-3 hours. He appears talkative and mentions that he has been staying up late to work on an online business that he believes will bring him a lot of money. He expresses annoyance at people questioning him, especially since he usually feels low in mood but now feels much better. There are no reports of delusions or hallucinations.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms, including a significant decrease in sleep without feeling tired, excessive talking, irritability, and overconfidence in their business, suggest a possible hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder. This is further supported by their history of depression. Insomnia, which typically results in feeling tired and wanting to sleep, is less likely as the patient doesn’t report feeling tired. Psychosis is also unlikely as there are no delusions or hallucinations present. Overall, the patient’s symptoms align more closely with hypomania than a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents with problems with constipation.
He has a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is receiving medication.
Which of the following agents is most likely to be responsible for his presentation?Your Answer: Verapamil
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Verapamil and its Side Effects
Verapamil is a medication that is commonly known to cause constipation. In addition to this, it is also associated with other side effects such as oedema and headaches. Oedema is the swelling of body tissues, usually in the legs and feet, while headaches can range from mild to severe. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking verapamil and to speak with a healthcare provider if they become bothersome or persistent. Proper monitoring and management can help to alleviate these symptoms and ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination, painful urination, and discomfort in the pelvic area. Upon examination, his prostate is tender. A dipstick test of his urine shows the presence of white blood cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding Prostatitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Prostatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland. There are different types of prostatitis, including acute bacterial prostatitis, chronic bacterial prostatitis, non-bacterial prostatitis, and asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis. In this article, we will focus on the symptoms and differential diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis.
Symptoms of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
Acute bacterial prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of feverish illness, irritative urinary voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency), perineal or suprapubic pain, and a very tender prostate on rectal examination. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also common. It is important to note that prostatic massage should not be done as it could lead to complications.Differential Diagnosis
It is important to differentiate acute bacterial prostatitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is more common but symptoms must last for more than three months before this diagnosis can be made. Benign prostatic hyperplasia typically presents with progressive obstructive symptoms, while cystitis doesn’t involve tenderness of the prostate on examination. Non-bacterial prostatitis is associated with chronic pain around the prostate.Conclusion
Acute bacterial prostatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar symptoms. If you suspect acute bacterial prostatitis, seek medical attention immediately. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, along with gradual weight loss. During the examination, he looks cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He doesn't have jaundice, and his liver function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Correct Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of nodular hepatomegaly
Nodular hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver with palpable nodules, can have various causes. Among them, liver metastases and cirrhosis are common, while hepatocellular carcinoma, lymphoma, and myelofibrosis are less frequent but still possible differential diagnoses.
Liver metastases often originate from the bowel or breast and may not affect liver function until they involve over half of the liver or obstruct the biliary tract. Cirrhosis, on the other hand, results from chronic liver disease and typically raises the serum alanine aminotransferase level, but this patient’s liver function tests are normal.
Hepatocellular carcinoma, a type of liver cancer, shares some features with liver metastases but is less common and may be associated with hepatitis B or C. Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymphatic system, is even rarer than hepatocellular carcinoma as a cause of nodular hepatomegaly, but it may involve other sites besides the liver.
Myelofibrosis is a bone marrow disorder that can lead to fibrosis in the liver and spleen, among other organs. It may not cause symptoms in the early stages but can manifest as leukoerythroblastic anaemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats later on. While myelofibrosis is not a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, especially if other features suggest a myeloproliferative neoplasm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is currently on aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, and nifedipine, but is still experiencing frequent use of his GTN spray. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?
Your Answer: Add nicorandil and titrate to the maximum tolerated dose
Correct Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR and refer to cardiology for consideration of PCI or CABG
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a patient needs a third anti-anginal medication, they should be referred for evaluation of a more permanent solution such as PCI or CABG. Although ACE inhibitors may be beneficial for certain patients with stable angina, they would not alleviate his angina symptoms.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a recent exacerbation that required oral corticosteroids for remission. He reports feeling well with no abdominal symptoms, but has had four exacerbations in the past year that required treatment with oral corticosteroids. His current medications include paracetamol and mesalazine. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdominal exam is unremarkable. His recent blood test results show no significant abnormalities. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended next step in managing his ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Oral thiopurines (azathioprine or mercaptopurine)
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A mother is worried about the white reflection in her 11-month-old son's eye. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE test to detect retinoblastoma in a child? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Visual acuity
Correct Answer: Red reflex test
Explanation:Pediatric Eye Examinations: Tests and Their Significance
Pediatric eye examinations are crucial for detecting eye diseases and disorders in children. Here are some common tests and their significance:
Red Reflex Test: This test involves shining a light source from an ophthalmoscope about 50 cm away from the child’s eyes. A bright and equal red reflex should be seen from each pupil. An abnormal red reflex could indicate serious eye diseases such as cataract or retinoblastoma.
Cover Test: This test is used to detect squint. The child focuses on a near object while a cover is placed briefly over one eye and then removed. The squinting eye will deviate inwards or outwards.
Corneal Light Reflex Test: This test involves the reflection of a light source off the cornea. In people with normal fixation, its position will be symmetrical in each eye. It is used in an examination for squint.
Eye Movements: Eye movement testing is used to assess ocular motor function, particularly cranial nerve palsies.
Visual Acuity: In babies, the ability to follow objects is a guide to visual acuity. In a child with retinoblastoma, visual acuity in the affected eye(s) may be reduced. However, there are other reasons for reduced vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a valid reason for exception reporting a patient under the quality and outcomes framework (QOF)?
Your Answer: A patient who is caring for a relative who is terminally ill
Correct Answer: A patient who is on the maximum tolerated doses of medication whose treatment remains suboptimal
Explanation:Understanding the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF)
The Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) is a program that rewards and incentivizes GP practices for achieving certain standards in patient care. It was introduced as part of the General Medical Services (GMS) to improve the management of chronic diseases like diabetes and enhance the overall patient experience. The QOF is based on three key areas, namely clinical indicators, public health, and public health including additional services sub-domain.
Clinical indicators are standards linked to the care of patients suffering from chronic diseases and make up the largest domain of QOF. The value of a point for clinical indicators is determined by the prevalence of the condition in the practice. The public health domain includes indicators for smoking cessation, cervical screening, child health surveillance, and more. The public health including additional services sub-domain has indicators across two service areas of cervical screening and contraceptive services.
Participation in the QOF is voluntary, but 5% of practices should be visited at random to prevent fraud. Patients may be exception reported in certain situations, such as when they have refused to attend review after being invited on at least three occasions during the preceding 12 months or when they have a supervening condition that makes treatment of their condition inappropriate.
Overall, the QOF is a program that aims to improve patient care and incentivize GP practices to achieve certain standards. By understanding the different domains and indicators, patients can have a better understanding of the care they should expect from their GP practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 14
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of weakness and tingling in her right hand. Upon examination, she displays atrophy of the thenar eminence and experiences sensory loss in the palmar region of the lateral (radial) three fingers. Which nerve is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:It is highly likely that this patient is suffering from carpal tunnel syndrome.
Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve
The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.
The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.
Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is seeking your advice after being diagnosed with diabetes insipidus during an outpatient appointment. He is worried about the diagnosis and wants to discuss its implications. What is the correct statement about diabetes insipidus?
Your Answer: Characterised by hyponatraemia
Correct Answer: Fluid deprivation followed by desmopressin differentiates the main causes
Explanation:Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating Causes and Symptoms
Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified into two major forms: cranial and nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine due to resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
To differentiate between the two forms, a fluid deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration is conducted. In cranial diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality increases after desmopressin administration, while in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, it remains unchanged.
Contrary to popular belief, drugs can cause diabetes insipidus, with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus being the most common side effect of lithium. Other drugs such as ofloxacin and orlistat have also been implicated.
Hypernatremia may become apparent as dehydration develops, and the predominant manifestations of diabetes insipidus are polyuria, polydipsia, and nocturia. Large volumes of dilute urine are produced, with more than 3 liters in 24 hours and less than 300 mOsm/kg.
In conclusion, understanding the causes and symptoms of diabetes insipidus is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.
What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?Your Answer: Potent corticosteroid once daily in combination with a vitamin D analogue (applied separately)
Correct Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily
Explanation:For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has had pain in her neck for two weeks. There is some restriction of movement in all directions and movements are painful. There is no previous history of neck pain or of recent trauma.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Cervical spine X-ray
Correct Answer: Wait-and-see and analgesia
Explanation:Management of Cervical Spondylosis: A Wait-and-See Approach with Analgesia
Cervical spondylosis is a common condition among middle-aged patients, characterized by osteophyte formation and disc space narrowing. While there is little robust evidence to support many of the commonly used treatments, most general practitioners will employ a wait-and-see strategy, expecting a favourable outcome. This approach can be supported by simple analgesia with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Prolonged absence from work should be discouraged.
A cervical collar is not recommended as it restricts mobility and may prolong symptoms. Similarly, an X-ray is likely to be unhelpful in most cases. However, doctors should be alert for features suggesting serious spinal pathology and refer patients to a pain clinic if symptoms are prolonged.
Physiotherapy may be appropriate for stretching and strengthening exercises and manual therapy, but referral should be based on the duration of symptoms. While acute neck pain has a good prognosis for the majority of patients, a relatively high proportion of patients still report neck pain after one year of follow-up. Therefore, a wait-and-see approach with analgesia is a reasonable first-line management strategy for cervical spondylosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by her husband who is concerned that she is entering a manic phase.
Select from the list the single feature that would NOT suggest a diagnosis of mania.Your Answer: Loss of interest in pleasurable activities
Explanation:Understanding Mania and Hypomania in Bipolar Disorder
Mania and hypomania are two terms used to describe the elevated mood states experienced by individuals with bipolar disorder. Mania is a more severe form of elevated mood, often accompanied by psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania without psychotic symptoms.
To diagnose mania, at least three of the following symptoms must be present: inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, rapid and emphatic speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities without regard for consequences.
It’s important to note that nearly all cases of mania will eventually lead to episodes of depression, which is why bipolar disorder is often grouped with mania. Understanding the symptoms of mania and hypomania can help individuals with bipolar disorder and their loved ones recognize when they may need to seek professional help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 22-year-old female presents with shortness of breath. She is known to suffer from asthma and her usual best PEFR is 410 L/min.
Which of the following features would suggest that this is a severe asthma attack?Your Answer: PEFR 200 L/min
Explanation:Guidelines for Identifying Acute Severe and Life-Threatening Asthma
Guidelines from the British Thoracic Society suggest that certain symptoms may indicate acute severe asthma, including an inability to complete sentences, a tachycardia above 110 bpm, a respiratory rate above 25/minute, and a PEFR of 33-50% of the predicted value. It is important to note that the threshold for pulse is higher than expected at 110 bpm.
In contrast, life-threatening asthma is characterized by more severe symptoms such as a silent chest, bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoxia. These symptoms require immediate medical attention and intervention to prevent further complications. By recognizing the signs of acute severe and life-threatening asthma, individuals can seek appropriate medical care and potentially prevent serious health consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is initiated on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis related to Wegener's granulomatosis. What is the most typical association with cyclophosphamide?
Your Answer: Ototoxicity
Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis
Explanation:Haemorrhagic cystitis can be caused by cyclophosphamide.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who usually never attends the surgery comes to see you feeling absolutely wretched.
He is usually a keen cyclist who spent his summer on a month-long cycling tour of France, but he now finds it difficult to get out of bed, due to fatigue.
He also complains of multiple joint pains and cannot exercise because he doesn't have the energy. Other history of note is that he suffers from a patch of erythematous rash on his shin which seems to be present for a few days and then fades.
On examination, he has a pulse of 50 and a BP of 120/70 mmHg. There is a generalised polyarthritis.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 135 g/L (130-170)
WCC 8.2 ×109/L (4-11)
PLT 200 ×109/L (150-400)
Na 140 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Cr 100 µmol/L (60-110)
ECG shows 1st degree heart block.
Knee aspirate reveals inflammatory picture, white cells ++, no crystals.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate next management step?Your Answer: Check autoantibodies for possible SLE
Correct Answer: 24 hour Holter monitor for possible permanent pacemaker
Explanation:Lyme Disease and Erythema Migrans
Erythema migrans is the most common clinical presentation of Lyme borreliosis. This is a difficult question, but the clue is in the fact that he is a hill walker who is, usually, relatively fit. Something has clearly occurred during the summer, and it is likely he has received a tick bite and gone on to develop Lyme disease, with southern Sweden being one of the most common areas in Europe to become infected.
Nearly two thirds of patients do not remember the initial tick lesion, yet the rash he describes is fairly typical of recurrent erythema chronicum migrans which occurs in around 20% of Lyme disease sufferers. The treatment of choice for the condition is a course of oral doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman with motor neuron disease seeks guidance. She has come across the Mental Capacity Act and, after consulting with her spouse, has made the decision to decline ventilation if she experiences respiratory failure. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Refer to psychiatrist for formal assessment of capacity
Correct Answer: Advise that his wishes should be written, signed and witnessed
Explanation:Formal advance directives are the preferred option for patients. It should be noted that lasting power of attorney arrangements do not cover decisions related to life-sustaining treatments unless they are explicitly stated.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome to surgery, as she is worried about her vision. Which of the following eye issues is the least commonly linked with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Cataracts
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome
Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of experiencing vision and hearing problems. When it comes to vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, which can cause cloudiness in the eye lens, are more prevalent in those with Down’s syndrome, both congenital and acquired. Recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids, and glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, are also potential issues.
In terms of hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome. These conditions can lead to hearing problems, which can affect speech and language development. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any issues early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who is concerned about his memory. He has no recollection of recent or distant events, but responds to every question with a very detailed, yet incorrect, answer.
Upon examination, he displays ataxia and nystagmus. He has not visited a doctor in over 25 years, doesn't take any regular medication, and has consumed eight pints of beer per night for the past 35 years.
What is the most probable deficiency causing this presentation? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Zinc
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Korsakoff syndrome, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine). This syndrome is a late manifestation of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy and is characterized by mental confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. It is most common in people in their fifties and sixties and is caused by alcoholism or other factors such as chronic subdural hematoma, nutritional stress, AIDS, hyperemesis gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, long-term dialysis, or congestive heart failure. Urgent medical assessment and admission for parenteral thiamine is necessary, as it can be fatal if left untreated. Zinc deficiency, on the other hand, is characterized by symptoms such as anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, growth restriction, impaired immune function, delayed sexual maturation, learning disability, weight loss, and macular degeneration. It is not related to memory or cognitive problems, ataxia, or nystagmus. Vitamin B2 deficiency is more common in vegetarians, vegans, pregnant women, or young children and is thought to have a role in migraines. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes symptoms such as cognitive and memory disturbance, headaches, dyspepsia, loss of appetite, palpitations, visual disturbance, weakness and lethargy, angina, optic neuropathy, symmetrical neuropathy affecting the legs more than the arms, and a megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin E deficiency is rare in healthy people and is strongly associated with conditions affecting absorption, such as Crohn’s disease or cystic fibrosis. However, this patient’s history of alcohol excess makes thiamine deficiency much more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which drug, prescribed for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus, has been cautioned by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency for its potential to cause severe pancreatitis and renal impairment?
Your Answer: Sitagliptin
Correct Answer: Exenatide
Explanation:Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The observation that symptoms which are severe on initial assessment are likely to have improved on subsequent assessments is known as what?
Your Answer: Expectancy effect
Correct Answer: Regression to the mean
Explanation:When a variable is measured to be extreme initially, it is likely to move closer to the average on subsequent measurements, which is known as regression to the mean.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times a month, which are severe and located on the right side of his head. The headaches are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?
Your Answer: Zolmitriptan
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. Based on the patient’s history, prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but can be used for acute treatment of migraine.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up of his atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation and it was successful.
The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. His most recent blood pressure reading was 150/92 mmHg.
What is the optimal approach for managing his anticoagulation?Your Answer: Repeat an ECG in 3 months, and if the patient remains in sinus rhythm stop anticoagulation
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term
Explanation:Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation must continue with long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. According to the guidelines of the American College of Cardiology, the decision to discontinue anticoagulation after two months of catheter ablation should be based on the patient’s stroke risk profile, not on the outcome of the procedure. There is no published evidence that it is safe to stop anticoagulation after ablation if the CHA2DS2-Vasc score is equal to or greater than 1. Therefore, in the given scenario, since the CHA2DS2-VASc score indicates moderate to high risk (3 points), anticoagulation should be continued.
Although monitoring heart rhythm is crucial due to the risk of recurrence, anticoagulation should still be continued even if the patient remains in sinus rhythm. Blood pressure readings do not provide any indication to stop anticoagulation.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding croup, what is accurate?
Your Answer: It is typically caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Correct Answer: Both dexamethasone and prednisolone are approved for treating it
Explanation:Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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