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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man presents to his doctor with left knee pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his doctor with left knee pain that has been bothering him for a week. He reports pain when bearing weight and swelling around the joint. He denies experiencing pain in any other joints, but does mention discomfort while urinating.

      During the physical exam, the patient has a temperature of 37.9ºC and his left knee is warm and swollen. Additionally, he has inflamed conjunctivae.

      Lab results show a hemoglobin level of 151 g/L (135-180), platelets at 333 * 109/L (150 - 400), white blood cell count at 7.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and a CRP level of 99 mg/L (< 5).

      The doctor decides to perform a knee joint aspiration. What would be the expected findings from the joint aspirate?

      Your Answer: No organism growth on gram stain

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is the likely diagnosis for this patient, as they present with a triad of symptoms including arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. This condition is associated with HLA-B27 and is often triggered by a previous infection, such as a sexually transmitted disease or diarrheal illness. Unlike other types of infective arthritis, no organism can be recovered from the affected joint in reactive arthritis. Therefore, the absence of organism growth on gram stain is expected in this case. Gram negative cocci may be seen in cases of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection, which can cause septic arthritis, but the lack of additional symptoms makes reactive arthritis more likely. Gram positive cocci are typically found in cases of septic arthritis, but the presence of dysuria and conjunctivitis suggests reactive arthritis instead. Negative birefringent crystals are seen in gout, which is characterized by an acutely inflamed joint and is associated with a high meat diet, typically in men over 40 years old.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. His temperature during the operation is recorded at 34.8 ºC and his blood pressure is 98/57 mmHg. The surgeon observes that the patient is experiencing more bleeding than anticipated. What could be causing the excessive bleeding?

      Your Answer: Intra-operative hypothermia

      Explanation:

      During the perioperative period, thermoregulation is hindered due to various factors such as the use of unwarmed intravenous fluids, exposure to a cold theatre environment, cool skin preparation fluids, and muscle relaxants that prevent shivering. Additionally, spinal or epidural anesthesia can lead to increased heat loss at the peripheries by reducing sympathetic tone and preventing peripheral vasoconstriction. The consequences of hypothermia can be significant, as it can affect the function of proteins and enzymes in the body, leading to slower metabolism of anesthetic drugs and reduced effectiveness of platelets, coagulation factors, and the immune system. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic medication used in trauma and major hemorrhage, can prevent the breakdown of fibrin. Intraoperative hypertension may cause excess bleeding, while active malignancy can lead to a hypercoagulable state. However, tumors may also have friable vessels due to neovascularization, which can result in excessive bleeding if cut erroneously. To prevent excessive bleeding, warfarin is typically stopped prior to surgery.

      Managing Patient Temperature in the Perioperative Period

      Thermoregulation in the perioperative period involves managing a patient’s temperature from one hour before surgery until 24 hours after the surgery. The focus is on preventing hypothermia, which is more common than hyperthermia. Hypothermia is defined as a temperature of less than 36.0ºC. NICE has produced a clinical guideline for suggested management of patient temperature. Patients are more likely to become hypothermic while under anesthesia due to the effects of anesthesia drugs and the fact that they are often wearing little clothing with large body areas exposed.

      There are several risk factors for perioperative hypothermia, including ASA grade of 2 or above, major surgery, low body weight, large volumes of unwarmed IV infusions, and unwarmed blood transfusions. The pre-operative phase starts one hour before induction of anesthesia. The patient’s temperature should be measured, and if it is lower than 36.0ºC, active warming should be commenced immediately. During the intra-operative phase, forced air warming devices should be used for any patient with an anesthetic duration of more than 30 minutes or for patients at high risk of perioperative hypothermia regardless of anesthetic duration.

      In the post-operative phase, the patient’s temperature should be documented initially and then repeated every 15 minutes until transfer to the ward. Patients should not be transferred to the ward if their temperature is less than 36.0ºC. Complications of perioperative hypothermia include coagulopathy, prolonged recovery from anesthesia, reduced wound healing, infection, and shivering. Managing patient temperature in the perioperative period is essential to ensure good outcomes, as even slight reductions in temperature can have significant effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady...

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    • You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady comes in who is pregnant with her first child. She feels unwell, has upper abdominal pain near her epigastrium, and thinks that her ankle swelling has been much worse over the last few days. You assess her and your findings are as follows:
      Symphysis–fundal height (SFH): 39 cm
      Presentation: breech
      Lie: longitudinal
      Blood pressure (BP): 152/93
      Fetal movements: not palpable
      Which of these investigations is most likely to lead you to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to various complications and is a leading cause of maternal death. Risk factors include nulliparity, previous history of pre-eclampsia, family history, and certain medical conditions. Diagnosis is made by testing for proteinuria and monitoring blood pressure. Treatment involves close monitoring, medication, and delivery of the baby. Complications can include HELLP syndrome and eclampsia. Testing for liver function and performing a CTG can aid in management, but will not lead to the diagnosis. Early identification and management are crucial in preventing adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents...

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    • A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Omphalocele

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview

      Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.

      Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.

      Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.

      Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.

      Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      4
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy. She reports a decrease in fetal movement over the past few days and is concerned. She has no significant medical history or family history and has had two uncomplicated pregnancies in the past. Physical examination is normal, and vital signs are stable. A handheld Doppler scan reveals no fetal heartbeat.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      If a woman reports reduced fetal movements and no heartbeat is detected with a handheld Doppler after 28 weeks of gestation, an immediate ultrasound should be offered according to RCOG guidelines. Repeating Doppler after an hour is not recommended. If a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for at least 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3.3
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular contractions. During a vaginal examination, the midwife confirms that the mother is currently in the first stage of labor. When does this stage of labor typically end?

      Your Answer: 10 cm cervical dilation

      Explanation:

      The first stage of labour begins with the onset of true labour and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10cm. During this stage, regular contractions occur and the cervix gradually dilates. It is important to note that although 4 cm and 6cm cervical dilation occur during this stage, it does not end until the cervix is fully effaced at 10cm. The second stage of labour ends with the birth of the foetus, not the first.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.

      During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.8
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old swim instructor arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain...

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    • A 36-year-old swim instructor arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right eye and feeling like there is something foreign in it, even though he has already removed his contact lenses. Upon examination, the right eye shows conjunctival injection, and the patient experiences photophobia, tearing, and discharge. His visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye, with intact ocular reflexes. A slit lamp inspection reveals mild, regular ulceration in the right eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acanthamoeba keratitis

      Explanation:

      Wearing contact lenses increases the risk of acanthamoeba infection, which can cause keratitis. This is especially true for individuals who are frequently exposed to bodies of water, such as swimmers and lifeguards. Symptoms of acanthamoeba keratitis include eye pain, reduced visual acuity, redness, photophobia, and discharge. Treatment typically involves a combination of antiamoebic medications such as biguanides and diamidines. Anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, and herpes simplex virus keratitis are less likely causes of the patient’s symptoms, given the history of contact lens use and occupation as a lifeguard.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - As a caregiver for an elderly gentleman on the acute medical unit, who...

    Correct

    • As a caregiver for an elderly gentleman on the acute medical unit, who also suffers from hypertension, he has been admitted with an intracerebral bleed and is awaiting a neurosurgical bed for observation. However, throughout the day, he becomes increasingly unresponsive, only localizing and opening his eyes in response to pain. What investigation is the most crucial in this scenario?

      Your Answer: CT scan of the brain

      Explanation:

      When patients with intracranial bleeds become unresponsive, it is crucial to promptly perform a CT scan to detect hydrocephalus. This diagnostic tool can quickly confirm or rule out the presence of hydrocephalus in these patients. CT angiograms are not appropriate for this purpose, as they are typically used to locate the source of subarachnoid bleeds. While arterial blood tests can reveal whether a patient with COPD is retaining carbon dioxide, this is not relevant for a patient without underlying lung pathology. Although hyponatremia is common in patients with intracranial bleeds, it does not present in a way that would warrant urgent investigation. While lumbar punctures can measure intracranial pressure, they should not be performed without first conducting a CT scan in these patients.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding that has been ongoing for six months, despite being treated with mefenamic and tranexamic acid. Upon conducting a transvaginal ultrasound, an endometrial thickness of 15mm is observed. What would be the next appropriate course of investigation?

      Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy at hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, an endometrial biopsy should be performed if necessary to rule out endometrial cancer or atypical hyperplasia. The biopsy is recommended for women who experience persistent intermenstrual bleeding and for those aged 45 and above who have had unsuccessful or ineffective treatment. In the case of the patient mentioned above, her treatment has not been successful and she has a thickened endometrium. Although there is some debate about the thickness of the endometrium in premenopausal women, this patient qualifies for a biopsy based on her failed medical treatment alone, making it the most appropriate option.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 53-year-old textiles worker is referred for nerve conduction studies after a trial...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old textiles worker is referred for nerve conduction studies after a trial of conservative management fails to improve symptoms of sensory loss over the palmar aspect of her right thumb, index, middle and ring fingers. Examination reveals thenar wasting of the right hand.

      What would be the common findings in nerve conduction evaluation of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Action potential prolongation in both sensory and motor axons

      Explanation:

      Both sensory and motor axons experience prolonged action potential in carpal tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression of the median nerve. This physical compression affects the ability of all neurons to effectively conduct action potentials, resulting in symptoms that affect both sensory and motor pathways. No other combinations of axon functioning are linked to carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      6.6
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old new mum is seen by the midwife three days post-giving birth. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and worries she is a bad mother. Her midwife reassures her that this is most likely postpartum blues or ‘baby blues’.
      What is the incidence of this condition in new mothers?

      Your Answer: 50-75%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders: From Baby Blues to Postpartum Psychosis

      Postpartum mood disorders are common among new mothers, but they can range from mild and transient to severe and potentially life-threatening. The most common form of postpartum mood disorder is postpartum blues, which affects an estimated 50-75% of mothers in the days following childbirth. Symptoms include crying, fatigue, anxiety, irritability, and labile mood, and typically last from hours to a few days. Postpartum blues is thought to be caused by hormonal changes in the body after labor and can be managed with supportive, non-pharmacological measures.

      Postpartum depression is a more serious condition that can occur up to a year after birth and affects 10-15% of pregnancies. It is similar to major depression and requires screening by midwives and at the 6-week postnatal check. The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a screening questionnaire used to identify women with postnatal depression, and it is important to follow up with mothers who may be depressed on a regular basis.

      Postpartum psychosis is a rare but very serious mental health condition that usually develops in the days or weeks following childbirth and affects 0.1-0.5% of mothers. Symptoms may include mania, severe depression, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, and delusions. It is a medical emergency and typically requires inpatient psychiatric treatment.

      Understanding the different types of postpartum mood disorders and their symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have a raised platelet count. She is diagnosed with essential thrombocytosis by the haematologist.
      Which of the following might be used to treat essential thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Hydroxyurea

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and Their Uses

      Thrombocytosis and Hydroxyurea
      Thrombocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated platelet count, which can lead to bleeding or thrombosis. Primary or essential thrombocytosis is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in overproduction of platelets by the bone marrow. Hydroxyurea is the first-line treatment for essential thrombocytosis, as it inhibits an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis and reduces the rate of platelet production.

      Interferon Gamma for Immunomodulation
      Interferon gamma is an immunomodulatory medication used to reduce the frequency of infections in patients with chronic granulomatous disease and severe malignant osteopetrosis. It is administered by subcutaneous injection.

      Cromoglycate for Inflammation
      Sodium cromoglycate is a synthetic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in the treatment of asthma, allergic rhinitis, and various food allergies.

      Interferon β for Multiple Sclerosis
      Interferon β is a cytokine used in the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. It is administered subcutaneously.

      Ranitidine for Acid Reduction
      Ranitidine is a H2 (histamine) receptor blocker that inhibits the production of acid in the stomach. It can be used in the treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, and gastritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      2.6
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  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent loin pain and fevers. Upon investigation, a...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent loin pain and fevers. Upon investigation, a staghorn calculus of the right kidney is discovered. Which organism is most likely responsible for the infection?

      Your Answer: Proteus mirabilis

      Explanation:

      Proteus mirabilis is responsible for the majority of Proteus infections due to its ability to produce urease. This enzyme promotes urinary alkalinisation, which is a necessary condition for the development of staghorn calculi.

      Renal Stones: Types and Factors

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses formed in the kidneys from substances found in urine. There are different types of renal stones, each with its own unique features and risk factors. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type, accounting for 85% of all calculi. Hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia are major risk factors for calcium oxalate stones. Cystine stones, which are caused by an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport, are relatively rare, accounting for only 1% of all calculi. Uric acid stones, which are formed from purine metabolism, are more common in children with inborn errors of metabolism and are radiolucent. Calcium phosphate stones, which are radio-opaque, may occur in renal tubular acidosis, and high urinary pH increases the supersaturation of urine with calcium and phosphate. Struvite stones, which are slightly radio-opaque, are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections.

      The pH of urine plays a crucial role in stone formation. Urine pH varies from 5-7, with postprandial pH falling as purine metabolism produces uric acid. The urine then becomes more alkaline, known as the alkaline tide. The pH of urine can help determine which type of stone was present when the stone is not available for analysis. Calcium phosphate stones form in normal to alkaline urine with a pH greater than 5.5, while uric acid stones form in acidic urine with a pH of 5.5 or less. Struvite stones form in alkaline urine with a pH greater than 7.2, and cystine stones form in normal urine with a pH of 6.5.

      In summary, renal stones are a common condition with various types and risk factors. Understanding the type of stone and the pH of urine can help in the diagnosis and management of renal stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which...

    Correct

    • A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.

      What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?

      Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for ITP patients

      Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics. Her blood pressure is 70/38 mmHg. What urgent treatment is required?

      Your Answer: 1:1000 IM adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Correct Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline via the intramuscular (IM) route is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Adrenaline’s inotropic action provides an immediate response, making it a lifesaving treatment. Once the patient is stabilized, intravenous hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can also be administered. However, adrenaline remains the primary treatment.

      It is crucial to conduct a full ABCDE assessment and involve an anaesthetist if there are concerns about the airway. Using 1:10,000 IM adrenaline is sub-therapeutic in the setting of anaphylaxis. This dose is only used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Similarly, 1:10,000 IM noradrenaline is the wrong choice of drug and dose for anaphylaxis treatment.

      Intramuscular glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia when the patient is unconscious or too drowsy to administer glucose replacement therapy orally. Intravenous noradrenaline is not the correct drug or route for anaphylaxis treatment. Understanding the correct treatment for anaphylaxis is crucial in saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      1.7
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  • Question 17 - A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of 'flutters in his chest' for the past 24 hours. He is aware of when his symptoms started and mentions having had 2 non-ST-elevation myocardial infarctions before. He has hypertension, which is controlled with perindopril monotherapy, and hypercholesterolaemia treated with atorvastatin. He has no other relevant medical history.

      During the examination, the patient is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg, heart rate is 112 beats per minute, temperature is 37.3ºC, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. An ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm. After discussing with the patient, a management plan is suggested.

      What is the most likely management plan to be initiated for this patient based on his presentation?

      Your Answer: Intravenous amiodarone loading dose, followed by an amiodarone infusion

      Correct Answer: Begin anticoagulation, undergo immediate direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with new-onset atrial fibrillation (AF), the management plan depends on the duration and recurrence of symptoms, as well as risk stratification. If symptoms have been present for less than 48 hours, electrical cardioversion is recommended, but anticoagulation should be started beforehand. Heparin is a good choice for rapid onset anticoagulation. However, if symptoms have been present for more than 48 hours, there is a higher risk of atrial thrombus, which may cause thromboembolic disease. In this case, a transoesophageal echocardiogram (TOE) should be obtained to exclude a thrombus before cardioversion, or anticoagulation should be started for 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. Amiodarone oral therapy is not adequate for cardioversion in acute AF. If cardioversion is not possible, a DOAC such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started. Discharge home is appropriate for patients with chronic AF or after cardioversion. While pharmacological cardioversion with intravenous amiodarone is an option, electrical cardioversion is preferred according to NICE guidelines, especially in patients with structural heart disease.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 9-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of redness around his...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of redness around his left eye and pain when moving his eye since waking up this morning. He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold for a few days. Upon examination of his left eye, there is redness around the eye, proptosis, limited and painful eye movements, and decreased visual acuity. The examination of his right eye is normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious eye infection that can cause redness around the eye, pain when moving the eye, limited eye movement, bulging of the eye, and decreased vision. It is more commonly seen in children and is caused by an infection behind the orbital septum. This infection can spread from the sinuses, trauma to the eye, or from preseptal cellulitis. On the other hand, a chalazion, which is a small cyst in the eyelid, would not cause these symptoms. Optic neuritis, which is inflammation of the optic nerve, is often associated with multiple sclerosis and can cause vision problems and abnormal color vision. Preseptal cellulitis, which is an infection in front of the orbital septum, can cause eyelid swelling and drooping, but does not cause the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Sinusitis, which is inflammation of the sinuses, can lead to orbital cellulitis, but it does not fully explain the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 33-year-old woman finds herself with an unexpected and undesired pregnancy. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman finds herself with an unexpected and undesired pregnancy. She has two children and experienced a miscarriage 4 years ago. Her medical history indicates subclinical hypothyroidism, but she is generally healthy. After an ultrasound scan estimates her gestation at 7 weeks and confirms an intrauterine pregnancy, she decides on a medical termination of pregnancy. What treatment options will be available to her?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate and vaginal misoprostol

      Correct Answer: Oral mifepristone and vaginal prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Medical abortions involve the use of mifepristone followed by at least one dose of prostaglandins and can be performed at any stage of pregnancy. The preferred method is oral mifepristone followed by vaginal administration of prostaglandins, such as misoprostol. This method is particularly suitable for pregnancies up to 7 weeks gestation, as it has a lower failure rate than surgical termination. The dosing schedule and location of administration may vary, with some women choosing to undergo the procedure at home rather than in a clinic. It is important to note that IM methotrexate is not used in terminations of pregnancy, but rather in the medical management of ectopic pregnancies, as well as in the treatment of certain cancers and rheumatoid conditions. Methotrexate and vaginal misoprostol is not a common combination for medical terminations, as mifepristone is typically used instead. Oral mifepristone alone is not sufficient for medical terminations, but may be used in cervical priming for surgical abortion in cases where misoprostol is contraindicated.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      80.7
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  • Question 20 - Which condition is most likely to result in a pleural effusion that is...

    Correct

    • Which condition is most likely to result in a pleural effusion that is classified as a transudate with protein levels below 30 mg/L?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing critically ill patients. It helps determine the severity of a patient’s condition and has prognostic implications. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The score ranges from 3 to 15, with a lower score indicating a worse prognosis.

      The GCS score is determined by assigning points for each of the three categories. The highest score for eye opening is 4, for verbal response is 5, and for motor response is 6. A patient who is dead would still have a GCS score of 3. The lowest possible score is 3, which indicates no response in any of the categories.

      The GCS score is important for healthcare professionals as it helps them determine the level of care a patient needs. A lower score indicates a more severe injury or illness and may require more intensive treatment. The GCS score is also used to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to assess the effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Surgery (3/3) 100%
Obstetrics (3/3) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
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