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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of testicular pain....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of testicular pain. The pain has been gradually increasing over the past 24 hours and is localized to the left testicle. On examination, the patient appears uncomfortable. His heart rate is 68/min, blood pressure is 118/92 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18/min, and temperature is 38.5 ºC. The left testicle is swollen and erythematosus, and lifting the scrotal skin provides relief. There is no discharge reported. What is the most appropriate next step given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Send a urine first void sample for nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs)

      Explanation:

      The appropriate investigation for suspected epididymo-orchitis depends on the patient’s age and sexual history. For sexually active young adults, a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is recommended. For older adults with a low-risk sexual history, a mid-stream urine (MSU) for microscopy and culture is appropriate.

      In the given scenario, the patient is a young, sexually active individual with symptoms of epididymo-orchitis. Therefore, the correct investigation is to send a urine first void sample for NAATs to identify Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Ordering a testicular ultrasound is not necessary at this stage, as it is used to investigate testicular masses and would delay treatment time. Similarly, taking bloods and testing for alpha-fetoprotein is not relevant, as this is used to investigate testicular cancer, which presents differently from epididymo-orchitis. Finally, sending an MSU for microscopy and culture is not the primary investigation in this case, as STIs are more likely to be the cause of the infection.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active young adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining of severe pain and discoloration in his right leg. He reports feeling pins and needles in the same leg, and the pain is present even when he is at rest. Upon examination, you notice that his right foot is pale, cold, and painful to the touch. You cannot feel any palpable pedal pulses. The patient has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes mellitus, and is a current smoker. What initial investigation should be performed to aid in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bedside handheld doppler

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, such as pain, pallor, pulselessness, a perishingly cold limb, paresthesia, and paralysis, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be the first-line investigation. This quick and easy test can be performed at the bedside and can help diagnose acute limb ischaemia by detecting an absent or reduced signal. Other investigations, such as ABPI, CT angiogram, and invasive angiography, may not be as readily available or appropriate for immediate use in an emergency situation. While ABPI is useful for assessing peripheral arterial perfusion in chronic peripheral arterial disease, it does not identify the site of arterial occlusion in acute limb ischaemia. CT angiogram and invasive angiography may be necessary to provide more detailed imaging and locate the arterial occlusion, but they are not the first-line investigation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 3 - A father on the pediatric ward tells the doctor that his 2-year-old child...

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    • A father on the pediatric ward tells the doctor that his 2-year-old child has been having trouble with their feeds and has been vomiting a green substance. The child was born at term via vaginal delivery. On examination, the abdomen is soft but appears to be distended. An abdominal x-ray is ordered, which shows a 'double bubble' sign. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intestinal atresia

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of bilious vomiting on the first day of life is intestinal atresia. This is because the presence of bilious vomiting in early life suggests a bowel obstruction, and the fact that it has occurred on the first day of life indicates an underlying structural issue. Children with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of developing this condition, especially at the duodenum. The diagnosis of intestinal/duodenal atresia is further supported by the presence of the ‘double bubble’ on the x-ray.

      Biliary atresia is an incorrect answer as it would not cause the clinical picture described above. This condition results in neonatal jaundice beyond 14 days of life, with dark urine and pale stools.

      Malrotation with volvulus is also an incorrect answer. While it can cause bilious vomiting, it tends to present around 3 to 7 days following birth.

      Necrotising enterocolitis is another incorrect answer. Although it can cause bilious vomiting, it typically does not occur so early following birth. Additionally, it is usually a condition of prematurity and is rarely seen in infants born at term.

      Causes and Treatments for Bilious Vomiting in Neonates

      Bilious vomiting in neonates can be caused by various disorders, including duodenal atresia, malrotation with volvulus, jejunal/ileal atresia, meconium ileus, and necrotising enterocolitis. Duodenal atresia occurs in 1 in 5000 births and is more common in babies with Down syndrome. It typically presents a few hours after birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows a double bubble sign. Treatment involves duodenoduodenostomy. Malrotation with volvulus is usually caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis and presents between 3-7 days after birth. An upper GI contrast study or ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves Ladd’s procedure. Jejunal/ileal atresia is caused by vascular insufficiency in utero and occurs in 1 in 3000 births. It presents within 24 hours of birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels. Treatment involves laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis. Meconium ileus occurs in 15-20% of babies with cystic fibrosis and presents in the first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Diagnosis involves an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels, and a sweat test can confirm cystic fibrosis. Treatment involves surgical decompression, and segmental resection may be necessary for serosal damage. Necrotising enterocolitis occurs in up to 2.4 per 1000 births, with increased risks in prematurity and inter-current illness. It typically presents in the second week of life and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows dilated bowel loops, pneumatosis, and portal venous air. Treatment involves conservative and supportive measures for non-perforated cases, while laparotomy and resection are necessary for perforated cases or ongoing clinical deterioration.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He has...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He has a penetrating stab wound in his abdomen and is haemodynamically unstable. He is not pregnant. A FAST scan is carried out.

      What is the primary purpose of a FAST scan?

      Your Answer: To investigate for presence of free fluid

      Explanation:

      FAST scans are a non-invasive method used in trauma to quickly evaluate the presence of free fluid in the chest, peritoneal or pericardial cavities. They are particularly useful in emergency care during the primary or secondary survey to assess the extent of free fluid or pneumothorax. Although CTG is the preferred method for assessing fetal wellbeing, FAST scans can be safely performed in pregnant patients and children, especially in cases of trauma. However, it is important to note that FAST scans have limitations in detecting cardiac tamponade, which requires echocardiography for accurate diagnosis. X-rays and CT scans are more effective in detecting fractures, while FAST scans are specifically designed to identify fluid in the abdomen and thorax. It is important to note that FAST scans cannot be used to assess solid organ injury, and other imaging methods such as formal ultrasound or CT scans are required in such cases.

      Trauma management follows the principles of ATLS and involves an ABCDE approach. Thoracic injuries include simple pneumothorax, mediastinal traversing wounds, tracheobronchial tree injury, haemothorax, blunt cardiac injury, diaphragmatic injury, and traumatic aortic disruption. Abdominal trauma may involve deceleration injuries and injuries to the spleen, liver, or small bowel. Diagnostic tools include diagnostic peritoneal lavage, abdominal CT scan, and ultrasound. Urethrography may be necessary for suspected urethral injury.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting. Her temperature is 38.2ºC and she was described as having rigors in the ambulance. She scores 14 on the Glasgow coma scale (GCS) as she is confused when asked questions.

      What is the likely diagnosis based on her symptoms, which include yellowing of the sclera, tenderness in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with a positive Murphy's sign, and vital signs of a respiratory rate of 15/min, heart rate of 92/min, and blood pressure of 86/62 mmHg?

      Your Answer: Reynold's pentad

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have ascending cholangitis and exhibits Charcot’s triad of RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice. In severe cases, Reynold’s pentad may be present, which includes Charcot’s triad along with confusion and hypotension, indicating a higher risk of mortality. Beck’s triad, consisting of hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds, is observed in patients with cardiac tamponade. Cushing’s triad, characterized by irregular and decreased respiratory rate, bradycardia, and hypertension, is seen in patients with elevated intracranial pressure.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with colorectal cancer. Upon imaging, it has...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with colorectal cancer. Upon imaging, it has been found that the tumour is located in the mid-rectum and does not extend beyond it. What would be the most suitable surgical approach for a mid-rectal tumour?

      Your Answer: Anterior resection

      Explanation:

      Anterior resection is the preferred surgical procedure for rectal tumours, except for those located in the lower rectum. For mid to high rectal tumours, anterior resection is the usual approach. Hartmann’s procedure is typically reserved for sigmoid tumours, while abdominoperineal excision of the rectum is commonly used for anal or low rectal tumours.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection in his local hospital. He visits the senior anaesthetist at the pre-operative assessment clinic to assess his eligibility for surgery and organize any necessary pre-operative investigations. According to NICE, who should undergo a chest X-ray as part of their pre-operative assessment?

      Your Answer: Not routinely recommended

      Explanation:

      It is no longer standard practice to perform chest x-rays prior to surgery. However, individuals who are 65 years or older may require an ECG before undergoing major surgery. Patients with renal disease may need a complete blood count and an ECG before intermediate surgery, depending on their ASA grade. Patients with hypertension do not require any specific pre-operative tests.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old man is assaulted outside a nightclub and struck with a baseball...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is assaulted outside a nightclub and struck with a baseball bat on the left side of his head. He is taken to the emergency department and placed under observation. As his Glasgow coma score (GCS) declines, he falls into a coma. What is the most probable haemodynamic parameter that he will exhibit?

      Your Answer: Hypotension and bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Before coning, hypertension and bradycardia are observed. The brain regulates its own blood supply by managing the overall blood pressure.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

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      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old male comes to the GP with recurring mild upper abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male comes to the GP with recurring mild upper abdominal pain after eating. He also reports having greasy stools with a foul odor. He has not noticed any changes in his appetite or weight, and he has not experienced nausea, vomiting, or jaundice. The patient has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, consuming 70 units per week for the past 8 years. What is the most suitable diagnostic examination?

      Your Answer: MRCP

      Correct Answer: CT abdomen

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis is best diagnosed using a CT scan of the pancreas to detect the presence of pancreatic calcification.

      Chronic pancreatitis is often caused by alcohol abuse, but can also be caused by other factors such as smoking, cystic fibrosis, and ductal obstruction. The exact cause is not fully understood, but it is thought to involve inflammation and autodigestion of the pancreas. Symptoms include abdominal pain, jaundice, steatorrhea, anorexia, and nausea. In severe cases, diabetes mellitus may develop.

      To diagnose chronic pancreatitis, a CT scan is the preferred test as it is highly sensitive and can detect pancreatic calcifications. Other tests such as abdominal x-rays and ultrasounds may be used, but are not as reliable. A full blood count may also be performed to rule out any infections.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

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  • Question 10 - At a multidisciplinary meeting, the nutritional concerns of a 70-year-old patient on the...

    Correct

    • At a multidisciplinary meeting, the nutritional concerns of a 70-year-old patient on the oncology ward are being discussed. The patient is currently undergoing chemotherapy and radiotherapy for pancreatic cancer and has been experiencing a significant decrease in appetite and body mass index, which now sits at 17 kg/m². Nurses have reported that the patient has not been eating meals. The dietician team suggests discussing the risks and benefits of parenteral nutrition before involving the patient's family. This form of nutrition is expected to continue for the next few weeks. Which blood vessel would be suitable for administering parenteral nutrition?

      Your Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition must be administered through a central vein due to its high phlebitic nature. This type of nutrition is considered full nutrition and should only be given for more than 10 days. If it is only used to supplement enteral feeding or for a short period, peripheral parenteral nutrition may be an option. The reason for using a central vein is that TPN is hypertonic to blood and has a high osmolality, which can increase the risk of phlebitis. Central veins are larger, have higher flow rates, and fewer valves than peripheral veins, making them more suitable for TPN administration. The subclavian vein is an example of a central vein that can be used for this purpose. The external jugular veins, hepatic portal vein, superior mesenteric artery, and pulmonary arteries are not appropriate for TPN administration.

      Nutrition Options for Surgical Patients

      When it comes to providing nutrition for surgical patients, there are several options available. The easiest and most common option is oral intake, which can be supplemented with calorie-rich dietary supplements. However, this may not be suitable for all patients, especially those who have undergone certain procedures.

      nasogastric feeding is another option, which involves administering feed through a fine bore nasogastric feeding tube. While this method may be safe for patients with impaired swallow, there is a risk of aspiration or misplaced tube. It is also usually contra-indicated following head injury due to the risks associated with tube insertion.

      Naso jejunal feeding is a safer alternative as it avoids the risk of feed pooling in the stomach and aspiration. However, the insertion of the feeding tube is more technically complicated and is easiest if done intra-operatively. This method is safe to use following oesophagogastric surgery.

      Feeding jejunostomy is a surgically sited feeding tube that may be used for long-term feeding. It has a low risk of aspiration and is thus safe for long-term feeding following upper GI surgery. However, there is a risk of tube displacement and peritubal leakage immediately following insertion, which carries a risk of peritonitis.

      Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy is a combined endoscopic and percutaneous tube insertion method. However, it may not be technically possible in patients who cannot undergo successful endoscopy. Risks associated with this method include aspiration and leakage at the insertion site.

      Finally, total parenteral nutrition is the definitive option for patients in whom enteral feeding is contra-indicated. However, individualised prescribing and monitoring are needed, and it should be administered via a central vein as it is strongly phlebitic. Long-term use is associated with fatty liver and deranged LFTs.

      In summary, there are several nutrition options available for surgical patients, each with its own benefits and risks. The choice of method will depend on the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (8/10) 80%
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