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Question 1
Correct
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A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.
Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?Your Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory
Explanation:Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression
Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has had mild gynaecomastia since puberty, but he has noticed that it has seemed noticeably larger on the left side in the past four weeks. He has a history of Klinefelter syndrome, hypertension, and eczema.
On examination you note breast tissue behind the nipples on both sides. You cannot feel a discrete separate lump on the left side, but the amount of breast tissue does seem to be greater.
What should your next step be?Your Answer: Refer to the genetics clinic
Correct Answer: Refer to the breast clinic urgently
Explanation:Breast Cancer in Males with Klinefelter Syndrome
Breast cancer in males is rare, but those with Klinefelter syndrome have a significantly higher risk, up to 50 times greater than the rest of the male population. Other risk factors include hyperoestrogenism, high alcohol consumption, and genetic factors such as BRCA2 mutations and Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry.
Men with Klinefelter syndrome are also more likely to develop gynaecomastia, which is usually bilateral and often present during puberty. However, any unilateral gynaecomastia or unilateral change in existing gynaecomastia should be examined for other causes, such as breast cancer.
Checking hormone levels, as well as thyroid, liver, and renal function, is important in new onset gynaecomastia. Referral to a genetics clinic may not be necessary, but input from a geneticist may be useful if the patient is considering having children, as Klinefelter syndrome is associated with an increased risk of autosomal and sex chromosome abnormalities. However, one of the complications of Klinefelter syndrome is severe subfertility, so referral to a fertility clinic may be necessary.
Reassurance in this case would be inappropriate, as it ignores the higher risk of breast cancer in men with Klinefelter syndrome. Therefore, any changes in breast tissue in this group should be dealt with cautiously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the electronic fit note (eMed) is accurate?
Your Answer: Electronic fit notes can be issued for a maximum of 4 weeks
Correct Answer: A printed copy of the electronic fit note is handed to the patient
Explanation:The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes
The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.
It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.
Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have cirrhosis of the liver. He has regularly drunk more than 30 units of alcohol every week for many years. Over the last three months, he has lost 2 kg in weight. He attributes this to a poor appetite.
On examination, there are no obvious features.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer: Abnormal liver function tests would confirm a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis
Correct Answer: The presence of chronic hepatitis C infection makes a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis more likely
Explanation:Diagnosing Liver Cirrhosis in Patients with Chronic Hepatitis C Infection
Liver cirrhosis is a common complication of chronic hepatitis C infection and can be caused by other factors such as alcohol consumption. Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection who are over 55 years old, male, and consume moderate amounts of alcohol are at higher risk of developing cirrhosis. However, cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until complications arise. An ultrasound scan can detect cirrhosis and its complications, but a liver biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate liver damage, but they are not always conclusive. The absence of signs doesn’t exclude a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. Further investigation is necessary before considering a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.
What condition is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman comes in for her annual medication review. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism a few years ago and is taking thyroxine. She recently had her thyroid function tested and her results show a free T4 level of 29 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-25) and a TSH level of 12 mU/L (0.5-6.0). What is the reason for her abnormal results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Under-replacement of thyroxine
Explanation:Understanding Abnormal Thyroid Function Tests
In this case, a patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed thyroxine replacement, but her latest blood tests show elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4). Abnormal hormone binding due to pregnancy or drugs like amiodarone can cause raised T4 with normal TSH. Sick euthyroidism can cause low T4, T3, and TSH, but it should revert to normal after recovery from non-thyroidal illness. Subacute thyroiditis causes hyperthyroidism, painful goitre, and high ESR, but it is self-limiting. Under-replacement of thyroxine causes high TSH and low T4.
The correct answer in this case is medication non-compliance, which is the only option that can account for the test results. Patients may start taking their thyroxine again before testing to avoid showing irregular dosing. Erratic thyroxine dosing causes elevated TSH due to under-replacement, but recent use of thyroxine causes normal to high T4. Understanding the various causes of abnormal thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-week pregnant lady comes to see you to ask about vaccination. She feels well in herself and there have been no complications in the pregnancy. She has been seeing her midwife regularly who has reported no problems.
When should she have the pertussis vaccination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can receive the vaccination now
Explanation:Vaccinations during Pregnancy
The seasonal influenza vaccine and pertussis vaccination are both recommended for pregnant women. The influenza vaccine can be given at any stage of pregnancy, while the pertussis vaccine is ideally administered between 16-32 weeks to maximize antibody transfer to the unborn infant. Both vaccines are inactivated and can be given at the same time or at any interval from each other.
It is important not to delay the administration of the influenza vaccine. The pertussis vaccine should not be given in early pregnancy as antibody levels would decline throughout the pregnancy, resulting in minimal transfer across the placenta. However, it is safe to give in the second trimester. Both vaccines protect against different illnesses and are advised during pregnancy.
It is not recommended to give the pertussis vaccine during labor as antibody production peaks two weeks after vaccination. By following these guidelines, pregnant women can protect themselves and their unborn infants from preventable illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has Chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:
Varicella IgM Negative
Varicella IgG Negative
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG had shown sinus tachycardia.
Her blood tests had showed:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 23 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
You had started her on a beta-blocker and referred her to secondary care for specialist treatment. However, the patient returns to you stating that her appointment is in 4 months' time and she cannot carry on with her symptoms for that long.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start carbimazole
Explanation:This young female patient is likely suffering from Graves’ disease, causing hyperthyroidism and symptoms such as sweating, palpitations, and restlessness. A low TSH and high T4 confirm the diagnosis, along with positive TRAbs. While waiting for secondary care, starting carbimazole is the appropriate course of action to alleviate symptoms. Seeking senior or remote specialist advice can help with prescribing. Referring to the emergency department is unnecessary as the palpitations are occasional and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Starting amiodarone is not recommended as it can cause thyroid dysfunction and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia, not atrial fibrillation. Continuing to wait for secondary care review doesn’t address the patient’s symptoms and concerns.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has terminal lung cancer. Her level of pain is sufficient to commence treatment with a strong opioid analgesic by mouth. Her only other medication is paracetamol 1 g 6-hourly.
Which of the following additional drugs should be routinely started at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Common Medications Used in Palliative Care
When introducing an opioid in palliative cancer care, it is recommended to prescribe a stimulant laxative such as senna or a dantron-containing laxative to prevent constipation. Amitriptyline is commonly prescribed as an adjuvant analgesic for neuropathic pain, while ibuprofen is used for bone pain or pain due to soft tissue infiltration. Metoclopramide is a pro-kinetic drug used for vomiting due to gastric stasis, while prochlorperazine is not typically used in palliative care. It is important to consider the specific needs of each patient when selecting medications for palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting blood glucose levels range from 7-10, and his HbA1c result is 64 mmol/mol (normal range 20-42) despite following a diabetic diet and exercising regularly. He has a body mass index of 30. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Treatment Options for suboptimal Glucose Control in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes is at risk of micro- and macrovascular complications due to suboptimal glucose control, as evidenced by an HbA1c of greater than 48 mmol/mol despite lifestyle intervention. The initial treatment of choice is metformin, which aims to achieve a HbA1c of less than 48 mmol/mol. Metformin reduces insulin resistance and cardiovascular risk, as demonstrated in the UKPDS study.
If metformin is inappropriate, DPPIV inhibitors such as sitagliptin may be considered. These medications achieve glycaemic control without significant weight gain and do not promote hypoglycaemia. Pioglitazone or an SU may also be used as alternative treatment options where metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. It is important to reach target HbA1c levels to reduce the risk of complications associated with type 2 diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle aches all over. What is not considered a risk factor for myopathy caused by statins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large fall in LDL-cholesterol
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies any recent trauma to the eye but reports seeing floaters and experiencing discomfort when moving her eye. She also notes blurred vision. This is the fourth time she has experienced these symptoms.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red and the pupil is irregular. The patient's visual acuity is slightly worse in the left eye compared to the right. Corneal staining reveals no abnormalities, but there are some cells present in the anterior chamber.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the recommended management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange same day assessment in eye casualty
Explanation:If a patient displays symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, such as a red and painful eye with reduced vision and flashes/floaters, urgent referral for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day is the most appropriate course of action. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, with the presence of cells in the aqueous humour and an abnormally shaped or differently sized pupil compared to the unaffected eye. While the pain is not as severe as scleritis, prompt evaluation by a specialist is crucial for proper treatment.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from a patient who is known to be HIV positive. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man comes to the emergency department after falling in his bathroom. He has suffered a femoral neck fracture and is now confined to his bed. Upon further inquiry, you discover that he was standing when the fall happened and has never had a fracture before. He has a medical history of Crohn's disease and osteoarthritis, and is currently taking methotrexate and ibuprofen.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start alendronic acid
Explanation:A DEXA scan is not necessary to diagnose osteoporosis and start bisphosphonate treatment in women aged 75 or above who have suffered a fragility fracture. Therefore, the correct answer is to start alendronic acid. Using a FRAX assessment tool may underestimate the risk of another fracture in this age group, making it more beneficial to start treatment. Bisphosphonates target osteoclasts, which prevents bone turnover.
Arranging a DEXA scan without doing a FRAX assessment due to the patient’s age is incorrect. FRAX assessment tools should be used with caution in patients aged 75 or above who have suffered a fragility fracture, and it is more advisable to start bisphosphonate treatment.
Prescribing bisphosphonates only if the T-score is below -2.5 after a DEXA scan is also incorrect. Assuming osteoporosis is acceptable in patients aged 75 or above who have suffered a fragility fracture.
Stopping prednisolone and reviewing in 2 weeks is not the correct answer. The dosage and duration of prednisolone treatment are not specified in this vignette. If a patient is taking ≥7.5 mg of prednisolone daily for ≥3 months, they would need to start bisphosphonates to protect their bone mineral density. Prednisolone treatment would not be stopped in either case.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also suffers from stable angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease. He doesn't have diabetes.
Which one of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modified release nifedipine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: NICE Guidelines
When it comes to managing hypertension, it’s important to choose the right medication based on the patient’s age, medical history, and other factors. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line therapy for hypertension in patients over the age of 55 without diabetes is a calcium-channel blocker, such as modified release nifedipine. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered in younger patients or those with certain contraindications, while ACE inhibitors are recommended for patients under 55. Thiazide-like diuretics can also be used in certain cases, such as when a calcium channel blocker is not tolerated or in cases of resistant hypertension. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 3-day-old newborn baby who was born by normal vaginal delivery without any complications. The parents report that the baby has suddenly become ill and deteriorated over the last few hours. The child is drowsy and lethargic, has a bulging fontanelle, and a high fever. You suspect meningitis and call for immediate transfer to the hospital.
What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Newborn Meningitis: Signs, Causes, and Consequences
Sepsis in newborns can cause nonspecific signs of unwellness, such as apnoeic episodes, drowsiness, lethargy, and irritability. However, meningitis in newborns may present differently, with a bulging fontanelle being a late and sometimes absent finding. The most common cause of meningitis in newborns is group B streptococcus (GBS), which is often transmitted vertically during labor and delivery. In some cases, infection may be delayed for up to one month.
Meningitis as a whole has significant morbidity and mortality rates, with a mortality rate of 5-15% in infants. Even those who survive may experience learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, and neural deafness. Recently, NICE has issued guidance on the prehospital care of patients with a clinical diagnosis of meningitis. It is crucial to recognize the signs of meningitis in newborns and seek prompt medical attention to prevent severe consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male attends a well man clinic.
On review of his history he has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week.
On examination, he is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg.
His investigations reveal that he has a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46) and his cholesterol concentration is 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2).
Which of the following would be expected to be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular (CV) risk?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight loss with Xenical
Explanation:Managing Hypertension and Diabetes for Cardiovascular Risk Reduction
This patient is diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes, as indicated by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. While metformin, ramipril, and statins have been shown to reduce cardiovascular (CV) risk in obese diabetics and hypertensive diabetics, respectively, none of these interventions are as effective as smoking cessation in reducing CV risk. The Nurses’ Health Study provides the best evidence for the risk reduction in past and current smokers among women. However, there is less definitive evidence for men. Despite this, it is unlikely that many practitioners would consider the other interventions to be of relatively more benefit than smoking cessation. There is currently no evidence that weight loss alone reduces CV mortality, possibly due to the lack of studies conducted on this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of visual disturbance. He experienced a temporary loss of vision for approximately one hour, but his vision has since returned to normal. He did not report any headache. Upon evaluation and examination, the doctor suspects a diagnosis of retinal migraine.
What is a characteristic feature of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Visual aura affecting only one eye
Explanation:Understanding Retinal Migraine: Symptoms and Features
Retinal migraine is a type of migraine that primarily affects vision in one eye. Unlike a typical migraine aura, which affects both eyes, retinal migraine causes recurrent attacks of unilateral visual disturbance or blindness lasting from minutes to one hour, often with minimal or no headache. The visual disturbance typically starts as a mosaic pattern of scotomata that gradually enlarges, leading to total unilateral visual loss.
Bilateral aura is not usually considered a feature of retinal migraine, and other diagnoses should be considered if both eyes are affected. Loss of consciousness and facial weakness are also not typical symptoms of retinal migraine and may indicate other underlying conditions.
However, transient aphasia, a feature of classical migraine, may occur in patients who suffer from visual aura. It usually resolves within an hour or two, with complete resolution to normal function.
It is important to rule out eye disease or vascular disease, mainly carotid artery disease, especially when risk factors for arteriosclerosis exist, particularly if there is a weakness of the facial muscles. Understanding the symptoms and features of retinal migraine can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A colleague of yours who is a physician requests you to recommend a regimen of ciprofloxacin as he is planning a trip to Goa in three days. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decline and suggest he consults with his regular GP
Explanation:According to the GMC, doctors should refrain from treating themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. It is recommended that doctors register with a GP outside of their family. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action would be to suggest that the colleague consults with their own GP. Discussing their medical history could create confusion regarding the doctor-patient relationship. Urging them to visit A&E is not advisable as it is not an emergency or an accident. It is worth noting that this type of request is not uncommon among colleagues, and reporting it to the GMC may be considered excessive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Can carbon monoxide poisoning cause pink skin and mucosae?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue skin and mucosae
Explanation:Pink skin and mucosae are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old aid worker returns from a 6-month placement in the former Soviet Union with a severe sore throat. He has a fever and generalised weakness and is restless. Examination reveals a swollen neck, tender lymph nodes and a white membrane over his throat. When you take a swab from the throat there is contact bleeding.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diphtheria
Explanation:Diphtheria: A Rare but Serious Disease
Diphtheria is a rare disease in Western Europe, but it still exists in the former USSR. The disease has an incubation period of 2-6 days and causes severe sore throat, malaise, and a pseudomembrane over the throat. Removing the pseudomembrane can cause bleeding. The toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae can lead to myocarditis and bulbar palsy. Diagnosis is done through a throat swab, and treatment involves macrolide antibiotics and antitoxin in severe cases. People traveling to areas where diphtheria is endemic should get vaccinated against the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with a history of osteoarthritis and psoriasis has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. He has expressed reluctance to take medications, but despite dietary changes, his HbA1c has risen to 60mmol/mol. The patient was prescribed standard-release metformin at a dose of 500mg twice daily with meals. However, after two weeks of taking metformin, he reported experiencing severe side effects such as nausea and diarrhea.
What would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to a modified release metformin 500mg once per day
Explanation:If the patient experiences gastrointestinal side effects with metformin, it is recommended to try a modified-release formulation before considering a second-line agent. This approach may help alleviate the side effects and allow the patient to continue with metformin therapy. Starting with a low dose of 500mg once daily and gradually increasing the dose based on blood glucose measurements is recommended. Other options such as continuing with lifestyle measures alone, a sub-therapeutic dose of metformin, adding loperamide, or increasing the dose of immediate-release metformin may not effectively address the patient’s intolerable side effects.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.
He has been known to have ischaemic heart disease for many years and has recently seen the cardiologists for outpatient review. Following this assessment he opted for medical management and they have optimised his bisoprolol dose. His current medications consist of:
Aspirin 75 mg daily
Ramipril 10 mg daily
Bisoprolol 10 mg daily
Simvastatin 40 mg daily, and
Tadalafil 5 mg daily.
He reports ongoing angina at least twice a week when out walking which dissipates quickly when he stops exerting himself. You discuss adding in further treatment to try and reduce his anginal symptoms.
Assuming that his current medication remains unchanged, which of the following is contraindicated in this gentleman as an add-on regular medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Contraindication of Co-Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors and Nitrates
Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and nitrates should not be co-prescribed due to the potential risk of life-threatening hypotension caused by excessive vasodilation. It is important to consider whether nitrates are administered regularly or as needed (PRN) when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors. Patients who take regular daily nitrates, such as oral isosorbide mononitrate twice daily, should avoid phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors altogether.
For patients who use sublingual GTN spray as a PRN nitrate medication, it is recommended to wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil and at least 48 hours after taking tadalafil before using GTN spray. This precaution helps to prevent the risk of hypotension and ensures patient safety. Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of co-prescribing these medications and to follow appropriate guidelines to ensure patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over the past 4 weeks. It seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day and lasts for approximately 2 hours. The pain makes him feel nauseous although he has not vomited. He has been significantly stressed with personal issues recently. Interestingly, he also reports his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation. He has no loss of visual acuity.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches are characterized by intermittent severe frontotemporal headaches lasting up to 2 hours at a time, with ipsilateral autonomic disturbance. These clusters typically last from 4 to 12 weeks and are more common in men than women. Glaucoma may cause a change in visual acuity, but headaches related to brain tumors would not exhibit ipsilateral autonomic disturbance and would not be as severe or intermittent. While migraine is a possibility, it would be unusual to experience such frequent episodes over a 4-week period and without ipsilateral autonomic disturbance.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old type one diabetic patient who has come to see you regarding his erectile dysfunction. He reports a gradual decline in his ability to achieve and maintain erections over the past 6 months. After reviewing his medications and discussing treatment options, you suggest he try a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor and prescribe him sildenafil.
What advice should you give this patient regarding taking a PDE-5 inhibitor?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sexual stimulation is required to facilitate an erection
Explanation:PDE-5 inhibitors do not cause an erection on their own, but rather require sexual stimulation to assist in achieving an erection. They are typically the first choice for treating erectile dysfunction, as long as there are no contraindications.
The primary cause of ED is often vasculogenic, such as cardiovascular disease, which means that the same lifestyle and risk factors that apply to CVD also apply to ED. Treatment for ED typically involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication. It is important to advise patients to lose weight, quit smoking, reduce alcohol consumption, and increase exercise. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should be implemented before or alongside treatment.
Generic sildenafil is available on the NHS without restrictions. Additionally, other PDE-5 inhibitors may be prescribed on the NHS for certain medical conditions, such as diabetes.
For most men, as-needed treatment with a PDE-5 inhibitor is appropriate. The frequency of treatment will depend on the individual.
Sildenafil should be taken one hour before sexual activity and requires sexual stimulation to facilitate an erection.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You see a 7-week old baby girl with her dad. He is worried as she has episodes where she cries uncontrollably and pulls her legs up to her tummy. She appears to be in pain and he is unable to calm her down. The crying doesn't seem to be related to feeding. The episodes last for around 30 minutes to 1 hour and occur for a total of about 3 hours a day. He finds it difficult to soothe her and is feeling exhausted.
She is breastfed and is feeding well. She is growing appropriately and is having normal wet and dirty nappies.
During the examination, she appears to be a healthy and content baby. No abnormalities are found.
Which statement below, regarding infantile colic, is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colic is associated with crying which most often occurs in the late afternoon or evening
Explanation:Infantile colic is characterized by repeated episodes of excessive and inconsolable crying in an otherwise healthy and thriving infant. This condition typically begins in the first few weeks of life and resolves by around 3-4 months of age. The crying often occurs in the late afternoon or evening and may be accompanied by the infant drawing its knees up to its abdomen or arching its back. Colic affects both breastfed and bottle-fed infants and occurs equally in both sexes. However, it can lead to complications such as parental stress, anxiety, and depression, sleep deprivation, family tension, and attachment difficulties between parent and infant. It may also result in premature cessation of breastfeeding or weaning onto solid foods, as well as an increased risk of child maltreatment.
Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.
He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.
He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a principle of the 2018 Data Protection Act?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Entities which hold personal data must appoint a Data Protection Registrar to ensure the principles of the Act are implemented
Explanation:Understanding the Data Protection Act
The Data Protection Act is a crucial piece of legislation that governs the protection of personal data in the UK. It applies to both manual and computerised records and outlines eight main principles that entities must follow. These principles include using data for its intended purpose, obtaining consent before disclosing data to other parties, allowing individuals access to their personal information, keeping data up-to-date and secure, and correcting any factual errors.
In 2018, the Data Protection Act was updated to include new provisions such as the right to erasure, exemptions, and regulation in conjunction with the GDPR. It is important for all entities that process personal information to register with the Information Commissioner’s Office and implement adequate security measures to protect sensitive data. By following the principles outlined in the Data Protection Act, entities can ensure that they are handling personal information in a responsible and ethical manner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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