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Question 1
Correct
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A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity
Explanation:Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman, who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy, begins to feel unwell with a fever and chills 3 or 4 days later. There are no obvious signs of active bleeding. On examination, you note that she is mildly jaundiced.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Pre-transfusion haemoglobin (Hb) 92 g/l 115–155 g/l
Post-transfusion Hb 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 90 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy and is experiencing fever, chills, and mild jaundice without signs of active bleeding?Your Answer: Delayed transfusion haemolysis
Explanation:Delayed Transfusion Haemolysis: A Possible Cause for Minimal Increase in Haemoglobin
A patient who has received a 3-unit transfusion has only shown a minimal increase in haemoglobin levels, which is a cause for concern. The rise in bilirubin without a corresponding increase in liver enzymes suggests haemolysis from a delayed transfusion haemolysis reaction. This type of reaction occurs when a patient without certain red cell antigens is exposed to these antigens through blood transfusion, resulting in the development of new antibodies and haemolysis after 3-14 days. Symptoms include fevers, rigors, rash, and jaundice, which are less severe and more gradual in onset than acute haemolytic reactions.
Medical management of this patient will involve screening for a wider range of possible antigens and access to a blood bank with a sufficient number of available units for a clean transfusion. Serious complications of blood transfusion are rare due to screening techniques, leukocyte depletion, and improved collection and storage.
Other potential transfusion-related reactions and their approximate time-course include hyperacute (minutes to hours), acute (hours to days), and late (days or longer). Bacterial sepsis is a possible reaction that would occur most likely in the acute time course, but it does not explain the minimal increase in haemoglobin following a 3-unit transfusion. Further haemorrhage, cholestasis of pregnancy, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) are also unlikely causes.
In conclusion, delayed transfusion haemolysis is a possible cause for the minimal increase in haemoglobin levels in this patient. It is important to consider this reaction and manage it appropriately to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her mother, reporting an increase in abdominal size and no menstrual periods for the past three months. Despite denying any sexual activity, you suspect she may be pregnant. What is the specific measurement of a urinary pregnancy test?
Your Answer: Beta-HCG
Explanation:The Role of Hormone Assays in Confirming Pregnancy
Beta-HCG is a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. There are highly sensitive assays available to detect the presence of beta-HCG, which can confirm pregnancy. In fact, some manufacturers of pregnancy tests claim that their tests are more accurate than ultrasound dating in determining gestation during the early stages of pregnancy.
While alpha-fetoprotein may also be elevated in pregnancy, particularly in cases of neural tube defects, it is not the primary focus of pregnancy testing. Hormone assays for oestrogen, progesterone, or testosterone levels are not reliable methods for confirming pregnancy. Therefore, beta-HCG remains the most reliable hormone to test for when confirming pregnancy.
It is important to note that while hormone assays can confirm pregnancy, they cannot determine the viability of the pregnancy or the presence of any complications. Ultrasound imaging and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to assess the health of the pregnancy and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a two-month history of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity. She is currently using a progesterone-only oral contraceptive and taking hydrocortisone 10 mg twice daily and fludrocortisone 100 µg per day. Her glycaemic control has been reasonable, with a last HbA1c of 65 mmol/mol (20-46), and she is receiving mixed insulin twice daily. On examination, she appears pale. A full blood count reveals the following results: haemoglobin 52 g/L (120-160), MCV 115 fL (80-96), WCC 4.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 126 ×109L (150-400), and MCH 32 pg (28-32). The blood film shows multilobed nuclei in neutrophils and macrophages. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Anemia and Pernicious Anemia
This patient is suffering from a macrocytic anemia, specifically a megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by multilobed nuclei. The most probable cause of this condition is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is commonly associated with pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is part of the autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome, which is linked to other autoimmune disorders such as Addison’s disease, type 1 diabetes, Sjögren’s disease, and vitiligo. Although there are other potential causes of macrocytosis, none of them are evident in this patient. Hypothyroidism, for example, does not cause megaloblastic anemia, only macrocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction
Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).
If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.
Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes
A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease
Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's syndrome screening test around 15 weeks into her pregnancy.
What is included in the measurement of a Down's screening blood test?Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein
Explanation:AFP Measurement for Detecting Birth Defects and Chromosomal Abnormalities
When a woman is 15 weeks pregnant, a blood test called AFP measurement can be performed to determine if there is an increased risk of certain birth defects and chromosomal abnormalities. This test can detect open neural tube or abdominal wall defects, as well as Down’s syndrome and trisomy 18. In the past, if the results of the AFP measurement were abnormal, an ultrasound scan would be performed. However, it is possible that in the future, mid-trimester anomaly scanning may replace the use of AFP measurement altogether.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Correct
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A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of heavy periods. She presents with a prolonged APTT and bleeding time, but normal indices. The patient reports a family history of bleeding disorders on her mother's side. She denies any prior history of bleeding or bruising after minor surgical procedures. What is the most likely bleeding disorder in this patient?
Your Answer: von Willebrand’s disease
Explanation:The diagnosis in this scenario is von Willebrand’s disease, which is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a defective von Willebrand factor. This protein plays a crucial role in haemostasis by assisting in platelet adhesion and stabilising coagulation factor VIII. A deficiency in von Willebrand factor prolongs bleeding time and APTT, but does not affect platelet counts or PT. It is more pronounced in women and may present with menorrhagia. Treatment involves administration of recombinant von Willebrand factor. Haemophilia A, Bernard-Soulier syndrome, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, and vitamin K deficiency are other bleeding disorders with different causes and blood test results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Correct
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A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she is concerned about his left knee. The child injured his knee while playing outside, and the knee is now significantly swollen and he is experiencing a lot of pain. The mother mentions that the child bruises easily. The mother herself does not have any such issues, but her sister had similar problems when she was young.
What is the most probable pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this boy's symptoms?Your Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation
Explanation:Pathophysiological Mechanisms of Various Medical Conditions
Haemophilia: Deficiency of a Clotting Factor in the Intrinsic Pathway of Coagulation
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition that affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is caused by a mutation in factor VIII or IX, leading to deficient coagulation. Patients present with excessive bleeding, such as spontaneous bruising, prolonged bleeding following a dental procedure or minor injury, bleeding into the joints (haemarthrosis), and epistaxis. Treatment involves correcting the deficiency with concentrated factor VIII or IX.Von Willebrand’s Disease: Deficiency of a Protein Found in Endothelial Cells and Released by Endothelial Damage
Von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant, inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. This protein is found in the endothelial cells lining the vessels and is released following endothelial damage. It promotes adhesion of platelets to the area of damage and stabilizes factor VIII, both actions promoting haemostasis. Symptoms include easy bruising and prolonged bleeding following minimal trauma.Ewing’s Sarcoma: Translocation Between Chromosomes 11 and 22
Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant bone tumour seen in children and young adults. It is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22.Leukaemia: Invasion of Bone Marrow by Leukaemic Cells
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells, leading to pancytopenia, a condition in which there is a deficiency of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and bone marrow transplantation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried about not having started her periods yet, while many of her peers have. Her medical history includes a lack of sense of smell, which she has had since childhood. On examination, she has normal height, early breast development, and minimal secondary sexual hair. Her BMI is 22. What blood test would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of her amenorrhea?
Your Answer: FSH
Explanation:Kallmann’s Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis
Anosmia and primary amenorrhoea are two symptoms that may indicate the presence of Kallmann’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the underdevelopment of the olfactory bulb, which leads to a loss of the sense of smell, and the failure to produce gonadotrophin releasing hormone. As a result, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone may cause a partial or complete failure to enter puberty in women.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, on the other hand, may cause electrolyte imbalances, but it is typically associated with abnormal female virilization. Prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor, is usually linked to secondary amenorrhoea. Meanwhile, thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, may cause menstrual cessation, but it is less likely to be the cause of primary amenorrhoea, especially in the absence of hyperthyroidism symptoms.
In summary, Kallmann’s syndrome should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with anosmia and primary amenorrhoea. However, other conditions such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, prolactinoma, and thyrotoxicosis should also be ruled out through proper evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Correct
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What are the criteria that must be met for blood used in an exchange transfusion for a neonate?
Your Answer: Plasma reduced whole blood in CPD less than 5-days-old and irradiated
Explanation:Requirements for Exchange Transfusion
Exchange transfusion is a medical procedure that necessitates the use of blood that has been processed to meet specific criteria. The blood used must be plasma-reduced whole blood, irradiated, and less than five days old. These requirements are necessary to ensure that the blood is free from any contaminants that could cause adverse reactions in the patient. Additionally, the Rh group of the blood used must either be Rh negative or identical to the neonate to prevent haemolytic transfusion reactions. These precautions are taken to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient undergoing the exchange transfusion. Proper blood selection is crucial in ensuring the success of the procedure and minimizing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy has been brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his parents, both of whom are known to suffer from sickle cell disease. They have brought him in to see you because they are worried he has developed ‘septicaemia’. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has developed extreme fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, coryzal symptoms and bleeding gums, all over the last two days.
Upon examination, you note an erythematosus rash on both cheeks, a small purpuric rash on the left arm, pale conjunctivae, pale skin and well-perfused peripheries. Brudzinski’s sign is negative.
You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
Temperature: 37.8 ˚C
Heart rate: 100 bpm (normal 55–85 bpm)
Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min)
Blood pressure: 130/86 mmHg (lying), 132/84 mmHg (standing)
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
His initial investigation findings are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal
White cell count (WCC) 11.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 3800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
Lymphocytes 7200 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 84 g/dl 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume
(MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Given the likely diagnosis, how should the patient be managed?Your Answer: Take blood cultures, measure blood lactate and urine output, give 500ml Hartmann’s solution over a maximum of 15 minutes, give IV empirical antibiotics and titrate oxygen levels to 94–98%
Correct Answer: Cross-match, giving blood as soon as it is available
Explanation:The patient in question is at a high risk of sickle cell disease due to their ethnicity and family history. They are showing signs of parvovirus B19 infection, which is causing bone marrow failure and a decrease in erythropoiesis. This condition, known as aplastic crisis, is usually managed conservatively but may require a blood transfusion if the patient is experiencing symptomatic anemia. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not recommended in this case as it will not address the patient’s severe anemia. IV ceftriaxone and a lumbar puncture would be the correct initial management for meningococcal disease, but it is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Oral benzylpenicillin and transfer to a pediatric ward is also not recommended as it is not the correct management for meningococcal disease and is not relevant to the patient’s condition. While sepsis is a possible differential diagnosis, the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is a viral infection causing aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease. Therefore, the appropriate management would be to investigate for viral infection and provide supportive therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
What is the most likely cause of her main concern?Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)
Explanation:Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions
When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.
Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.
Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).
Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Correct
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The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?
Your Answer: 1 per 1 million donations
Explanation:Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion
Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating blood for five days.
What should be the subsequent suitable step for the medical officer in charge of the blood bank?Your Answer: The donor needs to be struck off the donor register
Correct Answer: Recall blood products from this donor and arrange for retesting of this donor
Explanation:Managing Donor Complications and Blood Products
When a donor develops complications, it is important to assess how to manage both the donor and the blood products from the donation. In such cases, the blood products should be recalled until further testing and clarification of the donor’s illness. It is crucial to prevent the release of any of the blood products. However, the donor should not be immediately struck off the register until further testing results are available. It is important to take these precautions to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent any potential harm to recipients. Proper management of donor complications and blood products is essential to maintain the integrity of the blood donation system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently told him that he should be receiving treatment for his splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication.
What would you recommend to him?Your Answer: Hepatitis B vaccination
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Asplenic Patients and the Importance of Vaccination
Asplenic patients are individuals who have had their spleen removed, leaving them at risk of overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that these patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after emergency surgery. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenzae vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.
While oral penicillin is recommended for children, its long-term use in adults is a topic of debate. However, current guidance suggests that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization. It is crucial to take these preventative measures to protect asplenic patients from potentially life-threatening infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with sickle-cell disease is being evaluated in Haematology Outpatients. She has been admitted several times due to sickle-cell crisis and abdominal pain, and there is suspicion of multiple splenic infarcts. What blood film abnormalities would indicate hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Schistocytes
Correct Answer: Howell–Jolly bodies
Explanation:Blood Film Abnormalities and Their Significance
Blood film abnormalities can provide important diagnostic information about a patient’s health. One such abnormality is Howell-Jolly bodies, which are nuclear remnants found in red blood cells and indicate hyposplenism. Other abnormalities seen in hyposplenism include target cells, Pappenheimer cells, increased red cell anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, and spherocytes. Patients with hyposplenism are at increased risk of bacterial infections and should be vaccinated accordingly.
Rouleaux formation, on the other hand, is a stack of red blood cells that stick together, forming a rouleau. This occurs in conditions where plasma protein is high, such as multiple myeloma, some infections, Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia, and some cancers.
Schistocytes are irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells that occur due to mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as hemolytic anemia. They are not typically seen in hyposplenism.
Tear drop cells, which are seen in conditions where there is abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis, are also not seen in hyposplenism.
Finally, toxic granulation occurs during inflammatory processes such as bacterial infection or sepsis and refers to neutrophils which contain dark, coarse granules. It is not present in hyposplenism.
In summary, understanding blood film abnormalities and their significance can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
Investigation Results Normal value
Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?Your Answer: Administration of heparin
Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
Explanation:Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.
Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.
Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.
There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives?
Your Answer: Pooled plasma is often sourced from within the UK
Correct Answer: The end product is a freeze dried product
Explanation:Preparation of Plasma Derivatives
The preparation of plasma derivatives, such as factor VIII, involves pooling several thousand plasma donations, typically 20,000 or 5,000 kg of plasma at a time. To avoid the risk of vCJD, pooled plasma has been sourced from outside the UK since 1999. The process includes several chemical steps, including ethanol extraction, chromatography, and viral inactivation, resulting in a freeze-dried product. These products have a long shelf life of several months to years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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In a 71-year-old man who is asymptomatic and attending clinic for an annual review, a full blood count result shows a mild lymphocytosis of 15 × 109/l with a few smear cells. What is the most crucial investigation to determine a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)?
Your Answer: CT scan of chest abdomen and pelvis
Correct Answer: Peripheral blood flow cytometry
Explanation:Diagnosis and Staging of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) can be diagnosed through flow cytometry, which shows a specific pattern of monoclonal B cell proliferation. This pattern includes CD19/5 coexpressing, CD23 positive, and light chain restricted B cell population. However, smear cells, which are fragile lymphocytes that are smeared on the glass slide, can also be present in other lymphoproliferative disorders and benign lymphocytosis. Therefore, they do not necessarily indicate CLL.
While CT scan and LDH are not essential for diagnosis, they are necessary for staging CLL. These investigations help determine the extent of the disease and the organs affected. Additionally, cervical lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes in the neck, may be present in CLL. However, it can also be seen in other causes of lymphadenopathy, such as viral infections or adenopathy secondary to local dental infection.
In summary, flow cytometry is a crucial tool in diagnosing CLL, while CT scan and LDH are necessary for staging. Smear cells may be present but do not necessarily indicate CLL, and cervical lymphadenopathy can be seen in various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue that has lasted for 2 months. She has been consuming approximately 20 units of alcohol per week for the past decade. Her blood test reveals the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 126 fl 82–100 fl
What is the most probable cause of her anaemia based on these blood results?Your Answer: Congenital sideroblastic anaemia
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Causes of Macrocytic and Microcytic Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or haemoglobin in the blood. Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia where the red blood cells are larger than normal, while microcytic anaemia is a type where the red blood cells are smaller than normal. Here are some of the causes of macrocytic and microcytic anaemia:
Alcohol Excess: Alcohol toxicity can directly affect the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic anaemia. Additionally, alcoholism can cause poor nutrition and vitamin B12 deficiency, which can also lead to macrocytosis.
Congenital Sideroblastic Anaemia: This is a rare genetic disorder that produces ringed sideroblasts instead of normal erythrocytes, leading to microcytic anaemia.
Iron Deficiency: Iron deficiency is a common cause of anaemia, especially in women. However, it causes microcytic anaemia, not macrocytic anaemia.
Blood Loss from Menses: Chronic blood loss due to menorrhagia can result in microcytic iron deficiency anaemia. However, this is a physiological process and would not cause macrocytic anaemia.
Thalassemia: Thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that leads to abnormal or low haemoglobin, resulting in microcytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and both lower limbs over the past four months. He has also developed digital infarcts affecting the second and third fingers on the right hand and the fifth finger on the left. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses are palpable, and there is an asymmetrical neuropathy. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L (130-170), a white cell count of 12.5 ×109/L (4-10), a platelet count of 430 ×109/L (150-450), and an ESR of 50 mm/hr (0-15). Urine examination shows proteinuria and 10-15 red blood cells per high power field without casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic disease that affects small or medium-sized arteries in various organs, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as nerve damage, skin issues, joint and muscle pain, kidney problems, and heart issues. Laboratory findings include anemia, increased white blood cells and platelets, and elevated inflammatory markers. ANCA testing can help differentiate PAN from other vasculitis diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.
During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)
What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?Your Answer: <125 g/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed periods for the past four months despite negative pregnancy tests. She is also distressed about the loss of her libido and has noticed milk leakage with minimal nipple stimulation during intercourse. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 122/70 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular, and general physical examination is unremarkable. Which blood test is most likely to show elevated levels?
Your Answer: Beta-HCG
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Symptoms and Diagnosis of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the body. This condition is typically associated with symptoms such as milk production, decreased libido, and absence of menstruation. However, visual disturbances are not always present, as many cases of hyperprolactinaemia are related to a microprolactinoma.
When diagnosing hyperprolactinaemia, it is important to assess thyroid status as this condition is often associated with hypothyroidism. Thyroxine levels are usually low in individuals with hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, beta-HCG levels are elevated in pregnancy, so it is important to rule out pregnancy as a potential cause of elevated prolactin levels.
In summary, hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that can present with a variety of symptoms, but is typically characterized by elevated prolactin levels. Diagnosis involves assessing thyroid status and ruling out pregnancy as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which structure, containing both white and red pulp, is responsible for trapping foreign substances present in the blood?
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Comparison of Lymphoid Organs and Non-Lymphoid Organs
The human body contains various organs that serve different functions. Among these are the lymphoid organs, which play a crucial role in the immune system. In this article, we will compare the characteristics of three lymphoid organs (spleen, lymph node, and thymus) with two non-lymphoid organs (heart and thyroid gland).
Spleen
The spleen is the largest secondary lymphoid organ. It is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen and contains both white pulp (lymphatic tissue and macrophages) and red pulp (sinusoids and red blood cells). One of its functions is to filter foreign substances from the blood.Lymph Node
Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs that contain structures where mature lymphocytes are stimulated by antigens to undergo further division and differentiation. They do not contain white and red pulp.Thymus
The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ where T lymphocytes mature, differentiate, and proliferate. It does not contain white and red pulp.Heart
The heart is the main organ of the circulatory system and does not contain white and red pulp.Thyroid Gland
The thyroid gland is located in the anterior neck and is part of the endocrine system. It does not contain white and red pulp.In summary, lymphoid organs play a crucial role in the immune system, while non-lymphoid organs serve other functions. Understanding the characteristics of these organs can help us appreciate the complexity and diversity of the human body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Correct
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What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?
Your Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids
Explanation:Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A woman has some blood tests taken by her general practitioner (GP). The results show a Hb of 10.0, MCV of 69 and a ferritin of 9.
Which is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Treat with ferrous sulphate 200 mg twice a day plus folic acid and repeat bloods in three months
Correct Answer: Treat with ferrous sulphate 200 mg three times a day and repeat bloods in three months
Explanation:Understanding Iron Deficiency Anaemia and Treatment Options
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can present with symptoms such as lethargy, tiredness, and shortness of breath on exertion. It is often seen in women due to menstruation and blood loss associated with it, as well as in pregnant women. However, it is not a common finding in men and should be investigated further if present.
Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia involves the use of ferrous sulfate, typically at a dose of 200 mg two to three times a day for at least three months. Blood tests should be repeated after this time to assess the effectiveness of therapy. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary in cases of folate deficiency anaemia, which presents with a raised MCV.
It is important to investigate persistent anaemia despite adequate iron supplementation, as it may indicate an underlying malignancy. Men with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of < 110 g/l should be referred urgently to the gastroenterology team for investigation of upper or lower gastrointestinal malignancy. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for iron deficiency anaemia can help improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Correct
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The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?
Your Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample
Explanation:Common Causes of Transfusion Errors
Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.
In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.
On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids
Explanation:Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.
The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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