-
Question 1
Correct
-
A healthy 60-year-old male has a clinic blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.
When should you offer him another blood pressure test?Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Testing
The NICE guidelines recommend testing normotensive individuals every five years, with more frequent testing for those with blood pressure approaching 140/90 mmHg. For this particular patient, five years is sufficient. It is important for general practitioners to have a thorough understanding of hypertension management, as it may be tested on in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. This question specifically assesses knowledge of NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man with Tourette's and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents to you with concerns about intermittent chest pain on exertion. He drinks 21 units of alcohol per week and smokes 20 cigarettes a day. His father died of a myocardial infarction at the age of 56 years. You refer him for suspected angina, provide advice on what to do if he experiences chest pain, and prescribe a GTN spray for use as needed. While prescribing the GTN spray, you notice a medication on his prescription list that he should avoid taking while being investigated for chest pain or using the GTN spray. What medication is this referring to?
Your Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Sildenafil, a type of PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be used together with nitrates and nicorandil due to potential risks of significant hypotension and myocardial infarction. On the other hand, there are no known interactions between nitrates and metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, or atorvastatin according to the BNF.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man requests you to check his blood pressure after his colleague had a heart attack. Upon measurement, his blood pressure is 142/82 mmHg, and five minutes later, it is 134/74 mmHg in the same arm. According to NICE guidelines, what is the best next step to take?
Your Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Correct Answer: Reassure him that the second reading is normal and suggest he has it checked in 12 months
Explanation:If the clinic reading is equal to or greater than 140/90 mmHg, it is recommended to offer ABPM/HBPM. However, if the lower reading in the consultation is below 140/90 mmHg, no immediate action is necessary according to NICE guidelines.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.
What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide
Explanation:To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation presents to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, yellow vision, and nausea. She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/80, and her pulse is slow and irregular, hovering around 42. There is no evidence of cardiac failure. Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Digoxin Toxicity and its Management
Digoxin toxicity is a condition that can cause a number of symptoms, including yellow vision and nausea. It can also lead to various arrhythmias, such as heart block, supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia. This toxicity can be associated with certain medications, including erythromycin, tetracyclines, quinidine, calcium channel blockers, captopril, and amiodarone.
In addition to medication interactions, it is important to monitor renal function as deteriorating creatinine clearance can also contribute to toxicity. Management of digoxin toxicity involves measuring digoxin levels, avoiding or reducing the dose, and in severe cases, admission for cardiac monitoring and consideration of digoxin antibody therapy.
To summarize, digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications. By being aware of the medications that can interact with digoxin and monitoring renal function, healthcare providers can help prevent and manage this condition effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his hypertension. Despite being on atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, he was found to have grade II hypertensive retinopathy. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). Additionally, his ECG revealed left ventricular hypertrophy. What potential diagnosis should be considered as a cause of his resistant hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism
This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension and has a low potassium concentration despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should have increased their potassium levels. These symptoms are highly suggestive of primary hyperaldosteronism, which can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be challenging to diagnose, but it is essential to do so as it can lead to severe complications if left untreated. By identifying the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms, doctors can develop an effective treatment plan to manage their hypertension and potassium levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.
Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).
One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.
Repeat investigations show:
Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.
What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.
ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.
It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
What other finding are you most likely to find?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variable S1
Explanation:Characteristics of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.
Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents for a routine check-up and inquires about the benefits and drawbacks of taking daily aspirin. He has normal blood pressure and his cholesterol and glucose levels are within normal limits.
What is the one accurate statement regarding the advantages and disadvantages of aspirin in primary prevention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin use in primary prevention reduces risk of non-fatal myocardial infarction
Explanation:The Pros and Cons of Aspirin in Primary Prevention
Aspirin has been found to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction in primary prevention studies. However, this benefit is counterbalanced by an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is highest in the first 1-2 years of use but decreases with continued use. Despite this, there is a significant body of evidence indicating that aspirin can reduce the risk of cancer, particularly colorectal cancer, and also lower the risk of metastases. Additionally, stopping aspirin use can lead to a temporary increase in the risk of myocardial infarction. Currently, there is no consensus on whether aspirin or other antiplatelets should be recommended for primary prevention in otherwise healthy patients due to insufficient evidence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman presents with a leg ulcer above the right medial malleolus. Compression bandaging is being considered as a treatment option. Without diabetes, what is the minimum ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) recommended by SIGN guidelines to ensure the safety of compression bandaging?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.8
Explanation:It is safe to use compression therapy for patients with leg ulcers who have an ABPI of 0.8 or higher.
Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index for Evaluating Peripheral Arterial Disease
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It measures the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the lower leg to that in the arms. A lower blood pressure in the legs, resulting in an ABPI of less than 1, is an indicator of PAD. This test is particularly useful in evaluating patients with suspected PAD, such as a male smoker who presents with intermittent claudication.
In addition, it is important to determine the ABPI in patients with leg ulcers. Compression bandaging is often used to treat venous ulcers, but it can be harmful in patients with PAD as it further restricts blood supply to the foot. Therefore, ABPIs should always be measured in patients with leg ulcers to determine if compression bandaging is appropriate.
The interpretation of ABPI values is as follows: a value greater than 1.2 may indicate calcified, stiff arteries, which can be seen in advanced age or PAD. A value between 1.0 and 1.2 is considered normal, while a value between 0.9 and 1.0 is acceptable. A value less than 0.9 is likely indicative of PAD, and values less than 0.5 indicate severe disease that requires urgent referral. The ABPI is a reliable test, with values less than 0.90 having a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 98% for PAD. Compression bandaging is generally considered acceptable if the ABPI is greater than or equal to 0.8.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.
Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.
It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old woman is prescribed statin therapy (rosuvastatin 10 mg daily) for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD) due to a QRISK2 assessment indicating a 10-year risk of CVD greater than 10%. Her liver function profile, renal function, thyroid function, and HbA1c were all normal at the start of treatment. According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial monitoring plan after starting statin therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her liver function, renal function and HbA1c should be measured 12 months after statin initiation
Explanation:Monitoring Requirements for Statin Treatment
It is important to monitor patients who are undergoing statin treatment. Even if their liver function tests are normal at the beginning, they should be repeated after three months. At this point, a lipid profile should also be checked to see if the treatment targets have been achieved in terms of non-HDL cholesterol reduction. After 12 months, liver function should be checked again. If it remains normal throughout, there is no need for routine rechecking unless clinically indicated or if the statin dosage is increased. In such cases, liver function should be checked again after three months and after 12 months of the dose change.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil prescription, which he has been taking for several years. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he suffered a heart attack four months ago. What course of action should you take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not prescribe as contraindicated
Explanation:Sildenafil use is not recommended for patients who have had a recent myocardial infarction or unstable angina, as stated in both the BNF and NICE guidelines. As the patient in this question had a myocardial infarction just 4 months ago, prescribing sildenafil is contraindicated. Therefore, the answer to this question is do not prescribe.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Pharmaceutical Treatments for Heart Failure: A Summary
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. There are several pharmaceutical treatments available, each with its own benefits and limitations. Here is a summary of some of the most commonly used drugs:
Enalapril: This drug blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to improved cardiac output and reduced hospitalization rates.
Digoxin: While this drug doesn’t improve mortality rates, it can be useful in managing symptoms.
Amlodipine: This drug has not been shown to improve survival rates, but may be used in conjunction with other medications.
Aspirin: This drug is only useful in cases of coronary occlusion or myocardial infarction.
Furosemide: This drug can relieve congestive symptoms, but is not relevant for all heart failure patients.
It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits his primary care physician for his yearly examination. During the check-up, his blood pressure is measured at 170/100 mmHg. He is currently taking furosemide and aspirin. Which medication would be the most suitable to include?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Patients with heart failure have demonstrated improved prognosis with the use of both enalapril and bisoprolol.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman is being seen for a routine medical check-up at her new GP practice. During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 146/94 mmHg, which is confirmed on a second reading. According to the latest NICE recommendations, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:NICE guidelines from 2011 acknowledge the issue of overtreatment of ‘white coat’ hypertension and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to address this problem. ABPM is also considered a more reliable predictor of cardiovascular risk compared to clinic blood pressure readings, based on strong evidence.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which beta blocker has been approved for treating heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acebutolol
Explanation:Heart Failure Treatment Options
According to the 2010 update by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), there are several medications that are indicated for the treatment of heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, and nebivolol. These drugs are commonly used to manage heart failure symptoms and improve overall heart function. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of heart failure. With proper medication management, individuals with heart failure can experience improved quality of life and better outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon and is struggling to manage the symptoms during the colder months. He asks if there are any medications that could help alleviate his condition.
Which of the following drugs has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness in improving this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to reduced blood flow and pain. The most commonly used drug for treatment is nifedipine, which causes vasodilatation and reduces the number and severity of attacks. However, patients may experience side-effects such as hypotension, flushing, headache, and tachycardia.
For those who cannot tolerate nifedipine, other agents such as nicardipine, amlodipine, or diltiazem can be tried. Limited evidence suggests that angiotensin receptor-blockers, fluoxetine, and topical nitrates may also provide some benefit. However, there is no evidence to support the use of antiplatelet agents.
In secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, management of the underlying cause may help alleviate symptoms. Treatment options are similar to primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, with the addition of the prostacyclin analogue iloprost, which has shown to be effective in systemic sclerosis.
Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon aim to improve blood flow and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective treatment plan for each individual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce all cause mortality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Statins
Explanation:Lipid Management in Primary Care
Lipid management is a common scenario in primary care, and NICE has produced guidance on Lipid modification (CG181) in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The use of statins in primary prevention is supported by clinical trial data, with WOSCOPS (The West of Scotland Coronary Prevention Study) being a landmark trial. This study looked at statin versus placebo in men aged 45-65 with no coronary disease and a cholesterol >4 mmol/L, showing a reduction in all-cause mortality by 22% in the statin arm for a 20% total cholesterol reduction.
Other study data also supports the use of statins as primary prevention of coronary artery disease. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on lipid modification – CVD prevention recommends Atorvastatin at 20 mg for primary prevention and 80 mg for secondary prevention. Risk is assessed using the QRISK2 calculator. Overall, lipid management is an important aspect of primary care, and healthcare professionals should be familiar with the latest guidance and clinical trial data to provide optimal care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy born at home after an uneventful pregnancy. The labour was normal and the baby has been fine until today, when he was noted to be slightly blue around the lips on feeding, recovering quickly. On examination there is a systolic murmur and you are unable to feel pulses in the legs.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects in Newborns
Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the structure of the heart that are present at birth. Here are some common congenital heart defects in newborns:
Coarctation of the aorta: This defect is a narrowing of the aorta, usually just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery, close to the ductus arteriosus. It usually presents between day 2 and day 6 with symptoms of heart failure as the ductus arteriosus closes. The patient may have weak femoral pulses and a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area.
Fallot’s tetralogy: This defect consists of a large ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular outflow obstruction, and right ventricular hypertrophy. It leads to a right to left shunt and low oxygen saturation, which can cause cyanosis. Most cases are diagnosed antenatally or on investigation of a heart murmur.
Ductus arteriosus: The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. It is a normal structure in fetal life but should close after birth. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close can lead to overloading of the lungs because a left to right shunt occurs. Heart failure may be a consequence. A continuous (“machinery”) murmur is best heard at the left infraclavicular area or upper left sternal border.
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn: This condition is seen shortly after delivery and consists of a period of rapid breathing. It is likely due to retained lung fluid and usually resolves over 24-48 hours. However, it is important to observe for signs of clinical deterioration.
Ventricular septal defects: These defects vary in size and haemodynamic consequences. The presence of a defect may not be obvious at birth. Classically there is a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal edge. With large defects, pulmonary hypertension may develop resulting in a right to left shunt (Eisenmenger’s syndrome). Patients with the latter may have no murmur.
In conclusion, early detection and management of congenital heart defects in newborns are crucial for better outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is seen in clinic. There is no evidence of diabetic retinopathy, chronic kidney disease or cardiovascular disease in his records.
He is currently taking the following medications:
simvastatin 20 mg once daily
ramipril 10 mg once daily
amlodipine 5mg once daily
metformin 1g twice daily
Recent blood results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.4 mmol/l
Urea 7.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 86 µmol/l
HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)
The urine dipstick shows no proteinuria. His blood pressure in clinic today is 134/76 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No changes to medication required
Explanation:Since there are no complications from her diabetes, the target blood pressure remains < 140/80 mmHg and her antihypertensive regime doesn't need to be altered. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers. Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight. Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age. The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is generally in good health, but experiences occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground. He continues to smoke five cigarettes per day. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological examination is normal, and his fundi appear normal. Examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent foot pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He was started on antihypertensive therapy, and his U+Es were measured over a two-week period, with the following results:
Baseline:
Sodium - 138 mmol/L
Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
Creatinine - 138 µmol/L
2 weeks later:
Sodium - 140 mmol/L
Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 310 µmol/L
Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy
Explanation:Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors
This man has diabetes and hypertension, along with mild symptoms of claudication and absent foot pulses, indicating arteriopathy. These factors suggest a diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS), which can cause macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment.
When an antihypertensive medication was introduced, the patient’s renal function deteriorated, indicating that the drug was an ACE inhibitor. This is because hypertension in RAS is caused by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system trying to maintain renal perfusion. Inhibiting this system with ACE inhibitors can result in relative renal ischemia, leading to further deterioration of renal function.
In summary, patients with diabetes and hypertension who present with arteriopathy symptoms should be evaluated for RAS. The use of ACE inhibitors in these patients should be carefully monitored, as it can exacerbate renal impairment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with the practice nurse for her type 2 diabetes. During the review, the nurse found that her blood pressure was elevated. Mrs. Smith has since borrowed a friend's BP monitor and has recorded her readings on a spreadsheet, which she has brought to show you. She has already calculated the average BP, which is 142/91 mmHg. Mrs. Smith has been researching on the internet and is interested in starting medication to reduce her cardiovascular risk, especially since she already has diabetes.
According to NICE, what antihypertensive medication is recommended for Mrs. Smith?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker
Explanation:For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, the recommended first-line medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, regardless of age. Alpha-blockers or beta-blockers are usually considered as a 4th-line option. Calcium channel blockers were previously recommended for patients aged 55 or over, but the updated NICE guidelines prioritize ACE inhibitors or ARBs. It is not appropriate to monitor the patient annually without commencing treatment, as they have confirmed stage 1 hypertension and a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alprostadil
Explanation:Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling
Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.
Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.
Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.
A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.
Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.
In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.
You discuss starting treatment and initiate ramipril at a dose of 1.25 mg daily. His recent blood test results show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, thyroid function and fasting glucose.
His other medications are: metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD and simvastatin 40 mg ON.
What blood test monitoring should next be performed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat renal function in 7-14 days
Explanation:Renal Function Monitoring for ACE Inhibitor Treatment
Renal function monitoring is crucial before initiating treatment with an ACE inhibitor and one to two weeks after initiation or any subsequent dose increase, according to NICE recommendations. Although ACE inhibitors have a role in managing chronic kidney disease, they can also cause impairment of renal function that may be progressive. The concomitant use of NSAIDs and potassium-sparing diuretics increases the risks of renal side effects and hyperkalaemia, respectively.
In patients with bilateral renal stenosis who are given ACE inhibitors, marked renal failure can occur. Therefore, if there is a significant deterioration in renal function as a result of ACE inhibition, a specialist should be involved. It is important to monitor renal function regularly to ensure the safe and effective use of ACE inhibitors in the management of various conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness of breath on exertion. You suspect left ventricular failure. Identify the single test that, if normal, would make the diagnosis of heart failure highly unlikely.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An ECG
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Heart Failure: Importance of ECG and Natriuretic Peptides
When a patient is suspected of having heart failure, several investigations are recommended to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and blood glucose, are typically performed. However, the results of these tests alone are not sufficient to diagnose heart failure.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is also commonly performed, although its predictive value for heart failure is limited. A normal ECG can make left ventricular systolic dysfunction unlikely, with a negative predictive value of 98%. On the other hand, an abnormal ECG may indicate the need for further testing, such as echocardiography.
Serum natriuretic peptides, which are released by the heart in response to increased pressure or volume, can also be helpful in diagnosing heart failure. If these levels are normal, the diagnosis of heart failure is less likely. However, this test is not always available or necessary in the initial investigation.
A chest x-ray can provide supportive evidence for heart failure and rule out other potential causes of breathlessness. It is important to note that oxygen saturation may be normal in heart failure, so this alone cannot be used to rule out the condition.
Echocardiography is the gold standard for diagnosing heart failure and determining the underlying cause. It is recommended in patients who have either a raised natriuretic peptide level or an abnormal ECG. By providing detailed images of the heart’s structure and function, echocardiography can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.
In summary, a combination of tests is necessary to diagnose heart failure and determine the best course of treatment. The ECG and natriuretic peptides can provide important clues, but echocardiography is essential for confirming the diagnosis and identifying the underlying cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman presents to you for a follow-up blood pressure check. She has been evaluated by two other physicians in the past three months, with readings of 140/90 mmHg and 148/86 mmHg. Her current blood pressure is 142/84 mmHg. She has no familial history of hypertension, her BMI is 23, and she is a non-smoker. Based on the most recent NICE recommendations, what is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check ECG and blood tests and see her again in a month with the results
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension Diagnosis and Management
Hypertension is a common condition that requires careful diagnosis and management. According to the 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), ambulatory or home blood pressure should be checked if a patient has a blood pressure equal to or greater than 140/90 mmHg. If the systolic reading is above 140 mmHg, it is considered a sign of hypertension.
The guidelines also state that lifestyle advice should be given to all patients, and drug treatment should be considered if there are signs of end organ damage or if the patient’s CVD risk is greater than 10% in 10 years. For patients under 40 years old, referral to a specialist should be considered.
It is important to note that NICE guidance is not the only source of information on hypertension diagnosis and management. While it is important to have an awareness of the latest guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.
In summary, understanding the diagnosis and management of hypertension is crucial for general practitioners. The 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension provides important information on thresholds for diagnosis and management, but it is important to consider other sources of information as well.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You are conducting a medication review for a 65-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 2 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
- Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
- Amlodipine 5mg once daily
- Ramipril 10 mg once daily
- Diclofenac 50 mg as needed
- Sertraline 50 mg once daily
What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID
Explanation:The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.
Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Risk
The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), due to a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, diclofenac is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs, such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
You are assessing a 70-year old man with a history of heart failure. He is still exhibiting signs of fluid overload, prompting you to raise his furosemide dosage from 20 mg to 40 mg. What additional monitoring should be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal function, serum electrolytes and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks
Explanation:Monitoring Recommendations for Loop Diuretics
To ensure the safe and effective use of loop diuretics, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends monitoring renal function, serum electrolytes, and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks after each dose increase. It is also important to check these parameters before starting treatment and after treatment initiation.
For patients with known chronic kidney disease (CKD), those aged 60 years or older, or those taking an ACE-I, ARB, or aldosterone antagonist, earlier monitoring (5-7 days) may be necessary. By closely monitoring these parameters, healthcare professionals can identify any potential adverse effects and adjust treatment accordingly to optimize patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from the hospital. He was admitted due to chest pain and was given thrombolytic therapy for a heart attack. Today, he experienced significant swelling of his tongue and face. Which medication is the most probable cause of this reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Drug-induced angioedema is most frequently caused by ACE inhibitors.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)