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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old para 1 woman has just given birth to a large baby...

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    • A 32-year-old para 1 woman has just given birth to a large baby boy (4.2kg). The delivery was vaginal but complicated by shoulder dystocia, which was resolved with McRoberts' manoeuvre and suprapubic pressure. Although the baby is healthy, the mother is experiencing significant pain and bleeding due to a tear. Upon examination, the midwife discovers a midline tear that extends to a small portion of the external anal sphincter. However, the internal sphincter remains intact. The patient's vital signs are normal, and she is otherwise in good health. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Suture repair in theatre by clinicians under local or general anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a third degree perineal tear is surgical repair in theatre by a trained clinician under local or general anaesthetic. This is necessary as the tear involves the external anal sphincter, which can lead to complications such as infection, prolapse, long-term pain, and faecal incontinence if left untreated. Analgesia should also be provided to manage the patient’s pain, with paracetamol being the first-line option. Emergency repair in theatre is not usually required unless the patient is unstable. Suture repair on the ward by a midwife or clinician is not appropriate for tears involving the anal complex, which require intervention in theatre. However, grade 2 tears can be repaired on the ward by senior midwives trained in perineal repair.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What...

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    • You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What result would suggest the requirement for regular antenatal administration of anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are not sensitised

      Explanation:

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old female attends the antenatal clinic for a booking appointment. What should...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female attends the antenatal clinic for a booking appointment. What should be recognized as a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: History of smoking

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing renal disease

      Explanation:

      Identify the following as potential risk factors:
      – Being 40 years old or older
      – Never having given birth
      – Having a pregnancy interval of over 10 years
      – Having a family history of pre-eclampsia
      – Having previously experienced pre-eclampsia
      – Having a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m^2 or higher
      – Having pre-existing vascular disease, such as hypertension.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman is on her second day postpartum, following a Caesarean section....

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    • A 25-year-old woman is on her second day postpartum, following a Caesarean section. She is taking regular paracetamol for pain around the wound site, which has not alleviate her symptoms.
      She is breastfeeding and is asking whether there are any other safe analgesics to help with her pain.
      What is the recommended medication for this patient's pain management?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Safe Pain Management Options for Breastfeeding Mothers

      Breastfeeding mothers who experience pain may require medication to manage their symptoms. However, certain drugs can be harmful to both the mother and the baby. Here are some safe pain management options for breastfeeding mothers:

      Ibuprofen: This is the drug of choice for managing pain in breastfeeding mothers. Although it is contraindicated in pregnancy, its transfer into breast milk is very low.

      Codeine: This opioid analgesic can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided as the mother approaches delivery due to the risk of respiratory depression in the infant. It should also be avoided when breastfeeding, as it can cause symptoms of overdose in the baby.

      Aspirin: While aspirin is used during pregnancy for prophylaxis, its use as an analgesic should be avoided during breastfeeding as it can cause Reye’s syndrome or impair neonatal platelet function.

      Indometacin: This NSAID can be used for analgesia in breastfeeding, as the concentration that transfers into breast milk is relatively low.

      Tramadol: Although only small amounts of this opioid analgesic are present in breast milk, the manufacturers advise avoidance due to the risk of respiratory depression in the baby.

      It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication while breastfeeding. Additionally, mothers should be aware of any contraindications and potential side effects of the medication they are taking.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is about to give birth to her first...

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    • A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is about to give birth to her first child at 9-months gestation. The obstetrician decides to perform a caesarean section.
      Which of the following abdominal surgical incisions will the obstetrician most likely use to perform the procedure?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic incision

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Incisions for Surgical Procedures

      There are various types of incisions used for different surgical procedures. Here are some common types of incisions and their uses:

      1. Suprapubic Incision: Also known as the Pfannenstiel incision, this is the most common incision used for Gynaecological and obstetric operations like Caesarean sections. It is made at the pubic hairline.

      2. Transverse Incision just below the Umbilicus: This incision is usually too superior for a Caesarean section because the scar would be visible and does not provide direct access to the uterus as the Pfannenstiel incision.

      3. Right Subcostal Incision: This incision is used to access the gallbladder and biliary tree.

      4. Median Longitudinal Incision: This incision is not commonly used because of cosmetic scarring, as well as the fact that the linea alba is relatively avascular and can undergo necrosis if the edges are not aligned and stitched properly.

      5. McBurney’s Point Incision: This incision is used to access the vermiform appendix and is made at the McBurney’s point, which is approximately one-third of the distance of a line, the spino-umbilical line, starting at the right anterior superior iliac spine and ending at the umbilicus.

      In conclusion, the type of incision used for a surgical procedure depends on the specific needs of the operation and the surgeon’s preference.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone. She is currently 20 weeks...

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    • A 28-year-old woman contacts her GP via telephone. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and has had no complications thus far. However, she is now concerned as she recently spent time with her niece who has developed a rash that her sister suspects to be chickenpox. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox as a child, but she had no symptoms until the past 24 hours when she developed a rash. She feels fine otherwise but is worried about the health of her baby. What is the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      When pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks along contract chickenpox, they are typically prescribed oral acyclovir if they seek treatment within 24 hours of the rash appearing. This is in accordance with RCOG guidelines and is an important topic for exams. If the patient is asymptomatic after being exposed to chickenpox and is unsure of their immunity, a blood test should be conducted urgently. If the test is negative, VZIG should be administered. However, if the patient is certain that they are not immune to chickenpox, VZIG should be given without the need for a blood test. It is incorrect to administer both VZIG and oral acyclovir once symptoms of chickenpox have appeared, as VZIG is no longer effective at that point. Intravenous acyclovir is only necessary in cases of severe chickenpox.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic...

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    • A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic for counselling about Down syndrome screening, as her sister has the genetic condition. After discussing the various tests with her, she decides to opt for the earliest possible diagnostic test that will tell her whether her baby has Down syndrome.
      What is the test that you are most likely to advise her to have?

      Your Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

      Expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their developing baby. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a diagnostic procedure that can be done from 11 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities. The risk of miscarriage is low, at 0.7% within 14 days and 1.3% within 30 days. Amniocentesis is another diagnostic option that can be done from 15 weeks, with a slightly lower risk of miscarriage at 0.6%.

      Anomaly scans are typically done at 18-21 weeks to check for any physical abnormalities in the baby, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. The nuchal translucency test, combined with blood tests, is a screening test that can determine the individual’s risk for certain chromosomal abnormalities. The quadruple blood test is another screening option that measures various hormones and proteins to assess the risk of certain conditions.

      Overall, expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their baby. It is important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual pregnancy.

      Understanding Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old woman is eight weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. She has...

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    • A 27-year-old woman is eight weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. She has had clinical hypothyroidism for the past four years and takes 50 micrograms of levothyroxine daily. She reports feeling well and denies any symptoms. You order thyroid function tests, which reveal the following results:
      Free thyroxine (fT4) 20 pmol/l (11–22 pmol/l)
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.1 μu/l (0.17–3.2 μu/l)
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase levothyroxine by 25 mcg and repeat thyroid function tests in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy: Importance of Levothyroxine Dosing and Thyroid Function Tests

      Hypothyroidism is a common condition in pregnancy that requires careful management to ensure optimal fetal development and maternal health. Levothyroxine is the mainstay of treatment for hypothyroidism, and its dosing needs to be adjusted during pregnancy to account for the physiological changes that occur. Here are some key recommendations for managing hypothyroidism in pregnancy:

      Increase Levothyroxine by 25 mcg and Repeat Thyroid Function Tests in Two Weeks

      As soon as pregnancy is confirmed, levothyroxine treatment should be increased by 25 mcg, even if the patient is currently euthyroid. This is because women without thyroid disease experience a physiological increase in serum fT4 until the 12th week of pregnancy, which is not observed in patients with hypothyroidism. Increasing levothyroxine dose mimics this surge and ensures adequate fetal development. Thyroid function tests should be repeated two weeks later to ensure a euthyroid state.

      Perform Thyroid Function Tests in the First and Second Trimesters

      Regular thyroid function tests should be performed in pregnancy, starting in the preconception period if possible. Tests should be done at least once per trimester and two weeks after any changes in levothyroxine dose.

      Continue on the Same Dose of Levothyroxine at Present if Euthyroid

      If the patient is currently euthyroid, continue on the same dose of levothyroxine. However, as soon as pregnancy is confirmed, increase the dose by 25 mcg as described above.

      Return to Pre-Pregnancy Dosing Immediately Post-Delivery

      After delivery, thyroid function tests should be performed 2-6 weeks postpartum, and levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to return to pre-pregnancy levels based on the test results.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism in pregnancy requires careful attention to levothyroxine dosing and regular thyroid function testing. By following these recommendations, we can ensure the best outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 9 - Which of these is a contraindication for using epidural anaesthesia during delivery? ...

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    • Which of these is a contraindication for using epidural anaesthesia during delivery?

      Your Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      Epidural anaesthesia is contraindicated in labour only if the patient has coagulopathy. Other than that, epidural anaesthesia is a highly effective method for pain management during labour. In fact, it is one of the regional anaesthetic techniques available, with non-regional techniques being more commonly used. Non-regional techniques include inhaled nitrous oxide and systemic analgesics like pethidine. However, epidural anaesthesia has been associated with longer labour and increased operative vaginal delivery. There is no evidence to suggest that epidural analgesia increases the risk of Caesarean delivery or post-partum backache. For more information, refer to the Epidural Analgesia in Labour guideline.

      Understanding Labour and its Stages

      Labour is the process of giving birth, which is characterized by the onset of regular and painful contractions that are associated with cervical dilation and descent of the presenting part. Signs of labour include regular and painful uterine contractions, a show (shedding of mucous plug), rupture of the membranes (not always), and shortening and dilation of the cervix.

      Labour can be divided into three stages. The first stage starts from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated. The second stage is from full dilation to delivery of the fetus, while the third stage is from delivery of the fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered.

      Monitoring is an essential aspect of labour. Fetal heart rate (FHR) should be monitored every 15 minutes (or continuously via CTG), contractions should be assessed every 30 minutes, maternal pulse rate should be assessed every 60 minutes, and maternal blood pressure and temperature should be checked every 4 hours. Vaginal examination (VE) should be offered every 4 hours to check the progression of labour, and maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours.

      In summary, understanding the stages of labour and the importance of monitoring can help ensure a safe and successful delivery.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A first-time mother who is currently exclusively breastfeeding her infant, now six months...

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    • A first-time mother who is currently exclusively breastfeeding her infant, now six months old, is considering introducing solid foods and she is wondering about breastfeeding recommendations.
      Which of the following best describes the World Health Organization (WHO) breastfeeding recommendations?

      Your Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding for six months, followed by a combination of foods and breastfeeding up to two years of age or beyond

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Breastfeeding and Weaning

      Breastfeeding is crucial for a child’s development and should begin within the first hour of life, according to the WHO and UNICEF. For the first six months, exclusive breastfeeding is recommended, with the baby receiving only breast milk for nutrition. Breastfeeding should occur on demand, and breast milk provides numerous benefits for the child’s cognitive, motor, and immune system development.

      After six months, weaning should begin with the introduction of solid foods, while breast milk continues to provide at least half of the child’s nutrition. The WHO recommends breastfeeding for up to two years of age or beyond, with breast milk providing at least one-third of the child’s nutrition in the second year of life.

      Overall, breastfeeding and weaning play a crucial role in a child’s growth and development, and it is important to follow the recommended guidelines for optimal health outcomes.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The pain started two days ago and is not accompanied by any other symptoms. She is struggling with breastfeeding and thinks her baby is not feeding long enough.
      On examination, you notice an erythematosus, firm and swollen area, in a wedge-shaped distribution, on the right breast. The nipple appears normal.
      Her observations are stable, and she is apyrexial.
      Given the above, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mastitis

      Explanation:

      Breast Conditions in Lactating Women

      Lactating women may experience various breast conditions, including mastitis, breast abscess, cellulitis, engorged breasts, and full breasts.

      Mastitis is typically caused by a blocked duct or ascending infection from nipple trauma during breastfeeding. Symptoms include unilateral pain, breast engorgement, and erythema. Treatment involves analgesia, reassurance, and continuing breastfeeding. Antibiotics may be necessary if symptoms persist or a milk culture is positive.

      Breast abscess presents as a painful lump in the breast tissue, often with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. Immediate treatment is necessary to prevent septicaemia.

      Cellulitis is an acute bacterial infection of the breast skin, presenting with erythema, tenderness, swelling, and blister formation. Non-specific symptoms such as rigors, fevers, and malaise may also occur.

      Engorged breasts can be primary or secondary, causing bilateral breast pain and engorgement. The skin may appear shiny, and the nipple may appear flat due to stretching.

      Full breasts are associated with lactation and cause warm, heavy, and hard breasts. This condition typically occurs between the 2nd and 6th day postpartum.

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  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain...

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    • A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly while she was shopping 3 hours ago. She reports not having her periods for 8 weeks and being sexually active. She also has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease 4 years ago. On examination, there is generalised guarding and signs of peritonism. An urgent ultrasound scan reveals free fluid in the pouch of Douglas with an empty uterine cavity, and a positive urine βhCG. Basic bloods are sent. Suddenly, her condition deteriorates, and her vital signs are BP 85/50 mmHg, HR 122/min, RR 20/min, and O2 saturation 94%.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Resuscitate and arrange for emergency laparotomy

      Explanation:

      There is a strong indication of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy based on the clinical presentation. The patient’s condition has deteriorated significantly, with symptoms of shock and a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg. Due to her unstable cardiovascular state, urgent consideration must be given to performing an emergency laparotomy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
      Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?

      Your Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk

      Explanation:

      Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants

      Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.

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  • Question 14 - A mother brings her 5-day old daughter to see you as she is...

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    • A mother brings her 5-day old daughter to see you as she is worried about her daughter's weight loss. The baby was born at term without any complications. She is exclusively breastfed and has had a normal amount of wet nappies today. The baby is not showing any signs of distress and all observations are within normal limits. However, her birth weight was 3200g and today she weighs 2900g. What would be the best course of action to manage this infant's weight loss?

      Your Answer: Referral to midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If the baby loses more than 10% of his birth weight in the first week, immediate measures must be taken to ensure proper feeding.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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  • Question 15 - A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 16 - In the Obstetric Outpatient Department, a patient with a history of hypertension and...

    Correct

    • In the Obstetric Outpatient Department, a patient with a history of hypertension and a BMI of 17 comes to you with concerns about pre-eclampsia. She is 28 years old, in her second pregnancy with the same partner, and has a four-year-old child. She has heard about pre-eclampsia from her friends and is worried about her risk. Which factor in her history is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Known hypertension

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious disorder of pregnancy that can lead to life-threatening complications if left untreated. It is important to identify risk factors for pre-eclampsia in order to provide appropriate monitoring and care for pregnant women.

      Known hypertension is a significant risk factor for pre-eclampsia. Women with hypertension should be closely monitored throughout their pregnancy.

      Age is also a factor, with women over 40 being at increased risk. However, the patient in this scenario is 28 years old and not at increased risk.

      First pregnancy or first pregnancy with a new partner is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia. However, as this is the patient’s second pregnancy with the same partner, she is not at increased risk.

      A high BMI is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia, particularly if a patient’s BMI is over 35. However, a low BMI, such as the patient’s BMI of 17, is not a risk factor.

      Finally, a period of ten years or more since the last pregnancy is a moderate risk factor for pre-eclampsia. As the patient has a child that is four years old, she is not at increased risk.

      In conclusion, identifying and monitoring risk factors for pre-eclampsia is crucial in ensuring the health and safety of pregnant women and their babies.

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  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old primiparous woman, who is a smoker and has been diagnosed with...

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    • A 29-year-old primiparous woman, who is a smoker and has been diagnosed with pre-eclampsia, presents to the Antenatal Assessment Unit at 34 weeks’ gestation with sudden-onset lower abdominal pain, associated with a small amount of dark red vaginal bleeding. The pain has gradually worsened and is constant. On examination, she looks a bit pale; her heart rate is 106 bpm, and blood pressure 104/86 mmHg. The uterus feels hard; she is tender on abdominal examination, and there is some brown discharge on the pad.
      What is the likely cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Revealed placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Antepartum Haemorrhage: Causes and Symptoms

      Antepartum haemorrhage is a condition where a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding during the second half of pregnancy. There are several causes of antepartum haemorrhage, including placental abruption, concealed placental abruption, placenta accreta, placenta praevia, and premature labour.

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine lining, leading to bleeding. It can be revealed, with vaginal bleeding, or concealed, without vaginal bleeding. Risk factors for placental abruption include maternal hypertension, smoking, cocaine use, trauma, and bleeding post-procedures.

      Concealed placental abruption is usually an incidental finding, with the mother recalling an episode of pain without vaginal bleeding. Placenta accreta occurs when part of the placenta grows into the myometrium, causing severe intrapartum and postpartum haemorrhage. Placenta praevia is a low-lying placenta that can cause painless vaginal bleeding and requires an elective Caesarean section. Premature labour is another common cause of antepartum bleeding associated with abdominal pain, with cyclical pain and variable vaginal bleeding.

      It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing antepartum haemorrhage, as it can lead to significant maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. Women with placenta praevia are advised to attend the Antenatal Unit for assessment and monitoring every time they have bleeding.

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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain during her 8th week of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain during her 8th week of pregnancy. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals the presence of a simple ovarian cyst alongside an 8-week intrauterine pregnancy. What is the best course of action for managing the cyst?

      Your Answer: Reassure patient that this is normal and leave the cyst alone

      Explanation:

      During the initial stages of pregnancy, ovarian cysts are typically physiological and referred to as corpus luteum. These cysts typically disappear during the second trimester. It is crucial to provide reassurance in such situations as expecting mothers are likely to experience high levels of anxiety. It is important to avoid anxiety during pregnancy to prevent any negative consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old primip presents at 28 weeks’ gestation, extremely worried as she attended...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old primip presents at 28 weeks’ gestation, extremely worried as she attended her 5-year old nephew’s birthday party three days ago and stayed over at her sister’s house.
      Today, her sister called to say that her nephew has developed a vesicular rash all over his body, and the general practitioner (GP) diagnosed him with chickenpox.
      The patient denies any viral symptoms at present, but is unsure whether she has had chickenpox herself.
      Which of the following should be performed?

      Your Answer: Blood test for varicella-zoster immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies

      Explanation:

      Managing Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnant Women: Blood Test for Varicella-Zoster Immunoglobulin G (IgG) Antibodies

      Chickenpox is a common childhood disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. In pregnant women, exposure to chickenpox can have detrimental effects on the fetus. Therefore, strict guidelines exist for managing exposure to affected children.

      If a pregnant woman has had significant exposure to chickenpox, a thorough history should be established. If there is uncertainty or no previous history or exposure, the first-line investigation is a blood test to test for the presence of varicella-zoster IgG antibodies. The presence of IgG antibodies in blood indicates that the person has immunity either by mounting a response to a previous infection or by vaccination.

      Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin should not be administered to all pregnant women who report significant exposure to chickenpox, as it is of no benefit to women who are seropositive and it is a waste of resources. Seronegativity should be established first.

      Admission is reserved for women who have a combination of symptoms suspicious of a primary varicella-zoster virus infection, ie chickenpox, and any of the following: immunosuppression, severe symptoms, haemorrhagic rash, and neurological or respiratory symptoms.

      Testing for varicella-zoster antigen is not of clinical value and is not routinely performed when assessing a pregnant patient with significant exposure to chickenpox.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) guidelines, a significant exposure is defined as contact within the same room for 15 minutes, face-to-face contact, or being in a large room such as a hospital ward or a kindergarten with a child or an adult with chickenpox during the infective period.

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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old primigravida presents for her 36-week gestation check-up with her midwife in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primigravida presents for her 36-week gestation check-up with her midwife in the community. She has had an uneventful pregnancy and is feeling well. Her birth plan is for a water birth at her local midwife-led birth center. During her assessment, her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 36.7ºC, heart rate of 90 beats/min, blood pressure of 161/112 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98% in room air with a respiratory rate of 21/min. Urinalysis reveals nitrites + and a pH of 6.0, but negative for leucocytes, protein, and blood. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit to local maternity unit for observation and consideration of medication

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women whose blood pressure is equal to or greater than 160/110 mmHg are likely to be admitted and monitored. In this case, the patient is hypertensive at 35 weeks of gestation. While pre-eclampsia was previously defined as hypertension and proteinuria during pregnancy, the current diagnosis includes hypertension and any end-organ damage. Although the patient feels well, she should be admitted to the local maternity unit for further investigation as her blood pressure exceeds the threshold. Urgent delivery of the infant should not be arranged unless the mother is unstable or there is fetal distress. The presence of nitrites in the urine dipstick is not a significant concern, and delaying further investigation for a week is not appropriate. Prescribing antibiotics for asymptomatic patients with positive nitrites and no leukocytes in the urine is incorrect management and does not address the hypertension. Continuing with midwife-led care without further investigation for two weeks could lead to the development of pre-eclampsia or eclamptic seizure, which is dangerous for both mother and fetus.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for Down's syndrome screening. She undergoes a screening test and the results show an increased b-hCG, decreased PAPP-A, and thickened nuchal translucency on ultrasound. The chance of Down's syndrome is calculated to be 1/80. The patient expresses her concern about the safety of the testing options for her and her baby. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT)

      Explanation:

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

    On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

      On examination, her abdomen is non-tender with the uterus an appropriate size for her gestation. There is no visible rash, although she is mildly jaundiced. Her heart rate is 76/min, blood pressure 130/64 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturations are 99% in air, temperature 36.9°C.

      A set of blood results reveal:
      Hb 112g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 56 µmol/l Platelets 240 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 360 u/l WBC 8.5 109/l Urea 4.8 mmol/l ALT 86 u/l Neuts 5.9 109/l Creatinine 76 µmol/l γGT 210 u/l Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l Albumin 35 g/l

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which commonly causes itching in the third trimester. This condition is characterized by elevated liver function tests (LFTs), particularly alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), with a lesser increase in alanine transaminase (ALT). Patients may also experience jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, and steatorrhea. Treatment often involves ursodeoxycholic acid. Biliary colic is unlikely due to the absence of abdominal pain. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare and presents with a hepatic picture on LFTs, along with nausea, vomiting, jaundice, and potential encephalopathy. HELLP syndrome is characterized by haemolytic anaemia and low platelets, which are not present in this case. Pre-eclampsia is also unlikely as the patient does not have hypertension or other related symptoms, although late pre-eclampsia may cause hepatic derangement on LFTs.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 23 - Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

    Rewritten: Which ONE of the...

    Correct

    • Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

      Rewritten: Which ONE of the following women, who are all 35 years old, has gestational hypertension?

      Your Answer: 22 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and no proteinuria

      Explanation:

      If high blood pressure occurs after 20 weeks gestation and there is no proteinuria, it is considered gestational hypertension. However, if high blood pressure is present before 20 weeks, it is likely pre-existing hypertension.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old lady who is 30 weeks pregnant with her second child presents...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old lady who is 30 weeks pregnant with her second child presents in a very anxious state. She has just been at a friend’s party and has discovered that one of the children there had just developed a rash suggesting chickenpox. She is terrified the disease is going to harm her unborn child. She cannot recall if she had chickenpox as a child. Her medical record does not shed any light on the situation, and it is unclear if she has had vaccination against varicella. She does not have a rash herself and feels well. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date.
      What is the most appropriate next course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgently test for varicella antibodies (varicella-zoster IgG)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s immunity to varicella-zoster needs to be determined urgently by testing for varicella-zoster IgG antibodies in the blood, as she has had some exposure to chickenpox and is unsure of her immunity status. If antibodies are detected, she is considered immune and no further action is required, but she should seek medical care immediately if she develops a rash. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin should only be administered to non-immune patients within 10 days of exposure. It is important to note that if the patient contracts chickenpox during pregnancy, there is a risk of fetal varicella syndrome if infected before 28 weeks’ gestation. Immunisation during pregnancy is not recommended, but the patient can receive the vaccine postpartum if found to be non-immune. It is safe to receive the vaccine while breastfeeding.

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  • Question 25 - A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She gave birth 3 weeks ago and is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports a 4 day history of increasing pain in her left breast, which has not improved with continued feeding and expressing. During examination, she appears healthy, but her temperature is 38.5ºC. There is a small area of redness above the left nipple, which is sensitive to touch. She has no known allergies.
      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin & encourage to continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Lactation mastitis is a prevalent inflammatory condition of the breast that can have infectious or non-infectious origins. The primary cause is milk stasis, which can occur due to either overproduction or insufficient removal.

      In cases of non-infectious mastitis, the accumulation of milk leads to an inflammatory response. Occasionally, an infection may develop through retrograde spread via a lactiferous duct or a traumatised nipple, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common organism.

      Symptoms of lactation mastitis include breast pain (usually unilateral) accompanied by an erythematosus, warm, and tender area. Patients may also experience fever and flu-like symptoms.

      The first-line approach to managing lactation mastitis is conservative, involving analgesia and encouraging effective milk removal (either through continued breastfeeding or expressing from the affected side) to prevent further milk stasis. It is also crucial to ensure proper positioning and attachment during feeding.

      If symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of conservative management, antibiotics should be prescribed. The first-line choice is oral flucloxacillin (500 mg four times a day for 14 days), or erythromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav is the second-line choice.

      In cases where conservative and antibiotic management do not improve symptoms, other more serious causes, such as inflammatory breast cancer, should be considered. (Source – CKS mastitis)

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency and mild lower abdominal pain. A urine dipstick was performed, showing 2+ blood, and is positive for nitrites. There is no glycosuria or proteinuria. The patient has previously had an allergic reaction to trimethoprim.
      What is the most appropriate antibiotic for treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Urinary Tract Infections in Pregnancy: A Guide

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in pregnancy and require prompt treatment to prevent complications. When choosing an antibiotic, it is important to consider its safety for both the mother and the developing fetus. Here is a guide to some commonly used antibiotics for UTIs in pregnancy.

      Nitrofurantoin: This is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE guidelines for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use, but should be avoided near term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. It should also not be used during breastfeeding. Side-effects may include agranulocytosis, arthralgia, anaemia, chest pain and diarrhoea.

      Erythromycin: This antibiotic is not routinely used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is considered safe for both mother and fetus.

      cephalexin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is licensed as second-line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use and has no documented fetal complications.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic is not used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is safe for both mother and fetus.

      Trimethoprim: This antibiotic is no longer recommended for UTIs in pregnancy due to its interference with folate metabolism. If no other options are available, it can be given with increased folate intake.

      Remember to always consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication during pregnancy.

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  • Question 27 - A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives...

    Correct

    • A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives birth to a healthy baby girl. What treatment should be provided to the newborn?

      Your Answer: Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and a further vaccine at 6 months

      Explanation:

      When babies are born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive or are at high risk of developing hepatitis B, they should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth. Additionally, babies born to surface antigen positive mothers should receive 0.5 millilitres of hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. The second and third doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should be given at 1-2 months and 6 months, respectively.

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a mother is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, it is important that her baby receives a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Currently, studies are being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the risk of vertical transmission of hepatitis B. However, it is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. It is crucial for pregnant women to undergo screening for hepatitis B to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. With proper prevention and treatment, the risk of transmission can be greatly reduced.

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  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old woman presents to the labour suite after being admitted 45 minutes...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman presents to the labour suite after being admitted 45 minutes ago. She is unsure of her gestational age but believes she is around 8 months pregnant based on her positive pregnancy test. She has not received any antenatal care and is currently homeless due to a violent relationship. The patient has been experiencing contractions for the past 3 hours and her waters broke 5 hours ago. Upon examination, her cervix is soft, anterior, 90% effaced, and dilated to 7 cm. The foetus is in a breech position with the presenting part at station 0 and engaged. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange caesarean section within 75 minutes

      Explanation:

      A category 2 caesarean section is the best management for a woman with an undiagnosed breech birth in labour who is not fully dilated. The decision to perform the caesarean section should be made within 75 minutes and the procedure should be arranged accordingly. Adopting an all-fours position or attempting external cephalic version with enhanced monitoring are not appropriate in this case. McRoberts manoeuvre is also not the correct management for breech birth.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman has undergone an artificial rupture of membranes to speed up...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has undergone an artificial rupture of membranes to speed up a labor that is progressing slowly. While her partner is assisting her in changing positions for comfort, she suddenly becomes breathless and collapses from the bed. She is now unresponsive and unconscious, with a blood pressure of 82/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 134 beats per minute. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The sudden collapse that occurred shortly after the rupture of membranes suggests the possibility of amniotic fluid embolism. The patient’s condition is too severe to be attributed to a simple vasovagal event. While amniotic fluid emboli can indirectly cause myocardial infarctions, it is difficult to diagnose a primary myocardial infarction without any mention of preceding chest pain. Typically, occult bleeding and hypovolemic shock would develop gradually. Although postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome is more prevalent in women of reproductive age, it would not cause the significant hypotension observed in this case.

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy that can result in a high mortality rate. It occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a reaction that leads to various signs and symptoms. While several risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unclear. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases of amniotic fluid embolism occur during labor, but they can also occur during a cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of this condition include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs may include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. Diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on exclusion, as there are no definitive diagnostic tests available.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires a multidisciplinary team and critical care unit. Treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on addressing the patient’s symptoms and stabilizing their condition. Given the high mortality rate associated with this condition, prompt recognition and management are crucial for improving outcomes.

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  • Question 30 - Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Cooked crabmeat

      Correct Answer: Cooked liver

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is recommended to avoid consuming liver due to its high levels of vitamin A, which is a teratogen.

      Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women

      During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.

      Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended for pregnant women. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided as it may be teratogenic. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and women who have stopped smoking may use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) after discussing the risks and benefits with their healthcare provider.

      Pregnant women should also be cautious of food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella. They should avoid certain foods such as unpasteurized milk, ripened soft cheeses, pate, undercooked meat, raw or partially cooked eggs, and meat, especially poultry. Women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits at work, and the Health and Safety Executive should be consulted if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy.

      Air travel during pregnancy should also be approached with caution. Women who are over 37 weeks pregnant with a singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel. Women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid air travel once they are over 32 weeks pregnant. Pregnant women should also avoid certain activities such as high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving. However, sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes during pregnancy.

      Overall, pregnant women should be informed of these lifestyle recommendations to ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of harm to the baby.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (28/30) 93%
Passmed