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  • Question 1 - A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He reports that she has had a fever and a sore throat for the past 3 days and now has a rash all over her trunk and legs. During the examination, the child appears lethargic, flushed, and has a rough-textured erythematosus rash on her trunk and legs. The doctor observes a swollen red tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy during throat examination. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus

      Correct Answer: Scarlet Fever

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms are consistent with scarlet fever, which is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash, swollen tongue, and lymphadenopathy. Treatment with a 10-day course of penicillin V is recommended, and the child should stay home from school for 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Public health should also be notified. Kawasaki disease, rubella, and parvovirus are unlikely diagnoses based on the child’s presentation.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      80.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle...

    Correct

    • A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity

      Explanation:

      Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients

      This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      109711.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 35-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe, sharp pain on her left side that radiates to her lower abdomen and groin. The pain comes and goes in waves and has been ongoing for 10 hours. She also reports an increased frequency of urination and a burning sensation while urinating. A urine dip reveals haematuria but no signs of infection. You request the following blood tests:
      Calcium 3.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Corrected Calcium 3.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.9 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      Parathyroid hormone 85 pg/mL (10-65 )
      Which medication's long-term use is responsible for Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hyperparathyroidism and subsequent hypercalcaemia can occur with prolonged use of lithium. This can lead to the formation of kidney stones due to excessive calcium concentration. Amitriptyline, a sedative tricyclic antidepressant, is not likely to cause nephrolithiasis or explain the patient’s elevated calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. Similarly, clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, is not known to cause hypercalcaemia or hyperparathyroidism. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, typically causes side effects during initiation or discontinuation, such as sexual dysfunction and gastrointestinal issues. Checking thyroid function tests may also be helpful as lithium use can lead to hypothyroidism.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      119.5
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Clinic with progressive bilateral upper leg...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Clinic with progressive bilateral upper leg weakness. He experiences difficulty climbing stairs and is unable to participate in school sports due to severe muscle cramps during exertion. There is a family history of muscle problems on his mother's side of the family, and the paediatrician suspects a genetic muscular dystrophy. What is the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Muscular Dystrophy

      Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting. The most likely diagnosis for a patient with suspected muscular dystrophy is Becker muscular dystrophy, which typically presents with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness between the ages of 7 and 11. Here are some investigations that can be done to confirm the diagnosis:

      Creatine kinase: Patients with muscular dystrophy will have elevated creatine kinase, making this an appropriate initial investigation in its workup.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG would be an important investigation to perform in patients with muscular dystrophy, as both Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophies are complicated by cardiomyopathy. However, it would be done once the diagnosis is confirmed.

      Genetic testing: Genetic testing is conducted in patients with suspected muscular dystrophy to confirm the diagnosis and determine the chromosomal abnormality. It would not, however, be the initial investigation and is time-consuming and costly. Before genetic testing, patients and their family should receive genetic counselling so that they are aware of the potential ramifications of abnormal results.

      Muscle biopsy: A muscle biopsy is an important investigation in the workup of suspected muscular dystrophy, to confirm the diagnosis. It would not be an initial investigation, however, and would be considered after bloods, including creatine kinase.

      Serum magnesium: Low magnesium levels can result in muscle twitching and weakness but would not be the most appropriate initial investigation in the workup of suspected muscular dystrophy. Patients with low magnesium often have a history of malabsorptive conditions or chronic diarrhoea and it would be unlikely for there to be a family history.

      Investigations for Suspected Muscular Dystrophy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      873.3
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chalazion

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.

      Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.

      Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.

      Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.

      Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      216.3
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  • Question 6 - You are the F2 in general practice. You see a 75-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are the F2 in general practice. You see a 75-year-old man who is complaining of changes in the appearance of his legs. On examination, you can see areas of brown on the legs, dry skin, and the calves appear significantly wider at the knee than the ankle.
      What is the man most at risk of?

      Your Answer: Arterial ulcers

      Correct Answer: Venous ulcers

      Explanation:

      Chronic venous insufficiency is indicated by brown pigmentation (haemosiderin), lipodermatosclerosis (resembling champagne bottle legs), and eczema. These symptoms increase the likelihood of developing venous ulcers, which typically appear above the medial malleolus. Arterial ulcers are more commonly associated with peripheral arterial disease, while neuropathic ulcers are prevalent in individuals with diabetes.

      Venous leg ulcers are the most common and are caused by venous hypertension. Arterial ulcers occur on the toes and heel and are painful without palpable pulses. Neuropathic ulcers commonly occur over the plantar surface and can lead to amputation in diabetic patients. Marjolin’s ulcers are squamous cell carcinomas that occur at sites of chronic inflammation. Pyoderma gangrenosum is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and presents as erythematosus nodules or pustules that ulcerate. Management varies depending on the type of ulcer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      99.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A multiparous woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the labour ward...

    Incorrect

    • A multiparous woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the labour ward after an artificial rupture of membranes. During four-hourly vaginal examinations, the midwife suddenly palpates the umbilical cord vaginally. The woman is placed on cardiotocography, which reveals late decelerations. What should be the midwife's next immediate step in managing the situation?

      Your Answer: Administer tocolytics to stop uterine contractions

      Correct Answer: Push presenting part of the foetus back in

      Explanation:

      In the case of an umbilical cord prolapse, it is important to push the presenting part of the fetus back into the uterus to prevent compression of the cord and subsequent fetal distress. This can be aided by retro-filling the bladder with saline and positioning the mother on all fours. Administering oxytocin infusion or tocolytics to stop uterine contractions is not recommended as they can worsen the situation. The McRoberts manoeuvre is also not applicable in this scenario. It is crucial to manage the situation promptly to prevent further harm to the fetus.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      185.9
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  • Question 8 - What is a characteristic of a trident hand? ...

    Correct

    • What is a characteristic of a trident hand?

      Your Answer: Achondroplasia

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia: A Genetic Disorder

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, in about 90% of cases, it occurs as a result of a new spontaneous mutation in the genetic material. This disorder is characterized by several physical features, including an unusually large head with a prominent forehead and a flat nasal bridge. Additionally, individuals with achondroplasia have short upper arms and legs, which is known as rhizomelic dwarfism. They also have an unusually prominent abdomen and buttocks, as well as short hands with fingers that assume a trident or three-pronged position during extension.

      To summarize, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects physical development. It is caused by a spontaneous mutation in the genetic material and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The physical features of this disorder include a large head, short limbs, and a unique hand position. this disorder is important for individuals and families affected by it, as well as for healthcare professionals who may provide care for those with achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      419.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine cervical smear. After the test,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine cervical smear. After the test, the practice contacts her to let her know that the laboratory has reported the sample as 'inadequate'. She is asked to come back for a repeat smear. However, the second sample is also reported as 'inadequate' by the laboratory.

      What is the recommended course of action now?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If two consecutive samples are deemed inadequate during cervical cancer screening, the correct course of action is to refer the patient for colposcopy. Repeating the smear in 1 or 3 months is not appropriate as two inadequate samples have already been taken. Requesting hrHPV testing from the laboratory is also not useful if the sample is inadequate. Referring the patient to gynaecology is not necessary, and instead, a referral for colposcopy should be made.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      369.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after finding a lump on her right breast one week earlier. She has well-controlled hypertension, but no other medical history of note. The patient does not smoke and is a keen runner.
      The patient is especially concerned that she may have breast cancer, as her grandmother and maternal aunt both died from the condition. She is very upset that she did not find the lump sooner, as she thinks that it is at least 1 cm in size.
      With regard to tumour kinetics, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The clinical phase of tumour growth is long compared with the pre-clinical phase

      Correct Answer: Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Tumour Growth

      Tumour growth is a complex process that is often misunderstood. Here are some common misconceptions about tumour growth:

      Common Misconceptions about Tumour Growth

      1. Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics
      While the rate of tumour growth does slow down from the initial exponential pattern, the assumption that it follows a sigmoidal shape is not always accurate.

      2. The clinical phase of tumour growth is long compared with the pre-clinical phase
      In reality, the clinical phase of a tumour is short in comparison to the pre-clinical phase. By the time a tumour is detected, it has already completed a significant portion of its life cycle.

      3. The smallest clinically detectable tumour is 1000 cells
      This is far too few cells to be clinically detectable. The usual number required to be clinically detectable would be 109 cells.

      4. In most tumours, the growth fraction is >90%
      The growth fraction is usually 4–80%, with an average of <20%. Even in some rapidly growing tumours, the growth fraction is only about 20%. 5. Tumour growth is characterised by contact inhibition
      Contact inhibition is a mechanism that is lost in cancer cells. Tumour growth is actually characterised by uncontrolled cell growth and division.

      It is important to have a clear understanding of tumour growth in order to develop effective treatments and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder after presenting with haematuria. Are there any recognised occupational exposures that increase the risk of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Correct Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the lower abdomen that stores urine. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing bladder cancer. One of the most significant risk factors is smoking, which can cause harmful chemicals to accumulate in the bladder and increase the risk of cancer. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry, as well as rubber manufacture, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Additionally, the use of cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug, can increase the risk of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis, a parasitic infection that is common in certain parts of the world, is also a risk factor for bladder cancer, particularly for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      67.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old woman without significant medical history presents to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman without significant medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of right-sided hip pain that has been bothering her for the past 2 weeks. Despite the pain, she is still able to walk, although with a slight limp. The pain is particularly worse at night when she rolls onto her right side, causing her to have difficulty sleeping.
      Upon examination, there is tenderness over the lateral aspect of the right hip, and she experiences pain on internal and external rotation of the hip. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 142 g/L (Female: 115-160), WBC 9.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and CRP 23 mg/L (< 5).
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochanteric bursitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
      To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics

      Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.

      Direct Inguinal Hernia

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.

      Aponeurosis of External Oblique

      In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.

      Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique

      A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.

      Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis

      Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.

      Superficial Inguinal Ring

      An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.

      Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 14 - What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus...

    Incorrect

    • What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      During active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), complement levels are typically reduced and can be utilized to track disease flares. Studies have demonstrated that decreased levels of C4a and C4b are linked to a higher likelihood of developing SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 47-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with weakness in her arms...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with weakness in her arms and legs. She had recently attended a BBQ where she consumed canned food. During the examination, you observe weakness in all four limbs, bilateral ptosis, and slurred speech. Her husband reports that she experienced diarrhea the day before and has been constipated today. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Botulism

      Explanation:

      Botulism: Causes, Types, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Botulism is a severe illness caused by the botulinum toxin, which is produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum. There are three main types of botulism: food-borne, wound, and infant botulism. Food-borne botulism occurs when food is not properly canned, preserved, or cooked, and becomes contaminated with infected soil. Wound botulism occurs when a wound becomes infected with the bacteria, usually in intravenous drug abusers. Infant botulism occurs when a baby ingests spores of the C. botulinum bacteria.

      Symptoms of botulism can occur between two hours and eight days after exposure to the toxin. These symptoms include blurred vision, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking (dysphonia), diarrhea and vomiting, and descending weakness/paralysis that may progress to flaccid paralysis. In certain serotypes, patients may rapidly progress to respiratory failure. It is important to note that patients remain alert throughout the illness.

      Botulism is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The antitoxin is effective, but recovery may take several months. Guillain-Barré syndrome, which is an ascending paralysis that often occurs after a viral infection, would not fit the case vignette described. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune chronic condition that typically worsens with exercise and improves with rest. A cerebrovascular accident usually causes weakness in muscles supplied by one specific brain area, whereas the weakness in botulism is generalized. Viral gastroenteritis is not usually associated with weakness, unless it is Guillain-Barré syndrome a few weeks after the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for 3 days. She has been eating and drinking normally, has no urinary symptoms, and her bowel habits have not changed. She had a mild cold last week, but it has since resolved. Other than this, she is a healthy and happy child. On examination, her abdomen is soft but tender to the touch throughout. Her temperature is 37.5 degrees Celsius. Her chest is clear, and her heart sounds are normal. What is the most probable cause of this girl's abdominal pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      The child is experiencing abdominal pain after a recent viral illness, which is a common precursor to mesenteric adenitis. However, the child is still able to eat and drink normally, indicating that it is unlikely to be appendicitis. Additionally, the child is passing normal stools, making constipation an unlikely cause. The absence of vomiting also makes gastroenteritis an unlikely diagnosis. While abdominal migraine is a possibility, it is less likely than mesenteric adenitis in this particular case.

      Mesenteric adenitis refers to the inflammation of lymph nodes located in the mesentery. This condition can cause symptoms that are similar to those of appendicitis, making it challenging to differentiate between the two. Mesenteric adenitis is commonly observed after a recent viral infection and typically does not require any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding accident. X-rays revealed a closed right tibial shaft fracture with minimal displacement. Over the past 4 hours, he has been experiencing severe pain in the leg, despite receiving hourly oral morphine in addition to regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. His urine has turned dark and a dipstick test shows the presence of blood.

      On admission, his electrolyte and renal function tests were as follows:
      Na+ 138 mmol/L
      K+ 4.1 mmol/L
      Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L
      Urea 3.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine 72 µmol/L

      However, on day 3 of admission, his results have changed significantly:
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 18 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 11.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 189 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the primary factor contributing to the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accumulation of myoglobin in the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is commonly linked to fractures of the tibial shaft and supracondylar region. The presence of rapidly-progressing pain that is unresponsive to high doses of pain medication is indicative of compartment syndrome. This condition can cause an increase in pressure within the fascial compartment, leading to muscle breakdown and the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, resulting in rhabdomyolysis. This can cause acute kidney injury, with myoglobinuria causing urine to appear dark brown and test positive for blood. Dehydration and pre-renal AKI may also occur, but urinalysis would not show blood in this case. Goodpasture’s syndrome, which involves the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies, typically presents with AKI, proteinuria, and pulmonary symptoms such as haemoptysis and shortness of breath. Obstructive stones usually cause right loin pain, and a single ureter obstruction is unlikely to cause significant renal impairment. While NSAIDs can worsen renal function by inhibiting prostaglandins and causing vasoconstriction of the glomerular afferent arteriole, compartment syndrome and rhabdomyolysis are likely the primary causes of AKI in this case.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old man has been experiencing gradual enlargement of his hands and feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been experiencing gradual enlargement of his hands and feet for the past 4 years, resulting in the need for larger gloves and shoes. Recently, he has also noticed his voice becoming deeper. His family has observed that he snores frequently and he has been experiencing daytime sleepiness. Over the past 6 months, he has been experiencing progressive blurring of vision accompanied by headaches and dizziness. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/20-2 and visual field testing reveals bitemporal hemianopias. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm a diagnosis in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) measurement

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acromegaly: IGF-1 Measurement vs. OGTT and Other Tests

      Acromegaly, a condition caused by a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma, can be diagnosed through various tests. Previously, the OGTT with growth hormone assay was used for screening and monitoring, but it has now been replaced by the IGF-1 measurement as the first-line investigation to confirm the diagnosis.

      The insulin tolerance test, which induces hypoglycaemia and increases GH release, is not useful in confirming the presence of a GH-secreting adenoma. Random GH assay is also not helpful as normal subjects have undetectable GH levels throughout the day, making it difficult to differentiate from levels seen in acromegaly.

      While up to 20% of GH-secreting pituitary adenomas co-secrete prolactin, the prolactin level alone is not diagnostic. Therefore, the IGF-1 measurement is the preferred test for diagnosing acromegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 2-day-old baby girl is presented to the emergency department by her parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old baby girl is presented to the emergency department by her parents with complaints of decreased oral intake and fussiness. The parents also report that the baby has been vomiting green liquid and has not had a bowel movement since passing meconium, although she has had wet diapers. The baby was born vaginally at 39 weeks without any complications during pregnancy or delivery. An upper gastrointestinal contrast study revealed intestinal malrotation. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ladd’s procedure

      Explanation:

      A newborn with symptoms of bowel obstruction and bilious vomiting is suspected to have paediatric intestinal malrotation with volvulus. An upper gastrointestinal contrast study confirms the diagnosis. The most appropriate management option is a Ladd’s procedure, which involves division of Ladd bands and widening of the base of the mesentery. If vascular compromise is present, an urgent laparotomy is required. IV antibiotics are not indicated as there are no signs of infection. NEC may require antibiotics, but it presents differently with feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools, and is more common in premature infants.

      Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.

      Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.

      Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.

      Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.

      Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.

      Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - You are assessing an 85-year-old woman with advanced dementia who is bed-bound and...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing an 85-year-old woman with advanced dementia who is bed-bound and has a grade two pressure ulcer. Her carer thinks she feels pain when being moved in bed. The patient takes no pain medication at present. The patient is having severe nausea, vomiting and has severely impaired mental status.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate prescription?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g per rectum

      Explanation:

      Choosing Appropriate Pain Management for a Patient with Advanced Dementia

      When managing pain in a patient with advanced dementia, it is important to consider their impaired mental status and potential swallowing difficulties. In this case, per rectum delivery of paracetamol 1 g would be appropriate to avoid the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Intravenous delivery of medication would be more invasive and potentially distressing for the patient.

      While a lidocaine patch may be useful for localized pain management in the elderly, it would not be the first choice for this patient. Morphine sulfate and fentanyl patch transdermal are strong opioid medications and should only be considered if milder analgesia fails to achieve pain control, in line with the World Health Organisation pain ladder. Overall, the choice of pain management should prioritize the patient’s comfort and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
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  • Question 21 - You are requested to assess a newborn on the post-natal ward 12 hours...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a newborn on the post-natal ward 12 hours after a vaginal delivery. The midwife reports that the mother tested positive for group B streptococcus. During your examination, you observe a yellowish tint to the skin. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure serum bilirubin within 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Due to the baby’s age of less than 24 hours, there is a high risk of severe hyperbilirubinaemia. It is crucial to urgently measure their serum bilirubin levels within 2 hours, as using a transcutaneous bilirubinometer is not suitable at this stage. While phototherapy can be used to treat jaundice, it is important to first measure the serum bilirubin levels to determine if exchange transfusion is necessary. This information is based on the NICE Guideline CG98 for Jaundice in newborn babies under 28 days.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically occur one week before her period and subside a few days after. She visited her GP, who prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after reviewing her symptom diary. However, after three months of treatment, she returns to her GP and reports that her symptoms have not improved during her menstrual cycle. She is feeling like a bad mother as she is losing her patience with her children easily when symptomatic and is seeking further treatment options. What is the most appropriate treatment for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) can be helped by SSRIs, either continuously or during the luteal phase. If a patient’s symptoms are significantly impacting their day-to-day life and have not improved with first-line treatment using a combined oral contraceptive pill, antidepressant treatment with SSRIs is recommended. Co-cyprindiol, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine systems, mirtazapine, and the copper coil are not indicated for the management of PMS.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A young medical student is investigating the involvement of oncogenes in the formation...

    Incorrect

    • A young medical student is investigating the involvement of oncogenes in the formation of different types of cancers following an interview with a patient who has breast cancer linked to an oncogene. Which oncogene promotes the growth of breast cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human epidermal growth receptor 2 (HER2)

      Explanation:

      Genes and Proteins Associated with Cancer: HER2, p53, BRCA1, IgE, and CEA

      Cancer is a complex disease that can be caused by various genetic mutations and alterations. Some genes and proteins are associated with an increased risk of developing cancer, while others are used as markers to detect the presence of cancer. Here are some examples:

      HER2: A mutated HER2 gene is an oncogene that promotes the growth of breast cancer cells. HER2-positive breast cancers tend to be more aggressive and require targeted treatments such as trastuzumab.

      p53: The p53 gene produces a tumor suppressor protein that helps prevent the development of cancer. Loss of function or abnormal p53 is associated with an increased susceptibility to various malignancies.

      BRCA1: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene that produces proteins that help repair damaged DNA. Mutations in BRCA1 increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer in women.

      IgE: Immunoglobulin E is an antibody produced by plasma cells and is not associated with cancer development.

      CEA: Carcinoembryonic antigen is a tumor marker that may be elevated in various malignancies, including colorectal, lung, and breast cancer.

      Understanding the role of genes and proteins in cancer development and detection can help with early diagnosis and targeted treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old woman is being consented for a diagnostic laparoscopy for endometriosis. Apart...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is being consented for a diagnostic laparoscopy for endometriosis. Apart from dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia and difficulty conceiving, she has no past medical history. She takes ibuprofen during menses, but does not take any other medication. She has never had surgery before, and appears nervous.
      What common side-effect of laparoscopy should she be cautioned about prior to the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shoulder pain

      Explanation:

      During laparoscopy, carbon dioxide gas is used to inflate the abdomen for better visibility and access to abdominal organs. However, after surgery, the remaining gas can cause referred pain in the C3-5 nerve distribution by pressing on the diaphragm. While pulmonary embolus is a potential side effect of any surgery, it is unlikely in a young patient who is not immobilized for long periods. Incontinence is also unlikely in a young, nulliparous woman, even with the risk of urinary tract infection from the catheter used during surgery. Flatulence is not a common side effect as the gas is not passed into the colon. Finally, sciatic nerve damage is not a concern during abdominal surgery as it is a common side effect of hip arthroplasty, which involves a posterior approach to the hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 21-year-old woman comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by her father, who is worried about her lack of sleep. During the consultation, the patient reveals that she no longer feels the need to sleep for more than 2-3 hours. She appears talkative and mentions that she has been working on an online business that will bring her a lot of money. She is annoyed that people are questioning her, especially since she usually feels down, but now feels much better. There are no reports of delusions or hallucinations. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a significant decrease in sleep, but does not feel tired. This, along with other symptoms such as being excessively talkative and irritable, having an overconfident attitude towards their business, and a history of depression, suggests that they may be in a hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder. Insomnia, which typically results in feelings of tiredness and a desire to sleep, is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The absence of delusions or hallucinations rules out psychosis as a possible explanation. A manic phase of bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as the patient does not exhibit any delusions or hallucinations. The combination of symptoms suggests that there is more to the patient’s condition than just a resolution of depression.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise, loss of appetite, and jaundice. He has no significant medical history and denies excessive alcohol consumption. Upon investigation, his serum total bilirubin is 71 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 195 U/L (5-35), and serum alkaline phosphatase is 100 U/L (45-105). His serum IgM antihepatitis A is negative, but serum IgG antihepatitis A is positive. Additionally, his serum hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is positive, but serum antibody to hepatitis C is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hepatitis and Leptospirosis

      Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease that can be diagnosed by the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc antibodies. On the other hand, acute hepatitis A can be diagnosed by positive IgM anti-HAV antibodies, while the presence of IgG anti-HAV antibodies indicates that the illness is not caused by HAV. Acute hepatitis C is usually asymptomatic, but can be diagnosed through the demonstration of anti-HCV antibodies or HCV RNA. Meanwhile, acute hepatitis E is characterized by a more pronounced elevation of alkaline phosphatase and can be diagnosed through the presence of serum IgM anti-HEV antibodies.

      Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is caused by the spirochaete Leptospira and can cause acute hepatitis. It is transmitted through direct contact with infected soil, water, or urine, and can enter the body through skin abrasions or cuts. Diagnosis of leptospirosis is done through an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Leptospira IgM antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old hypertensive man presented with the following blood results:
    Investigation Result Normal value
    Sodium...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old hypertensive man presented with the following blood results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 147 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 50 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Glucose 4.0 mmol/l
      Random: 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Fasting: <7 mmol/l
      Hba1c: <53 mmol/l (<7.0%)
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypertension with electrolyte abnormalities

      When a young patient presents with hypertension and hypokalaemia, it is important to consider secondary causes of hypertension, such as Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism), which can explain both findings. Coarctation of the aorta is another secondary cause of hypertension, but it does not account for the electrolyte abnormalities. Cushing’s disease/syndrome may also present with hypertension and electrolyte abnormalities, but typically with additional symptoms and higher fasting glucose levels. Polycystic kidney disease can cause hypertension, but not the electrolyte abnormalities. Primary (essential) hypertension is the most common form of hypertension, but secondary causes should be ruled out, especially in younger patients with atypical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with painless vaginal bleeding. She had her second baby three years ago, which was delivered via a c-section, but otherwise was a normal pregnancy. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus was non-tender, however, her baby was in breech presentation. The foetal heart rate was also normal, and she denied experiencing any contractions during the bleeding episode. What is the recommended next investigation for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old man has been experiencing left shoulder pain for the last five...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has been experiencing left shoulder pain for the last five years. Recently, this pain has become more severe, and he has been advised to undergo a left shoulder replacement surgery. The patient has a history of diabetes and high blood pressure, but no other medical conditions. During his preoperative evaluation, the patient inquires about eating and drinking before the surgery, as he will not be staying overnight and will be arriving at the hospital on the day of the procedure.
      What is the appropriate information to provide to this patient regarding fasting times for elective surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You can eat solids up to six hours before, clear fluids two hours before and carbohydrate-rich drinks two hours before

      Explanation:

      Pre-Operative Fasting Guidelines: What You Need to Know

      When it comes to preparing for surgery, there are certain guidelines that patients must follow regarding their food and drink intake. Contrary to popular belief, patients do not always need to fast for extended periods of time before their procedure.

      According to recent studies, prolonged fasting may not be necessary to prepare for the stress of surgery. However, there are still some important guidelines to follow. Patients should stop eating solid foods six hours before their operation, and most patients having morning surgery are made nil by mouth from midnight. Clear fluids can be consumed up to two hours before the procedure, but carbohydrate-rich drinks should be stopped two hours before surgery.

      Carbohydrate-rich drinks are often used in enhanced recovery programs to increase energy stores postoperatively and aid in recovery and mobilization. It is important to note that eating solids two hours before the procedure can increase the risk of residual solids in the stomach at induction of anesthesia.

      In summary, patients should follow these guidelines: stop eating solids six hours before surgery, stop consuming carbohydrate-rich drinks two hours before surgery, and continue clear fluids up until two hours before the procedure. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure a safe and successful surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old patient presents after trauma and exhibits a lack of sensation in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents after trauma and exhibits a lack of sensation in the anatomical snuff box. Which nerve is likely responsible for this sensory loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Radial nerve injury causes a condition known as wrist drop, which is characterized by the inability to extend the wrist and fingers. This injury also results in varying degrees of sensory loss, with the anatomical snuffbox being a common area affected.

      On the other hand, median nerve injury leads to the loss of sensation in the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the ring finger. This condition can also cause weakness in the muscles that control the thumb, leading to difficulty in grasping objects.

      Lastly, ulnar nerve injury results in a claw hand deformity, where the fingers are flexed and cannot be straightened. This injury also causes a loss of sensation over the medial half of the ring finger and little finger.

      In summary, nerve injuries can have significant effects on the function and sensation of the hand. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are experienced to prevent further damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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