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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents for follow-up of her depression. Despite taking citalopram 20 mg once daily for 4 months, she has not experienced any significant improvement in her symptoms. The decision is made to switch her medication to imipramine. What is the recommended approach for transitioning to imipramine?
Your Answer: Wait 4 weeks after withdrawing citalopram before commencing imipramine
Correct Answer: Period of cross-tapering of the two drugs
Explanation:Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act due to a decline in his mental health. During his inpatient stay, it was decided that Clozapine would be the most appropriate Antipsychotic for him and he was started on this medication. After his mental state stabilized, he was transferred to a rehabilitation unit. However, it was discovered that he had missed his Clozapine doses for two consecutive days. What is the recommended course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?
Your Answer: To take the missed doses of Clozapine now & request a Clozapine plasma level assay
Correct Answer: Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly
Explanation:If a patient misses their clozapine doses for more than 48 hours, they will need to slowly restart their dose as if they were starting the medication for the first time. This process should be supervised by a Psychiatrist. Restarting clozapine after a break of more than 48 hours can exacerbate side effects such as changes in blood pressure, drowsiness, and dizziness. If the treatment gap exceeds 72 hours, the patient may require more frequent blood tests for a brief period.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted multiple times in the past 2 years with similar symptoms, but no organic cause has been identified. What type of disorder is likely to be the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.
Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry
In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with dry, eczematous hands. She reports being a very hygienic person, but since the onset of the covid-19 pandemic, she has been washing her hands excessively - up to 50 times a day. She is aware that this is causing her skin to become dry and irritated, but her attempts to reduce her hand washing have led to increased anxiety and a return to her previous routine. She works in a hospital and is worried about her colleagues noticing her frequent hand washing. Given her symptoms, what treatment options are available for her?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that affects 1 to 3% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of obsessions, which are unwanted intrusive thoughts, images, or urges, and compulsions, which are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform. These symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and distress.
Risk factors for OCD include a family history of the condition, age (with peak onset between 10-20 years), pregnancy/postnatal period, and a history of abuse, bullying, or neglect.
The management of OCD involves classifying the level of impairment as mild, moderate, or severe using the Y-BOCS scale. For mild impairment, low-intensity psychological treatments such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) including exposure and response prevention (ERP) are recommended. If this is insufficient, a course of an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) can be offered. For moderate impairment, a choice of either an SSRI or more intensive CBT (including ERP) is recommended, with clomipramine as an alternative first-line drug treatment to an SSRI if necessary. For severe impairment, referral to the secondary care mental health team for assessment is necessary, with combined treatment of an SSRI and CBT (including ERP) or clomipramine as an alternative while awaiting assessment.
ERP is a psychological method that involves exposing a patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. This helps them confront their anxiety, leading to the eventual extinction of the response. Treatment with an SSRI should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement. Compared to depression, the SSRI usually requires a higher dose and a longer duration of treatment (at least 12 weeks) for an initial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing medication. They have been to the psychiatrist who wants to change them from their monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
The patient cannot remember how long they were told to wait between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI.
What is the recommended time interval between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI?Your Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Recommended Interval Before Starting Antidepressants After Stopping MAOI
After stopping a MAOI, it is recommended to wait before starting most other antidepressants. The interval should be two weeks, except for imipramine or clomipramine, where the interval should be three weeks. This is important to avoid potential adverse reactions and interactions between the medications. It is crucial to follow the recommended interval to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the antidepressant treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An anxious mother brings her 15-year-old daughter to see you as she is worried that she may be depressed or using drugs, although she has no evidence of the latter. She had previously been happy and healthy and performing well at school, but recently has become withdrawn, has started failing at school and is often heard shouting in her bedroom, which she locks herself into most of the day. She has accused her parents of trying to harm her when they have encouraged her to come out.
Select from the list the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Drug-induced psychosis
Correct Answer: Acute schizophrenia
Explanation:Early Intervention for Acute Schizophrenia and Substance Use
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute schizophrenia, including social withdrawal, declining academic performance, delusions of persecution, and hallucinations. Substance use is a common factor in the development of psychosis, with cocaine, amphetamines, cannabis, and alcohol use linked to a higher risk of developing schizophrenia. Research suggests that cannabis use, in particular, may contribute to the development of schizophrenia. However, signs of drug use typically precede the onset of thought disorders. To ensure the best possible outcome, this patient should be referred to an early intervention team for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Early intervention is crucial for managing acute schizophrenia and substance use disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her son for a review. She has a history of Parkinson disease, which was first diagnosed eight years ago.
Which of the following mental health problems the is most frequently associated with this patient's established diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psychosis
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Mental Health Abnormalities in Parkinson’s Disease: Understanding Depression and Other Disorders
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is not just a motor disorder, as more than 60% of patients experience one or more psychiatric symptoms. Depression is the most common, affecting approximately 45% of all patients with PD. Interestingly, depression doesn’t correlate with the stage of motor deficits and can reduce the quality of life independently of motor symptoms. Anxiety and depression may even be present many years before the appearance of motor symptoms.
Other mental health disorders associated with PD include psychosis, impulse-control disorders, mania, and sleep disturbances. Impulse control disorders are not associated with the frequency of depression, while mania is less frequently associated with PD than depression. Psychosis and mania are not as well associated with PD as depression. Sleep disturbances are also associated with PD, but depression is the most frequently associated condition.
The origins of these mental health disorders have been attributed to both the underlying pathophysiology of PD and the adverse effects of antiparkinsonian drugs. Additionally, dementia is common in PD, affecting 20-40% of patients with a 2-fold to 6-fold increased risk compared to control populations.
Overall, understanding the various mental health abnormalities associated with PD is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman develops rapid, pressured speech and insomnia for five consecutive nights. She says her energy levels are normal. She has had systemic lupus erythematosus for five years. For two weeks, she has been taking a large daily dose of prednisolone because of a flare-up of this condition. She has no previous personal or family history of psychiatric illness or cardiovascular disease, and she denies using illicit drugs or alcohol.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Drug reaction
Explanation:Possible Causes of Psychosis in a Patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Psychosis is a rare but possible complication in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. However, in the case of a patient presenting with symptoms of psychosis, the time frame of symptoms in relation to starting corticosteroids, the patient’s age, and the lack of previous history suggest corticosteroid-induced psychosis. Corticosteroids have been associated with various psychiatric reactions, ranging from psychotic reactions and behavioral disturbances to sleep disturbances and cognitive dysfunction. Symptoms usually appear within days to weeks of starting treatment, and most patients recover after a dose reduction or withdrawal of the medication, with some requiring antipsychotic medication. In adults, severe psychiatric reactions may occur in up to 5-6% of cases.
Other possible causes of psychosis, such as uraemia in end-stage renal failure or acute psychosis, are unlikely in this patient, as there is no history or other symptoms of renal failure, and the symptoms do not match those of acute psychosis. While systemic lupus erythematosus increases the risk of stroke, hypomania/mania after a stroke is rare, occurring in only about 1% of patients. Psychosis is also uncommon in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, occurring in only 5% of cases at some point during the course of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman returns home from the hospital after the birth of her first child. Over the next week she becomes increasingly irritable, feels low in mood and is very anxious that she is not taking good care of her baby.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Postpartum blues
Explanation:Postpartum Mental Health Conditions: Understanding the Differences
Postpartum mental health conditions can affect women after giving birth. It is important to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate care and support.
Postpartum blues is a common and short-lived condition that occurs in the first week after delivery. Symptoms include irritability, crying, depression, and emotional lability. Reassurance and explanation are usually enough to resolve this condition.
Major depression is not suggested in the vignette and there is no indication of an ongoing depressive illness.
Generalised anxiety disorder requires symptoms to be present for at least six months, which is not the case in this scenario.
Postpartum depression is more persistent and debilitating than postpartum blues. It can interfere with the mother’s ability to care for herself or her child and typically develops over the first three months after delivery.
Postpartum psychosis has a dramatic onset within the first two weeks after delivery. Symptoms include restlessness, insomnia, irritability, rapidly shifting mood, and disorganized behavior. Delusional beliefs or auditory hallucinations may instruct the mother to harm herself or her infant.
Understanding the differences between these conditions can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for women experiencing postpartum mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary artery disease and hypertension and has, over the past week, become suspicious of her neighbours and daughter. She has accused her daughter of trying to steal her fiancé (who doesn't exist) and accused her neighbours of entering her house at night and stealing her belongings, although she is unable to state what is missing. The daughter reports that, over the previous year, the patient has become increasingly forgetful and functioned less well, to the point that she is now no longer able to cook or manage her own finances.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Delirium
Correct Answer: Dementia
Explanation:Understanding Different Diagnoses in Older Adults
Dementia is a condition that affects memory, thinking, and social abilities, leading to a decline in daily functioning. Symptoms worsen gradually over time, unlike delirium, which has a sudden onset and can coexist with dementia. Late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis may also occur in older adults, often due to underlying medical conditions. Depression is common but not present in this case. Drug-induced psychosis is a possibility with polypharmacy, but not in this patient’s case, where dementia is the likely diagnosis. Understanding these different diagnoses is crucial in providing appropriate care for older adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes to your clinic with his sister. She is worried about him as he has been acting differently lately. Until about a year ago, he was doing well in his job and spent a lot of time with his friends. However, over the past 6 months, he has become increasingly withdrawn and appears to be depressed. He rarely leaves his apartment, preferring to stay inside all day. His sister has noticed that he has been smoking marijuana and has become increasingly suspicious of her. He has lost interest in his hobbies and his work performance has suffered. Their father is no longer in the picture, but she remembers him as being a very suspicious man who had difficulty trusting others.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: Prodromal schizophrenia
Explanation:Recognizing the Schizophrenia Prodrome and Differentiating it from Normal Teenage Behaviour
The early signs of schizophrenia, known as the prodrome, are often overlooked and misdiagnosed as typical teenage behaviour or depression. These symptoms include a loss of motivation and performance, increased withdrawal and preference for solitary activities, personality changes with heightened suspicion, poor sleep, and irritability. While not all individuals with these symptoms will develop schizophrenia, there is a higher risk. It is crucial to be vigilant in recognizing and managing the first episode of psychosis to ensure proper treatment and a better prognosis. On the other hand, normal teenage behaviour may involve aloofness, a desire for more independence, feeling misunderstood, rejecting parental affection, or appearing moody. Conduct disorder, characterized by oppositional and defiant behaviour and antisocial activities, and paranoid personality disorder, marked by pervasive distrust and suspicion, are distinct from the schizophrenia prodrome and require different approaches to treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone. He has a history of chronic back pain. He has been fully investigated and he has lumbar spondylosis. He becomes very emotional during a medication review consultation. The General Practitioner wants to screen for depression.
According to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, what would be most appropriate to ask about as an initial part of this screening process?Your Answer: Having little interest or pleasure in doing things
Explanation:Identifying and Assessing Depression in Patients with Chronic Diseases
Depression is more common in patients with chronic diseases than in those with good health. To identify depression in patients, doctors should be alert to possible symptoms and consider asking two screening questions recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE): During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless? and During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? If a patient answers ‘yes’ to either question, further questions should be asked to improve the accuracy of the assessment of depression. These questions should include exploring thoughts of death, feelings of worthlessness, inability to sleep, and poor concentration. By identifying and assessing depression in patients with chronic diseases, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and support to improve their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his dosage of lithium and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (two hours ago).
When should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?Your Answer: 4 hours
Correct Answer: 8 hours
Explanation:Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Among the given options, what is considered as the primary risk factor for the onset of depression? Please choose only one.
Your Answer: High self-esteem
Correct Answer: Chronic physical illness
Explanation:Factors that Influence the Risk of Depression
Depression is a complex illness with various factors that can influence its development. These factors include genetic, biochemical, endocrine, neurophysiological, psychological, and social processes. Physical illnesses, especially chronic ones, can increase the risk of depression, which has led to the emphasis on physical and endocrine theories of causation. Neuroimaging has also reinforced the idea of depression as a disorder of brain structure and function, while psychological findings highlight the importance of cognitive and emotional processes. Intrauterine infections, particularly viral infections, have been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia. On the other hand, high self-esteem is likely to be protective against depression. Women are more likely to experience depressive disorders than men, and not having a confiding relationship with another person is a risk factor. Therefore, marriage is often considered protective against depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Correct
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An 82-year-old patient is presented to you by his spouse due to concerns about his hallucinations. The wife reports that he frequently sees cats wandering around the house despite never having a pet cat. Apart from this, he is in good health with no other complaints and doesn't appear to be bothered by the visions. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and cataracts and consumes around 20 units of alcohol per week.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Charles-Bonnet syndrome typically have full awareness of their condition despite experiencing ongoing and intricate visual or auditory hallucinations.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. Can you prescribe something to help her sleep?
Is this response appropriate for a patient who has experienced a traumatic event?Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after four weeks have passed.
Although this scenario has the potential to develop into post-traumatic stress disorder, it is currently classified as acute stress disorder as it has only been two weeks since the event. It is important to monitor the patient’s progress and reassess in two weeks.
Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month.
Depression is characterized by persistent low mood and/or loss of pleasure in most activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive, pervasive, and uncontrollable worry, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms that occur on a continuum of severity. To be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the symptoms must be pervasive and persistent for longer than two weeks.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The risk of developing bipolar disorder if one monozygotic twin is affected is approximately:
Your Answer: 75%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact cause of schizophrenia is still unknown, research has identified several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing the condition. The most significant risk factor is having a family history of schizophrenia, which increases the relative risk by 7.5. For example, if a parent has schizophrenia, the risk of developing the condition is between 10-15%, while having a sibling with schizophrenia increases the risk to 10%. In contrast, individuals with no relatives with schizophrenia have a 1% risk of developing the condition.
Aside from family history, other risk factors for developing psychotic disorders include Black Caribbean ethnicity, migration, urban environment, and cannabis use. Black Caribbean ethnicity increases the relative risk by 5.4, while migration and urban environment increase the risk by 2.9 and 2.4, respectively. Cannabis use, which is a common recreational drug, increases the relative risk by 1.4.
Understanding the epidemiology of schizophrenia is crucial in identifying individuals who are at high risk of developing the condition. By identifying these individuals, healthcare professionals can provide early interventions and treatments that can help manage the symptoms of schizophrenia and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical symptoms. You suspect she may be suffering from a generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
Select from the list the problem that is least likely to be due to GAD.Your Answer: Difficulty breathing
Correct Answer: Eczematous rash
Explanation:The Relationship Between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Eczematous Rash
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is not typically the direct cause of an eczematous rash, but it can exacerbate itching and scratching. Patients with GAD may experience a range of physical symptoms, including autonomic arousal symptoms like palpitations, sweating, shaking, and dry mouth. Chest and abdominal symptoms, such as choking, dyspnea, chest pain, nausea, and discomfort, are also common. Other symptoms may include dizziness, hot flashes, tingling, aches and pains, or a lump in the throat with difficulty swallowing (not true dysphagia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher complains of low mood and poor sleep for ten days. She has been working very hard in preparation for a school inspection due next week. She got married eight months ago and denies any problems at home. She is looking forward to a planned trip to Italy in two months time.
She has been fit and well up to this point with no personal or family history of mental health problems. Her only medication is Microgynon 30. She has several good friends who have noticed that she is not herself and who wonder if she is depressed. She has taken to drinking half a bottle of wine every night while working late.
After fully assessing her, what is likely to be the best way to approach her management?Your Answer: Start an SSRI
Correct Answer: General advice and active monitoring
Explanation:Management of Subthreshold Depressive Symptoms
This patient is currently experiencing subthreshold depressive symptoms that have lasted for less than two weeks. The cause of her symptoms is likely due to a stressful period at work, which is expected to end soon. Fortunately, she has a strong support network. According to NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), medication is not recommended at this stage. Instead, CBT should be considered for persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms. St John’s wort is not recommended due to its interaction with the oral contraceptive pill and lack of evidence of effective dose and variation between preparations. NICE has suggested that short term dynamic psychotherapy be evaluated in a formal research setting. After a thorough assessment, the patient should be advised on sleep hygiene and reducing alcohol intake. She should also receive written information about depression and be scheduled for a follow-up appointment within two weeks at most.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman is concerned that she may not be able to take her final university examinations in three months' time because she experiences flustered, faint and dizzy spells during written examinations. She reports no symptoms at any other time, including when engaging in physical activity. Her resting ECG is normal and clinical examination doesn't reveal any abnormalities. What would be the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Prescribe diazepam
Correct Answer: Arrange counselling, with relaxation training
Explanation:Understanding a Student’s Symptoms of Stress and Anxiety
The symptoms described by the student are typical of stress and anxiety, which are common experiences among students. It is important to reassure the student that these symptoms are not indicative of any organic disease. However, if the student is still concerned, a 24-hour ECG monitoring can be done to provide further reassurance.
It is not recommended to prescribe diazepam as it can impair the student’s exam performance. Fluoxetine may also not be the best option as it can increase feelings of anxiety. Instead, the student can be advised to practice relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing exercises or meditation, to help manage their stress and anxiety. It is also important to encourage the student to seek support from friends, family, or a mental health professional if needed. By understanding and addressing the student’s symptoms, they can better manage their stress and anxiety and perform well in their exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with a long history of depression is brought to see you by his neighbour. He is distressed and tells you that he feels he has nothing to live for. He is single and is recently unemployed. His neighbour happened to call to his house earlier and found him in a 'terrible state' and persuaded him to come to the clinic. He shows you a suicide note he wrote earlier today and says that he feels his life is hopeless and that he has no reason to live. He tells you that he has been feeling increasingly low over the last few months and today has been at home all day drinking whiskey alone. He also tells you that last week he went to see his solicitor and made a will leaving his possessions to his niece. Which of the following factors suggests the greatest risk of suicidal intent?
Your Answer: He has thought about suicide
Correct Answer: He visited his solicitor last week and made a will
Explanation:Assessing Suicide Risk in Patients:
Assessing the risk of suicide in a patient can be a challenging task. However, a sensitive and thorough enquiry into the details can help in identifying and managing the risk. It is crucial to ask all patients who present with low mood or anxiety about suicidal thoughts.
In this case, the patient has consumed large quantities of alcohol, which may affect his impulsivity but is not a reliable indicator of current or future intent. The patient’s unemployment, unmarried status, and living alone are important considerations as they indicate a lack of social support and potential financial difficulties.
The presence of a suicide note would show a certain amount of forethought and is a marker of serious intent and ongoing risk. It is important to determine whether the note was written under the influence of alcohol or not. Either way, it demonstrates significant persistent consideration of suicide.
However, the most critical sign of suicidal intent is that the patient visited his solicitor last week to put his affairs in order. This act shows considerable planning far in advance and demonstrates the highest risk of suicide. It is not impulsive or acutely reactive but measured and requires arrangement and planning.
Sources such as the Oxford Centre for Suicide Research and the Royal College of Psychiatrists provide guidance on assessing suicide risk using structured professional judgement. By conducting a sensitive and thorough enquiry, healthcare professionals can identify and manage the risk of suicide in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old male comes to your clinic expressing feelings of depression due to his belief that his wife is being unfaithful. They recently celebrated their 27th wedding anniversary and have always been devoted to each other. He is also the sole caregiver for his bedridden wife. Given this background, you question the likelihood of his accusations being accurate.
What is the medical term for delusional jealousy?Your Answer: Erotomania
Correct Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where the individual believes that their partner is being unfaithful. This can be a standalone delusion or a symptom of an underlying mental health condition such as schizophrenia or a personality disorder.
Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, but even when no evidence is found, they remain convinced of their partner’s unfaithfulness. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You see a 40-year-old woman for a third episode of moderately severe depression in the last 18 months.
She has been stopping and starting her antidepressant medication according to how she is feeling. You advise her that she should take the medication regularly.
What length of time is recommended for continuation of antidepressants for recurrent depression?Your Answer: Five years
Correct Answer: Six months
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antidepressant Use for Recurrent Depression
According to NICE guidance, patients who have experienced two or more depressive episodes in the recent past and have suffered significant functional impairment during these episodes should be advised to continue taking antidepressants for a period of two years. This recommendation is based on evidence that suggests that longer-term use of antidepressants can reduce the risk of relapse and recurrence of depression. It is important to note that this guidance applies specifically to patients with recurrent depression and should be considered on a case-by-case basis in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?Your Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman with mild depression presents for a follow-up appointment. She seeks guidance on whether taking an antidepressant would be helpful. According to the latest NICE recommendations, which of the following factors would support the use of an antidepressant?
Your Answer: If patient has previously had benefit from St John's Wort
Correct Answer: If her depression complicates a chronic health problem e.g. Compliance with COPD medication
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression. He mentions that he recently applied for Universal Credit due to financial struggles after being made redundant. He requests a copy of his medical record to support his claim.
The patient is currently single and resides alone in the UK. He was last employed six months ago with a private car detailing company, where he worked for over five years before leaving due to mental health issues. He has savings of approximately £20,000. He has no siblings or children, and his parents passed away in a car accident seven years ago.
What is the probable outcome of his Universal Credit application?Your Answer: He is not eligible as he doesn't have any dependants
Correct Answer: He is not eligible as he has more than £16,000 in savings
Explanation:If you have savings exceeding £16,000, you are not eligible to receive Universal Credit. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 or over (with some exceptions for 16 to 17-year-olds), have a low income or be unemployed, be under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and live in the UK. While medical conditions or dependents do not impact your eligibility, they may affect the amount of payment you receive.
Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies
Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.
The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.
Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.
Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.
He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.
He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with complaints of difficulty sleeping. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that she refrains from going out as she is afraid of being stared at. Additionally, she experienced a sudden episode of rapid heartbeat, shortness of breath, and intense fear while dining at a restaurant two weeks ago.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Panic disorder
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Social phobia is a condition where a person experiences anxiety in public, especially when they feel like they are being judged or criticized. It is a common psychological condition, ranking third after depression and alcoholism. While everyone experiences some level of social anxiety, it becomes a disease when it starts to interfere with daily life. This condition is characterized by an exaggerated fear of social situations, which can become pathological. Agoraphobia, on the other hand, is a fear of situations where escape is not possible. In this case, the patient’s anxiety seems to stem from feeling scrutinized in a restaurant setting. To diagnose panic disorder, the panic attack must occur unexpectedly, and the patient must experience fear of recurrence or behavioral changes for at least a month after the attack. While anxiety is often associated with depression, there are no specific features of depression in this scenario. Sleep disturbance can occur in both anxiety and depression, but the nature of the disturbance differs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman was admitted to hospital after she took a paracetamol overdose. She was given a treatment dose of N-acetylcysteine and her baseline and repeat biochemical and haematological indices were normal. She doesn't enjoy her work as a secretary, and she has a regular partner but they have been arguing recently. She didn't intend to kill herself. She denies regularly using alcohol and illicit drugs. She has a past history of an aspirin ‘overdose’, but you note that at the time the blood level was very low and she was not admitted. There is no other significant past medical history. Her parents are divorced and she lives with her mother.
Select from the list the SINGLE FACTOR in the history that suggests she is likely to repeat this behaviour.Your Answer: Parental divorce
Correct Answer: Aspirin 'overdose'
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Self-Harm and Suicide
Self-harm is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on an individual’s mental and physical health. Previous episodes of self-harm are a strong predictor of future ones, regardless of the severity of the harm done. Other factors that increase the risk of self-harm include a history of psychiatric treatment, substance abuse, negative attitudes towards survival, relationship issues, and unemployment.
When it comes to completed suicide, organic illness, male gender, and middle-age are all risk factors. It’s important to note that around 15% of people who engage in deliberate self-harm will do so again within a year, and 1% will ultimately succeed in committing suicide. Identifying these risk factors is crucial in determining which patients should be referred to psychiatric services for further evaluation and treatment. By understanding these risk factors, we can work towards preventing self-harm and suicide and providing support to those who need it most.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lady who you have looked after during her recent breast cancer diagnosis and treatment comes to see you one year after undergoing a total mastectomy followed by chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
Her disease is now in remission and she is taking tamoxifen. She has a history of a perforated duodenal ulcer and has had bouts of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She complains of feeling very tearful and low in mood, and feels traumatised by her experiences. She is also having some chest wall neuropathic type pain, probably due to the radiotherapy. A PHQ9 depression questionnaire confirms that she is suffering from moderately severe depression.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat her?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Amitriptylline
Explanation:Treatment for Depression in a Patient with Previous Medical History
When treating a patient with depression who has a previous medical history, it is important to consider potential drug interactions and contraindications. In the case of a patient with a history of gastric bleeding and atrial fibrillation, SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided due to their associated risks. Fluoxetine should also not be prescribed as it reduces the efficacy of tamoxifen.
Instead, the best course of action would be to offer an antidepressant and a high-intensity psychological intervention. This approach addresses the patient’s mood problems stemming from her experiences during diagnosis and treatment, while also avoiding potential harm from medication. It is important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain in this case would be off license and carries a higher risk of arrhythmias.
In summary, when treating depression in a patient with a previous medical history, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of medication options and to include psychological intervention as part of the treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about changes in his behaviour.
Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia?Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations, First person with clouding of consciousness
Correct Answer: Feelings of panic in buses and shops
Explanation:Symptoms of Schizophrenia, Anxiety Disorder, and Mania
Incongruity of affect is a symptom of schizophrenia where the emotion expressed is inappropriate to the circumstances. Although it is not considered a primary symptom, it is consistent with the diagnosis. Auditory hallucinations, particularly third person, are typical of schizophrenia, but clouding of consciousness is not. On the other hand, panic in crowds is indicative of an anxiety disorder, while grandiose ideations suggest mania. It is important to note that these symptoms may overlap and coexist in some cases, making it crucial to seek professional help for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 32
Correct
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A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for advice. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not clinically depressed, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He sometimes feels indifferent and down, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has been hearing his late wife's voice on several occasions for the past 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he knows this is impossible.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or even smelling their deceased loved one. These occurrences are often associated with acute grief but can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would be inappropriate to arrange blood tests and urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, they are unlikely to provide significant benefits for a patient who is not clinically depressed. Additionally, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent involvement from a psychiatrist or for the patient to be sectioned under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 33
Correct
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A 65-year-old lady comes to see you about her husband. He suffers with Alzheimer's dementia and she is finding it difficult to cope. She says that she doesn't drive and has had to resort to employing private carers to allow her time to do the shopping. She says that they are both in receipt of generous pensions but her sister has suggested that she applies for any benefits that are applicable.
What can you tell her about the Attendance Allowance (AA)?Your Answer: To qualify for Attendance Allowance patients must be State Pension age or over
Explanation:Attendance Allowance – A Guide for GPs
Attendance Allowance is a tax-free benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals who are State Pension age or older and have a disability that requires additional help with personal care. This benefit is not affected by income or employment status. To qualify, the individual must have required assistance for at least six months, unless they are terminally ill. There are two levels of Attendance Allowance – lower and higher.
As a GP, you may be asked to complete a statement at the end of the Attendance Allowance claim form by your patient. If the decision maker cannot determine benefit entitlement without further evidence, they may request that you complete a medical report based on your medical records and knowledge of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and confusion that have been present for one day. Upon further examination, she is found to have an elevated heart rate and body temperature.
The patient has a history of depression and has been taking sertraline for several years without any changes in dosage or indications of overdose. However, her partner reports that she recently began taking a new medication prescribed by her general practitioner. It is suspected that this medication may have interacted with her regular medication.
Which medication is the most likely culprit for this interaction?Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Zolmitriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.
What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?Your Answer: Tangentiality
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania.
It is important to note that the patient has not derailed from the topic at hand, indicating that this is not an example of derailment. Incoherence would involve the patient providing nonsensical responses, which is not the case here.
While it is difficult to determine from a text-based question, pressured speech would involve the patient speaking rapidly and producing an excessive amount of spontaneous speech. Therefore, it may not be the most appropriate answer in this scenario.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).
What is the most appropriate way to make this change?Your Answer: Complete a gradual withdrawal of sertraline then start imipramine
Correct Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine
Explanation:Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease comes in for a check-up. He is currently taking a combination of a dopamine agonist, levodopa and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Although his motor symptoms are well managed, his wife is worried as he is experiencing mild confusion, staying awake for extended periods during the night, and having visual hallucinations accompanied by delusions that she is attempting to poison him. During the clinic visit, he appears quiet and withdrawn. His mini-mental state score is 23, and he is able to walk across the examination room and perform some fine motor tasks, but he is unable to provide a handwriting sample. What is the most effective approach to managing his hallucinations?
Your Answer: Lorazepam
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Appropriate Medications for Managing Hallucinations and Agitation in Parkinson’s Disease
Managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease can be challenging. The lack of dopamine, which is the cause of motor symptoms in Parkinson’s, makes it difficult to use medications that reduce dopamine levels or effects as they can worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, low-dose atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine are the most appropriate intervention for this condition.
However, medications such as lorazepam and benzhexol are not suitable for long-term use in managing Parkinson’s disease. Lorazepam is heavily sedating and has an intermediate duration of action, while benzhexol can cause disturbed sleep and agitation at higher doses. Entacapone, on the other hand, is a COMT inhibitor that prolongs the effects of levodopa in the brain and doesn’t have any role in preventing hallucinations or treating agitation.
Haloperidol, although effective in treating hallucinations and agitation, is contraindicated for patients with Parkinson’s disease as it is a D2-receptor antagonist that reduces the effect of dopamine in the brain, which can dramatically worsen motor symptoms. Therefore, it is essential to choose appropriate medications that do not worsen motor symptoms while managing hallucinations and agitation in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man was robbed two weeks ago while walking home alone. He frequently experiences flashbacks of the incident. His companions have observed that he is more cautious of his environment when they accompany him. He is having difficulty sleeping and refrains from going out by himself.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Social anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 39
Correct
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A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of discontinuation syndrome associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome may manifest with gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 40
Correct
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A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during a tour of duty in Afghanistan when he was shelled by opposing forces and witnessed the death of two of his colleagues.
In recent months, he has been experiencing flashbacks, and his wife has noticed that he has become emotionally distant and insensitive towards her. He has also been struggling with sleep and concentration, and has been prone to sudden outbursts of anger.
You suspect that he may be suffering from PTSD and have recommended that he seek psychiatric help. Although he has declined counseling, he is interested in learning more about medication options, having seen the positive effects of sertraline on his wife's depression a few years ago.
According to NICE guidelines, which antidepressant is recommended as a second-line treatment for PTSD after psychological therapy has been refused or proven ineffective?Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
According to the latest guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated in 2018, drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, should not be offered to prevent PTSD in adults. However, for those with a diagnosis of PTSD who prefer drug treatment, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, may be considered and should be reviewed regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD who have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important to note that antipsychotic treatment should be started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for adults with PTSD, taking into account their preferences and response to previous treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You suspect a 45-year-old man is abusing alcohol. You wish to use the CAGE questionnaire.
Select from the list below the single item that is NOT part of the CAGE questionnaire.Your Answer: Feeling uncomfortable about his drinking
Correct Answer: Amount of alcohol consumed per week in units
Explanation:The CAGE: A Brief Tool for Screening Alcohol Misuse/Dependence
The CAGE is a concise screening tool used to identify individuals who may be misusing or dependent on alcohol. It consists of four questions, and a positive response to two or more questions indicates probable alcohol misuse/dependence. However, a definitive diagnosis can only be made through a diagnostic evaluation to determine the individual’s actual treatment needs. The four questions ask if the individual has ever considered cutting down on their drinking, if they get annoyed by others commenting on their drinking, if they feel guilty about their drinking, and if they have an eye-opener. The CAGE is a quick and effective way to identify potential alcohol-related issues and guide individuals towards appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 42
Correct
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A 28-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with suicidal thoughts following the end of his relationship two weeks ago. He expresses fear of being alone as his partner had always made important decisions for him, as he feels incapable of making the right choices. He has attempted to find a new partner through online dating but has been unsuccessful despite going on several dates. He discloses that he has previously been diagnosed with a personality disorder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dependent personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient in the question is dependent personality disorder. This personality disorder is characterized by a need for excessive reassurance from others, a tendency to seek out relationships, and a reliance on others to make major life decisions. Patients with this disorder often struggle to take care of themselves and become anxious when left to do so. They cope best when in a relationship and will urgently seek out new relationships if one fails. They tend to passively comply with the wishes of others.
Borderline personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and intense but unstable relationships with others. While patients with borderline personality disorder may fear abandonment, they do not typically seek out excessive reassurance and are able to make life decisions.
Paranoid personality disorder is another incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder are often suspicious of others, reluctant to confide in friends and family, and may be unforgiving.
Finally, narcissistic personality disorder is also an incorrect answer. Patients with this disorder have an inflated sense of self-importance, lack empathy, and often feel entitled.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for a routine mental health review and ECG review. He reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. He is on regular oral haloperidol. He has had no changes to medications other than recently being treated for tonsillitis with clarithromycin.
Rate 66
Rhythm Sinus
PR interval 180 ms
QTc 505 ms
RR interval 1 s
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Repeat ECG
Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call medical team for advice
Explanation:Risk of QT Prolongation with Clarithromycin and Haloperidol
Both clarithromycin and haloperidol have been associated with an increased risk of QT prolongation, which can lead to potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. If a patient’s QTc interval exceeds 500 ms, it is crucial to discuss the case with the on-call team immediately. The patient may require inpatient cardiac monitoring and consultation with psychiatry regarding their current antipsychotic medication. It is essential to monitor patients closely for signs of QT prolongation when prescribing these medications and to take appropriate measures to prevent adverse outcomes. Proper management of QT prolongation can help prevent serious cardiac events and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 44
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.
During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.
All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present
Explanation:Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.
Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.
While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.
Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.
In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old cleaner is brought in to see you by her mother and husband because they are worried that she may commit suicide.
In recent months, the couple have lost their home due to debt and are living back home with her parents and her two young sons (aged 4 and 2). She has never attempted suicide before but has expressed fleeting suicidal thoughts, having been depressed for weeks about their current circumstances.
Which one of the following features from this history is a risk factor for suicide?Your Answer: Age <30
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients
When managing depressed patients, clinicians should always ask about suicidal intent. It is important to have knowledge of risk factors for suicide during the assessment process. Protective factors include good family support and responsibility for children. However, there are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. These include being male, under 30 years old or advancing in age, single, living alone, having a history of substance abuse, and experiencing feelings of hopelessness. By understanding these risk factors, clinicians can better assess and manage the care of depressed patients who may be at risk for suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 46
Correct
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You are the on-call doctor for the afternoon clinic and have received an email from a consultant psychiatrist regarding a patient with bipolar disorder who is registered at your practice. The psychiatrist has just reviewed the patient and increased their lithium dose from 200 mg to 400 mg daily. The patient has already started taking the new dose. As the duty doctor, when should you schedule the next lithium level check for this patient?
Your Answer: 1 week after change
Explanation:Following a change in dosage, it is recommended to monitor lithium levels one week later and continue to do so on a weekly basis until the levels stabilize. Checking lithium levels three days after a dosage change may not provide accurate results as the medication may not have reached a steady state. However, it is crucial to not delay monitoring for more than a week as an increase in lithium dosage can increase the risk of toxicity. Neglecting to monitor lithium levels can be unsafe.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?
Your Answer: If there is a suspicion of adverse effects
Correct Answer: Annually
Explanation:Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following options indicates more severe depression compared to mild depression, according to the DSM-IV criteria recommended by NICE for diagnosis and management?
Your Answer: Lack of suicidal thoughts
Correct Answer: Personal or family history of depression
Explanation:Identifying Symptoms that Require Active Intervention in Primary Care
It is crucial to differentiate symptoms that require active intervention from those that favor general advice and monitoring in primary care. If there are five or more diagnostic symptoms, occasional suicidal thoughts, no apparent stress trigger, and symptoms present for more than two weeks, this indicates more severe disease. In such cases, active intervention is more likely to be necessary. On the other hand, the four incorrect options favor general advice and monitoring. Therefore, it is essential to identify the symptoms that require active intervention to provide appropriate care to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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You receive notification from your local hospital that a 23-year-old patient registered at your practice has passed away after jumping from the top floor of his apartment block. This patient was known to be suffering from depression and had spent some time at an inpatient mental health unit last year.
At what point in his history would it be necessary to refer this patient to the coroner?Your Answer: Death in a public place
Correct Answer: Death by suicide
Explanation:If a person is suspected to have died by suicide, it is mandatory to report the death to the coroner. However, the death of a patient under 25 years of age doesn’t require referral to the coroner, while the death of a patient under 18 years of age must be reported to the coroner for safeguarding purposes. Similarly, death in a public place doesn’t necessitate referral to the coroner, and neither does death in a patient with a history of mental illness or previous treatment in an inpatient mental health unit. Nonetheless, deaths of individuals detained under the mental health act must be reported to the coroner.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.
Before the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event that left her struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also been dealing with chronic pain and had to quit her job as a result.
During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to try to incorporate more physical activity into her routine.
However, her mental health had been worsening and she was now experiencing insomnia, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to pursue one-to-one therapy, as she found it difficult to engage with.
The GP and patient discussed the next steps in managing her depression.
What treatment options should be considered?Your Answer: Commence citalopram
Explanation:For patients with moderate depression and worsening mental health despite low-level therapy, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. In this case, the patient has already received CBT and declined psychological treatments, making an antidepressant necessary. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not typically used as first-line treatments due to the likelihood of side effects and higher cost compared to SSRIs. These medications are usually reserved as second-line options if the patient doesn’t respond well to an SSRI. NICE guidelines suggest offering an SSRI first-line due to their effectiveness and lower incidence of side effects. As the patient has not expressed suicidal plans or intent, referral to a crisis team is not necessary at this time.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old who undergoes regular blood tests for a health assessment. Her blood results reveal the following:
Na+ 125 mmol/l
K+ 4.3 mmol/l
Urea 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 60 µmol/l
She is currently taking the following medications: sertraline, carbimazole, amlodipine, metformin, aspirin. Which of her prescribed drugs is likely responsible for her low sodium levels?Your Answer: Carbimazole
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, with sertraline being the specific medication associated with this condition. Other drugs that can cause low sodium levels include chlorpropramide, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, lithium, MDMA/ecstasy, tramadol, haloperidol, vincristine, desmopressin, and fluphenazine.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 52
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman from Sierra Leone comes to your clinic and reveals that she underwent female genital mutilation (FGM) at the age of 16 and is still struggling with the trauma. She mentions that her three sisters also went through the same procedure but don't appear to be affected mentally. She feels embarrassed that she is the only one struggling while her sisters seem to be doing fine.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Refer to local safeguarding procedures and refer to mental health services
Explanation:If a female under 18 discloses that she has undergone genital mutilation, the mandatory reporting duty applies. However, in this case, the individual is over 18, so the duty doesn’t apply, and there is no need to involve the police.
Instead, it is important to follow local safeguarding procedures and refer the individual to mental health services. It is recommended to refer her to mental health services rather than suggesting she self-refer or seek private counseling, as she may be hesitant to do so on her own. It is crucial to provide support and resources to help her cope with her feelings and experiences.
If the individual chooses to involve the police, it is her decision to make.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 53
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. She is worried that her brother firmly believes that he is a superhero with special powers, despite no evidence to support this claim.
During the assessment, the man appears physically healthy and there are no signs of disordered speech or confusion. However, he maintains an unwavering belief in his superhero abilities.
What is the appropriate diagnosis for this condition?Your Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome
Explanation:De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as Erotomania, is characterized by a delusion that a famous person is in love with the individual, without any other accompanying psychotic symptoms.
De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love
De Clerambault’s syndrome, also referred to as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. This condition is commonly observed in single women who believe that a well-known individual is in love with them. In simpler terms, the patient has a false belief that a celebrity or public figure is romantically interested in them. This delusion can be so intense that the patient may even stalk or harass the object of their affection. De Clerambault’s syndrome is a rare condition that requires professional medical attention to manage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with longstanding bipolar disorder has recently joined your practice after moving to the area. He has been on a stable dosage of lithium for the past 4 years and has been adherent to treatment. He has no other medical history of note and is not taking any medication that interacts with lithium. His previous blood tests have all been within normal limits, with a serum lithium level consistently around 0.5 mmol/litre (within target range).
What is the minimum ongoing blood monitoring required for this patient in relation to his lithium treatment?Your Answer: Serum lithium level, full blood count and thyroid function every 6 months
Correct Answer: Serum lithium level, serum electrolytes, eGFR, thyroid function and full blood count annually
Explanation:Lithium Monitoring Requirements
Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic ratio, which means it requires careful monitoring. The British National Formulary (BNF) outlines the monitoring requirements for patients taking lithium. After initiation and each dose change, serum-lithium monitoring should be carried out weekly until concentrations are stable. After that, it should be checked every 3 months for the first year and every 6 months thereafter as a minimum.
Patients who are 65 years and above, taking drugs that may interact with lithium, at risk of impaired renal or thyroid function, have high calcium levels, poor symptom control or adherence to treatment, or whose last serum-lithium concentration was 0.8 mmol/litre or higher should be monitored every 3 months. Additionally, serum-lithium measurements should be checked if there is a significant intercurrent illness/disease or a significant change in sodium or fluid intake.
Before treatment is initiated, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be assessed, and an ECG is recommended for those with cardiovascular disease or risk factors. Body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, and a full blood count should also be measured. During treatment, body-weight/BMI, serum electrolytes, eGFR, and thyroid function should be monitored every 6 months. If there is evidence of impaired renal or thyroid function or raised calcium levels, monitoring should be more frequent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 55
Correct
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You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for a patient who has not shown improvement with two different selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is the most hazardous in overdose?
Your Answer: Dosulepin
Explanation:It is recommended to avoid Dosulepin as it can be dangerous in case of overdose.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with his father who is concerned about him and reports a 6-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He dropped out of university soon after starting his course. He has no friends and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his father of trying to spy on him. During the consultation, he is suspicious and reluctant to speak directly to the GP.
What is the most likely reason for this presentation?Your Answer: Amphetamine misuse
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Understanding Possible Diagnoses for a Teenager’s Behaviour Changes
When a teenager’s behaviour changes, it can be difficult to determine whether it is normal teenage behaviour or a sign of a mental health issue. In the case of schizophrenia, social withdrawal and odd ideas, such as the belief that someone is trying to poison them, are classic symptoms. Amphetamine misuse can exacerbate underlying mental health problems, but there is no indication of drug abuse in this scenario. Severe depression can also manifest with delusions, which are false beliefs held with absolute certainty. Normal teenage behaviour may include changes in appearance and some withdrawal from family life, but excessive neglect of personal hygiene and never going out with friends may be signs of mental illness. Finally, personality disorders such as schizotypal and schizoid personality disorder may involve discomfort in close relationships and a preference for being alone, but do not typically include delusions or other features of schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A first time mother in her early 20s presents to the clinic with complaints of feeling exhausted, tearful without any reason, easily irritated, occasionally overjoyed, and sensitive to criticism 48 hours after giving birth.
What course of action would you recommend?Your Answer: Commence an SSRI following completion of a depression questionnaire
Correct Answer: Referral for urgent psychiatric assessment
Explanation:Understanding postpartum Blues
postpartum blues are a common experience for 50-70% of women after giving birth. Symptoms typically resolve within 10-14 days, but it’s important for women to receive appropriate support from their GP, health visitor, and family during this time. If symptoms persist, urgent assessment is recommended according to NICE guidelines. Women who are at a higher risk of developing postpartum depression may have a history of psychiatric issues, lack supportive mechanisms, or have experienced stressful life events. It’s important to note that postpartum blues do not require medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive eye blinking. He reports he is unable to control this and is concerned about the underlying cause. Despite this, he is generally in good health and has no visual impairment. Upon examination, his face and eyes appear normal except for excessive rapid blinking.
What is the probable reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Dry eyes
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:The correct term is tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by abnormal involuntary choreoathetoid movements that occur late in patients who have been on conventional antipsychotics. Symptoms may include lip-smacking, jaw pouting, chewing, repetitive blinking, or tongue poking. This condition is often difficult to treat, but replacing the antipsychotic or trying tetrabenazine may provide some relief.
Parkinsonism, which can also occur in patients taking conventional antipsychotics, presents with symptoms similar to those of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremor, blank facies, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. However, this option is incorrect as there is no mention of other symptoms in the stem, and repetitive blinking is not a typical symptom of Parkinsonism.
While dry eyes may lead to eye twitching, repetitive blinking is unlikely, and other symptoms such as visual disturbance or watering of the eyes would be expected.
Sjogren’s syndrome, which can cause dry eyes, is also an unlikely cause of repetitive involuntary blinking.
Blepharospasm, which is characterized by involuntary twitching or contraction of the eyelid, is a focal dystonia that may last only a few days or be lifelong. While stress or fatigue may trigger it, the patient in the stem is more likely suffering from tardive dyskinesia due to extrapyramidal side effects of chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 59
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents to general practice for an annual general check-up. He has no particular complaints and on examination, no abnormalities were found.
You check the blood test results which were sent by the nurse prior to the appointment:
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
You decide to review his medications.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused his electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRIs like sertraline are linked to hyponatraemia, while aspirin and bisoprolol are not commonly associated with it. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the appropriate time interval before his plasma lithium should be checked for the first time?
Your Answer: 3–4 days
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Monitoring Lithium Treatment: Guidelines and Recommendations
Before starting lithium treatment, it is important to conduct several tests, including ECG, thyroid function tests, renal function tests, and U&Es. After starting treatment, the plasma level should be checked after 7 days and then every 7 days until the required level is reached. The blood sample should be taken 12 hours after the dose has been taken. Once stable, the level should be checked every 3 months for the first year and 3-6 monthly depending on risk thereafter.
In addition to monitoring lithium levels, it is also important to regularly check thyroid function, calcium, eGFR, and U&Es every 6 months. Normal lithium levels vary between different laboratories but are generally about 0.6 – 1.0 mmol/l.
Lithium toxicity can occur at levels above the normal range and usually consists of gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, diarrhea) and central nervous system effects (muscle weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, coarse tremor, muscle twitching). Therefore, serum levels should also be taken during any intercurrent illness as this can increase toxicity.
Overall, monitoring lithium treatment is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). You stop the MAOI and wish to prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?Your Answer: 14 days
Correct Answer: 3 days
Explanation:Starting SSRI after MAOI
When switching from a MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. MAOIs can inhibit the enzymes responsible for breaking down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT). This can lead to a buildup of these neurotransmitters in the body, which can cause severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. It may take up to two weeks for the enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping a MAOI, so it is important to wait until this wash-out period is over before starting an SSRI. This information is consistent with the guidelines provided by the British National Formulary (BNF) and is commonly tested on the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears to have been triggered by losing his job. He reports feeling significantly better after taking an antidepressant for six weeks and inquires about discontinuing it.
What is the suggested duration for continuing antidepressant medication to minimize the likelihood of relapse?Your Answer: 8 weeks
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Recommended Duration of Treatment for Depression
According to NICE guidance, individuals who have experienced their first episode of depression should undergo six months of treatment to decrease the likelihood of relapse. However, for those who have recurrent depression, treatment is recommended for a longer period of two years. It is important to note that the duration of treatment may vary depending on the severity of the depression and the individual’s response to treatment. It is crucial for individuals to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate length of treatment for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man and his wife have come to the clinic with concerns about a new treatment he has recently started. He has a lengthy history of severe and debilitating depression that has not responded well to treatment with various selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. He was referred to specialist mental health services for further management.
His wife reports that he has been prescribed a new medication called 'phenelzine'. Unfortunately, she was unable to attend the psychiatry appointment with him. He informed her that the psychiatrist had advised him to avoid certain foods, but he cannot recall them and left the information leaflet he was given on the bus by mistake.
What is the best way to advise them?Your Answer: He should avoid spinach, rhubarb, nuts and chocolate
Correct Answer: He should avoid citrus fruits and bananas
Explanation:Dietary Restrictions for Certain Medical Conditions
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed in general practice due to the risk of hypertensive crisis when combined with certain foods or medications. Patients taking MAOIs must avoid tyramine-containing foods and should not take tricyclic antidepressants. Haemodialysis patients are advised to limit their intake of potassium-rich foods such as citrus fruits and bananas. Those with gout should avoid purine-containing foods like offal and shellfish. Patients with coeliac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods like wheat, barley, rye, and sometimes oats. Individuals with oxalate renal stones should avoid oxalate-containing foods like spinach, rhubarb, nuts, and chocolate. By following these dietary restrictions, patients can better manage their medical conditions and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to depression caused by multiple miscarriages. She is not ready to return to work and asks her doctor to extend her sick leave. What is the maximum duration that her doctor can sign her off for?
Your Answer: 3 weeks
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Fit notes are limited to a maximum of 3 months per form during the initial issuance.
The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes
The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.
It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.
Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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If your daily activities take a long time to finish, which disorder could this question be most useful for screening?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation:Identifying Comorbid OCD in Patients: Recommendations and Epidemiological Findings
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that doctors routinely consider the possibility of comorbid obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in patients with symptoms of depression, anxiety, substance misuse, body dysmorphic disorder, eating disorders, or those attending dermatology clinics. To identify potential OCD, doctors are advised to ask patients a series of questions related to washing, checking, intrusive thoughts, time-consuming activities, and orderliness.
Epidemiological findings suggest that many patients with obsessional symptoms are initially referred to dermatologists, where their OCD may go undiagnosed. Somatic obsessions and washing compulsions are commonly reported symptoms, with acne being the most frequently reported disorder. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for comorbid OCD in these patient populations and to screen for it accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off to sleep and feels tired.
Select from the list the single most useful piece of advice.Your Answer: Compensate for lack of sleep with day time naps
Correct Answer: Take regular daytime exercise
Explanation:Tips for Better Sleep: Understanding Sleep Hygiene
Sleep hygiene refers to a set of general guidelines that can help individuals achieve better quality sleep. One of the key recommendations is to avoid daytime naps, as they can disrupt the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle. Establishing a regular morning routine is also important, which involves waking up at the same time every day, even if an alarm clock is needed. To avoid constantly checking the time during periods of wakefulness, it may be helpful to place the clock under the bed.
Going to bed when feeling sleepy, rather than at a fixed time, is another important aspect of sleep hygiene. It’s also advisable to avoid mentally or physically demanding activities, such as studying, within 90 minutes of bedtime. Engaging in daytime exercise has been shown to improve sleep quality, reduce the time it takes to fall asleep, and increase the amount of time spent asleep.
Overall, sleep hygiene encompasses various aspects of sleep control, including homeostatic, adaptive, and circadian factors. It also provides guidance on how to avoid sleep deprivation and how to respond to unwanted awakenings during the night. By following these tips, individuals can improve their sleep habits and enjoy better overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man finds it difficult and is reluctant to have close friends as he fears rejection. He has a low self-esteem, feels inadequate and often becomes anxious in the presence of others. He has no hobbies and has been working in the same job since he left high school.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder
Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. One such disorder is avoidant personality disorder, which is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.
To be diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following behaviors: avoiding occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, reluctance to engage with people unless certain of being liked, showing restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with criticism or rejection in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as socially inept or inferior, and reluctance to take personal risks or engage in new activities due to fear of embarrassment.
It is important to note that avoidant personality disorder is distinct from other personality disorders, such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and schizoid personality disorders. While individuals with antisocial personality disorder may disregard the feelings of others and act outside of social norms, those with borderline personality disorder may display significant instability in relationships and mood. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by dramatic and self-indulgent behavior, while schizoid personality disorder involves detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotions.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and behaviors associated with avoidant personality disorder can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with his sister. She is worried about his well-being as he lives alone and has been isolating himself for some time. He rarely goes out and has no interests other than using his computer. He is generally distant when his family visits and speaks very little. He has not been in a relationship for many years. He appears disheveled and avoids making eye contact during the appointment. His sister is concerned that he may have Schizophrenia as their father exhibited similar behavior before his diagnosis.
The patient denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and doesn't express any delusional beliefs.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?Your Answer: Fixed delusional beliefs
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:The absence of delusion or hallucination symptoms rules out schizophrenia, schizotypal personality disorder, and delusional beliefs. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a greater concern for being accepted and social status anxiety. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, exhibits negative symptoms of schizophrenia, making it the most probable diagnosis.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is brought in by his sister who is very upset as she found him this morning acting strangely. Looking at his record he has a history of depression and substance misuse.
When you see him he is very paranoid at having been brought to the doctor's surgery and says that you are 'working for them'. He can see 'little men with guns lying on the floor trying to shoot him' and tells you that he is wanted by the government because he works as a secret spy.
He is somewhat agitated and whilst trying to talk to him he is obviously distracted and displays pressure of speech. Which of the symptoms displayed by this patient most strongly suggests that the psychosis is related to substance misuse rather than a schizophrenic illness?Your Answer: Delusions
Correct Answer: Paranoia
Explanation:Discriminating between Psychosis due to Drug Abuse and Schizophrenic Illness
Visual hallucinations are a common symptom in organic brain disorders and drug and alcohol intoxication and withdrawal. They are often associated with diagnoses such as stimulant/hallucinogen abuse, delirium tremens, dementia, and certain brain tumors. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations are more commonly seen in functional psychoses, particularly in schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia include auditory hallucinations in the form of third person, running commentary, and thought echo. By identifying these specific features, it is possible to discriminate between psychosis due to drug abuse and psychosis due to a schizophrenic illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of low mood. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20.
What is the optimal course of action for management?Your Answer: Refer for CBT
Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT
Explanation:Based on the patient’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended treatment for severe depression is a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention, with an SSRI being the first-line antidepressant of choice. Therefore, in this case, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment.
While venlafaxine may be considered as a later option if other antidepressants are ineffective, it is not the first choice. Additionally, a referral to psychiatry is not necessary based on the symptoms presented.
Fluoxetine is a suitable first-line antidepressant, but for severe depression, it should be used in combination with psychological intervention.
CBT alone may be appropriate for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, the guidelines recommend using an antidepressant in combination.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter, who is a Psychiatric Nurse, for a consultation. The daughter reports that she and other relatives have noticed a change in the patient’s behaviour and believes that he is experiencing ‘delirium, but certainly not dementia’.
Which of the following findings is most likely, assuming the daughter’s assessment of the patient is correct?Your Answer: Unimpaired attention
Correct Answer: Altered consciousness
Explanation:Distinguishing Delirium from Dementia: Key Differences to Note
When it comes to altered consciousness, delirium often causes wild fluctuations in consciousness level, while dementia typically only affects consciousness in severe cases. Additionally, delirium has an acute onset over hours to days, while dementia develops more gradually over months to years. Delirium is usually diagnosed within days of onset, while dementia is typically diagnosed 2-3 years after symptoms begin. Symptoms of delirium tend to fluctuate over the course of 24 hours, while dementia symptoms slowly worsen over time. Finally, while delirium can be reversible with early treatment of the underlying cause, dementia cannot be reversed, though treatment may slow its progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 72
Incorrect
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You are asked to visit a 52-year-old businessman at home, following a phone call from a worried neighbour. He lives alone and has been struggling for the past six months with the collapse of his financial services business.
He saw a colleague six weeks ago and was given a prescription for citalopram 20 mg, but this was not renewed and he has not been seen since.
Upon arrival at his home you notice that the curtains were all drawn and there were dirty plates piled high behind the sofa. There are several empty cans of beer strewn across the floor but he is not intoxicated and you cannot smell alcohol on his breath.
Your patient is unshaven and dishevelled. He talked in a low, monotone voice and there was no eye contact. He attributed the collapse of his business to the direct intervention of the Prime Minister, who had been placing hidden cameras in his home. He says that he can hear the whirring of the cameras at night and has not slept for three days. He is not actively suicidal but feels that his life is pointless.
There is no family support and the neighbour who alerted you said that she did not want to get involved.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate way of managing this man?Your Answer: Urgent referral to the mental health team
Correct Answer: Increase the dose of citalopram to 40 mg
Explanation:Management of Patients with Significant Mental Health Problems
In reality, the management of patients with significant mental health problems often involves a number of options – drug therapy, psychological support and psychotherapy, to name but a few.
However, when a patient lives alone, exhibits psychotic symptoms, and shows evidence of self-neglect, urgent action is required. In such cases, the mental health team should be contacted immediately for an assessment.
It is important to note that this patient has been non-compliant with previous treatment, and there is no guarantee that he would take any medication prescribed at this visit. Additionally, there are clues that he may be drinking heavily, but prescribing without additional support would be inappropriate.
Although there is no evidence of active suicidal ideation, there are a number of risk factors for suicide. Therefore, urgent involvement of the mental health team is strongly recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 73
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are grossly large and misshapen. She dresses in elaborate clothing to hide her shape and, although she swims well, has stopped going to the pool. Physical examination reveals breasts well within the normal range of size and shape.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Body Dysmorphic Disorder: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Conditions
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance or excessive concern with a slight physical anomaly. To diagnose BDD, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) criteria should be followed. It is important to differentiate BDD from other mental health conditions such as agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizoaffective disorder. By understanding the unique features of BDD, proper diagnosis and treatment can be provided to those who are affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practice Surgery by his father with a 3-month history of nocturnal enuresis. On examination, there is bruising on his inner thigh. On further questioning, his father is unable to explain why the boy has bruises and also mentions that teachers have raised concerns about inappropriate sexual behaviour towards classmates.
Which is the single most appropriate intervention?Your Answer: Arrange a meeting with her teacher
Correct Answer: Contact the local children’s Social Care Team
Explanation:Appropriate Actions for Child Welfare Concerns
When dealing with concerns about a child’s welfare, it is important to take appropriate actions to ensure their safety and wellbeing. Here are some scenarios and the recommended actions:
Actions for Child Welfare Concerns
1. Contact the local children’s Social Care Team if there are unexplained bruises on a child’s inner thigh and inappropriate sexual behavior. This could indicate sexual abuse, and an urgent referral to Social Services is necessary.
2. Refer to the specialist Continence Service if a child has bladder and bowel problems that are not resolved by behavioral strategies. This service offers assessment, treatment, advice, and support.
3. Arrange a meeting with the child’s teacher to improve communication between all services. However, if there are concerns about sexual abuse, this will be handled by the police and Social Services.
4. Prescribe desmopressin for nocturnal enuresis only after addressing concerns about sexual abuse. Behavioral strategies are the first line of treatment for this condition.
5. Refer to the school nurse for support with nocturnal enuresis only after addressing concerns about sexual abuse. School nurses are specialists in improving the health and wellbeing of school-aged children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She was involved in a serious car accident three months ago and has been avoiding driving ever since. She experiences flashbacks and nightmares and has become increasingly isolated and anxious. The doctor suspects post-traumatic stress disorder.
What is a diagnostic criterion for post-traumatic stress disorder?Your Answer: Recurrent early awakening
Correct Answer: Avoidance of people associated with the event
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event that threatens physical integrity or life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5), outlines the core diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which include recurrent intrusive symptoms such as memories, nightmares, and flashbacks. Additionally, individuals with PTSD may exhibit persistent avoidance of thoughts, feelings, or external factors associated with the traumatic event, as well as negative changes in mood or thoughts and changes in arousal or reactivity.
It is important to note that anxiety and depression often coexist with PTSD, but they are not diagnostic features. Similarly, substance abuse cannot be the primary cause of the disturbance in order for a PTSD diagnosis to be made. Recurrent early awakening, a symptom of dysthymia, is not part of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
Overall, understanding the diagnostic criteria for PTSD can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and treat this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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You are seeing a young adult patient who frequently attends the clinic and is being treated for depression. She has come today with her mother feeling low, helpless and 'lost'. Looking back at her medical records you can see that the patient has had several suicide attempts and a long history of self harm. She is known to be an impulsive person and has had problems due to this with substance misuse and personal relationships.
Her mother tells you that she has had a series of sexual relationships that have been very intense and often violent. The latest of these relationships ended a few days ago. Her mood tends to vary markedly and is quite unstable. She has been involved in physical fights on a frequent basis which she puts down to feeling angry and having a 'short fuse'.
On talking to her she has a fear of abandonment and a distorted self-image of herself. You are aware that as a child she was sexually abused by a close male family member.
Which of the following personality disorders correlate with her history and the clinical findings?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline Personality Disorder: Understanding the Challenges
Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a complex mental health condition that can present significant challenges in managing both the mental and physical needs of those affected. BPD is the most commonly presenting personality disorder in primary care, and it is important to recognise the signs and symptoms to provide appropriate support.
Individuals with BPD often exhibit a pervasive pattern of behaviour characterised by unstable interpersonal relationships, problems with self-image and mood, and impulsive behaviour. They may experience suicidal tendencies, self-harm, depression, and even psychotic symptoms. Patients can fluctuate rapidly between periods of confidence and complete despair, and they often show fear of abandonment and rejection.
Recognising the signs and symptoms of BPD is crucial in providing appropriate support and treatment for those affected. With the right care and management, individuals with BPD can lead fulfilling lives and achieve their full potential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.
At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.
Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?Your Answer: He can tail off in twelve months
Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment
This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.
It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to morning surgery and says she thinks she has a recurrence of depression. She has all the same symptoms as during a previous bout. You want to assess the severity of her symptoms by using a questionnaire.
Which one of the following questionnaires is validated for use in primary care?Your Answer: Zung Questionnaire
Correct Answer: Hamilton Depression Rating Scale
Explanation:Severity Categorisation in Depression Assessment Tools
The severity of depression is an important aspect to consider when assessing and treating patients. There are several depression assessment tools that categorise severity differently. The Patient Health Questionnaire 9 (PHQ-9) categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate, moderately severe and severe. The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS-D) categorises depression as normal, mild, moderate and severe. Lastly, the Beck Depression Inventory II categorises severity as minimal, mild, moderate and severe. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand the severity categorisation of each tool to accurately assess and treat patients with depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you start to feel uneasy about her behavior towards you. She has been making sexually suggestive remarks and during your last check, she was wearing provocative lingerie. She frequently causes disturbances on the ward and is easily influenced by other patients. Your consultant advises you to refrain from seeing the patient alone and informs you that the patient has a personality disorder.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation:Histrionic personality disorder is a condition where individuals have a strong desire to be the center of attention, often displaying inappropriate sexual behavior or dress and being easily influenced by others. They may form intense relationships, but may also misinterpret the level of intimacy in these relationships.
Schizoid personality disorder is unlikely in this case as individuals with this condition typically lack interest in sexual interactions and prefer to be alone rather than forming close friendships.
Schizotypal personality disorder may involve odd or eccentric beliefs or behavior, but individuals with this condition often struggle to form friendships and may be paranoid or suspicious, making it less likely to be the correct diagnosis for this patient.
Antisocial personality disorder involves a disregard for social norms and lawful behavior, often resulting in multiple arrests. These individuals can be aggressive and deceitful, but this doesn’t match the behavior of the patient in the stem.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and recurrent self-harm attempts. Like histrionic personality disorder, individuals with borderline personality disorder may form intense relationships, but these relationships are often unstable.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 80
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Samantha, a 50-year-old woman, visits her doctor complaining of feeling fatigued, experiencing a low mood, and losing interest in activities she typically enjoys for the past two weeks. As per ICD-10 guidelines, how long must Samantha's symptoms persist to be diagnosed with a depressive episode?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:The criteria for diagnosing depressive illness according to ICD-10 include a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyable, and decreased energy levels. Other common symptoms include reduced concentration, low self-esteem, feelings of guilt, pessimistic views of the future, and thoughts or actions of self-harm or suicide. Disturbed sleep, diminished appetite, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and loss of libido are also common.
To diagnose a mild depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and two of the other symptoms should be present, but none of the symptoms should be intense. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, and individuals should still be able to function socially and at work, despite being distressed by the symptoms.
For a moderate depressive episode, at least two of the main three symptoms and three or four of the other symptoms should be present for a minimum of two weeks. Individuals will likely have difficulty continuing with normal work and social functioning.
A severe depressive episode is diagnosed when all three typical symptoms are present, along with at least four other symptoms, some of which should be severe. The episode should last for a minimum of two weeks, but an early diagnosis may be appropriate if the symptoms are particularly severe. Individuals may also experience psychotic symptoms and show severe distress or agitation.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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