-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
You see a 26-year-old patient who is wondering about the duration of her Kyleena® coil for contraception. She currently has the 19.5mg levonorgestrel (LNG) IUS which was inserted 20 months ago.
What is the licensed duration of the Kyleena® coil for contraception in this patient's case?Your Answer: 8 years
Correct Answer: 5 years
Explanation:The Kyleena intrauterine system (IUS) is approved for use as a contraceptive for a period of 5 years. It contains 19.5mg of levonorgestrel (LNG) and is a relatively new option in the UK. Compared to the Mirena IUS, it has a smaller frame and insertion tube. The Mirena IUS, which contains 52mg of LNG, is also approved for 5 years of use as a contraceptive. The Jaydess IUS, which contains 13.5mg of LNG, is approved for 3 years of use. Copper coils typically have a contraceptive license for a period of 5 years or less.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following prescriptions should not be used during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Topical clindamycin for bacterial vaginosis
Correct Answer: Doxycycline for malaria prophylaxis
Explanation:Pregnant women should not take any tetracyclines. It is important to note that the aforementioned medications may not be the preferred initial treatments.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are heard in the right base during examination and an antibiotic is deemed necessary. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?
Your Answer: Cefalexin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The BNF recommends against the use of quinolones during pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy observed in animal studies. While there have been reports of a potential increase in the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis with the use of co-amoxiclav during pregnancy, the evidence is not conclusive. The BNF states that co-amoxiclav is currently considered safe for use during pregnancy, and provides links to both the BNF and the UK teratology information service for further information.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity comes in for a visit after experiencing a late period. Upon taking a urinary hCG test, it comes back positive. She is currently taking the following medications:
- Orlistat 120mg three times a day
- Simvastatin 40 mg once a day
- Aspirin 75 mg once a day
- Metformin 1g twice a day
- Paracetamol 1g four times a day
- Aqueous cream as needed
Which medication should be discontinued immediately?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, having lost a significant amount of weight after undergoing gastric sleeve surgery a year ago. She is a non-smoker and has never been pregnant. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mmHg.
The patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraceptives but doesn't want a coil. She also wants a contraceptive that can be discontinued quickly if she decides to start a family.
What is the most suitable contraceptive option for this patient?Your Answer: Nexplanon implantable contraceptive
Explanation:Contraception for Obese Patients
Obesity can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism in women who take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Therefore, it is recommended that patients with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be less effective in patients who weigh over 90kg.
It is important to note that all other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe for use in obese patients. However, patients who have undergone gastric sleeve/bypass/duodenal switch surgeries cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to its lack of efficacy.
In summary, obese patients should be cautious when using the COCP and consider alternative methods of contraception. It is important to discuss contraceptive options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on individual needs and medical history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman has come for her regular appointment at your GP surgery and has just discovered that she is 6 weeks pregnant. She is seeking assistance with quitting smoking during her pregnancy and wants to discuss treatment options. At present, she smokes 10 cigarettes per day and due to her hectic schedule, she believes that she won't be able to attend frequent meetings.
What is the most suitable smoking cessation therapy to suggest to her?Your Answer: Bupropion
Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy
Explanation:Pregnant women who smoke should be offered nicotine replacement therapy, but varenicline and bupropion should not be given as they are not safe for them.
Although referring the patient to a stop smoking clinic would be appropriate, it may not be feasible for her to attend regular meetings.
While the effects of e-cigarette vapour on the foetus are unknown, NICE advises against discouraging pregnant women who are already using e-cigarettes to quit smoking.
Nicotine replacement therapy is the only approved treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female presents with oligomenorrhoea.
On examination she is obese but otherwise normal.
Investigations reveal a prolactin of 1500 mU/L (high), a LH of 1.1, FSH 1.2 and oestradiol 1200 pmol/L (high).
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cushing's
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:Interpretation of Hormone Levels in a Woman Trying to Conceive
This young woman has successfully conceived, as evidenced by her high levels of oestradiol and prolactin. If her high prolactin levels were due to a prolactinoma, her oestradiol levels would be low. When hyperprolactinaemia is associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), prolactin levels are typically below 1000 mU/L and oestradiol levels are normal, with an elevated LH:FSH ratio. It is not mentioned whether her TSH levels were tested, but hypothyroidism is usually associated with menorrhagia and doesn’t cause the high prolactin levels seen in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic to inquire about the outcome of her oral glucose tolerance test. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and underwent the test due to her body mass index of 36kg/m².
Here are her test results:
- Fasting glucose: 5.6 mmol/L
- 2-hour glucose: 8.2 mmol/L
What is the most accurate interpretation of these findings?Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes due to a raised 2-hour glucose
Explanation:Gestational diabetes can be identified through a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L or higher, or a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L or higher.
This particular woman is at risk of gestational diabetes due to her body mass index being over 30 kg/m². She has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes as her 2-hour glucose level is 7.8 mmol/L or higher, even though her fasting glucose level is within normal range.
It’s worth noting that impaired glucose tolerance is a term used for non-pregnant patients who have a 2-hour glucose level between 7.8mmol/L and 11.1mmol/L.
In this case, the woman’s 2-hour glucose level is elevated, indicating gestational diabetes, while her fasting glucose level is normal. These results are not considered normal.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby two weeks ago without any known complications. She is curious about iron supplementation and has undergone blood tests. The results show that her Hb level is 107 g/L, which is below the normal range for females (115-160 g/L). What is the appropriate Hb cut-off point to initiate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: 100
Explanation:During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually at 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a woman requires oral iron therapy. For the first trimester, the cut-off is less than 110 g/L, for the second and third trimesters, it is less than 105 g/L, and for the postpartum period, it is less than 100 g/L. If a woman falls below these levels, she should receive oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. Treatment should continue for three months after iron deficiency is corrected to allow for the replenishment of iron stores.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old diabetic lady presents to you for advice on contraception. She reports having regular periods lasting 5 days, which are not heavy. She is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has hypertension, which is managed with ramipril. Her most recent blood pressure reading was 120/82, and her BMI is 28. She has no history of migraines, breast cancer, or venous thromboembolism in herself or her family. She recently had a lipid check and has an upcoming appointment with another provider to discuss her dyslipidemia. What would be the safest form of contraception for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone only pill
Correct Answer: Copper coil
Explanation:UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptives
The UK medical eligibility criteria are used to guide clinical judgement for the use of contraceptives. For patients with multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, such as smoking, diabetes, hypertension, obesity, and dyslipidaemias, the copper IUCD is UKMEC 1 and IUS UKMEC 2. The copper coil is the safest option as it doesn’t interfere with any systemic risk factors for cardiovascular disease and has a UK medical eligibility score of 1. This means there is no restriction on the use of the contraceptive method.
However, the combined oral contraceptive is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and a potential link with cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease. Therefore, it is not suitable for women with pre-existing risk factors for these conditions and scores a UK medical eligibility of 3. The other contraceptive options all have a UK medical eligibility score of 2, which is less favorable than a score of 1 with the copper coil. It is important to consider these criteria when choosing a contraceptive method for patients with multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 20 weeks gestation. What potential complication is she more likely to experience?
Your Answer: Neonatal hyperglycaemia
Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios
Explanation:Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy
Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, affecting 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.
Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another common complication, which occurs due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia can lead to neonatal jaundice, and malformation rates increase 3-4 fold, including sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Stillbirth, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and shoulder dystocia (which may cause Erb’s palsy) are also possible complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea.
What is the most appropriate first investigation to perform?Your Answer: MRI head
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Secondary Amenorrhoea with Galactorrhoea
Any patient who presents with secondary amenorrhoea, the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months, should first have pregnancy ruled out before further investigation. This is because pregnancy can cause secondary amenorrhoea and may also lead to galactorrhoea, the production of breast milk in a non-lactating individual.
If pregnancy is ruled out, the next step is to measure prolactin levels. Hyperprolactinaemia, a condition where there is an excess of prolactin in the blood, can cause both secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyperprolactinaemia, which can include pituitary tumors, medication side effects, or other medical conditions.
In summary, investigating secondary amenorrhoea with galactorrhoea requires ruling out pregnancy and measuring prolactin levels to determine the underlying cause of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has received the results of her combined screening test for Down syndrome. Her risk is 1:200, but she is unsure of what this means. What advice should be given to her?
Your Answer: She can be reassured this signifies a low risk of her child having Down syndrome
Correct Answer: You should offer her referral for diagnostic testing
Explanation:Screening tests for Down syndrome are not always accurate, as they can miss detecting the condition in a significant number of babies. If a patient receives a low-risk result, they will not be offered any further testing for Down syndrome.
However, if a patient receives a higher risk result, meaning their baby has a risk greater than 1 in 150, they will be offered a diagnostic test to confirm whether or not their baby has Down syndrome. It is ultimately up to the patient to decide whether or not to undergo the diagnostic test.
Diagnostic tests for Down syndrome include chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis.
NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A woman who is 12 weeks pregnant is seen in the antenatal clinic for her initial check-up. According to her electronic records, she is identified as a former smoker. In accordance with current NICE recommendations, what is the best approach to evaluate her smoking status?
Your Answer: Use a 'NHS Smoking Exposure in Pregnancy' questionnaire
Correct Answer: Use a carbon monoxide detector, explaining that all women are checked regardless of their declared smoking status
Explanation:Could you please tell me if you or anyone in your household smokes? If yes, how many cigarettes do they smoke per day? Additionally, may I examine your fingers for any signs of tar-staining?
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old female presents for contraceptive counseling. She has a history of cystic fibrosis with frequent hospitalizations, and her current FEV1 is 45%. She doesn't smoke, has a normal blood pressure, a BMI of 18 kg/m2, and no personal or family history of VTE. What would be the most effective contraceptive option for this patient?
Your Answer: Progestogen implant
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system
Explanation:Implications of Unintended Pregnancy and Contraceptive Efficacy
The risk of unintended pregnancy varies among different contraceptive methods. The Progestogen implant has the lowest failure rate at 0.05% in the first year of use, while the COCP has a failure rate of 9%. However, the implications of an unintended pregnancy for an individual patient must be considered when advising on contraception. In this case, the patient’s FEV1 and BMI suggest that the consequences of an unintended pregnancy would be very serious.
Furthermore, while the COCP may not be a suitable option for this patient due to its high failure rate, her potential risk factors for developing VTE should also be taken into account. Despite having a negative personal and family history, normotension, non-smoking status, and BMI <30 kg/m2, her frequent hospital admissions and indwelling intravenous catheters may increase her risk of developing VTE. Therefore, careful consideration is necessary when selecting a contraceptive method for this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
You are requested by the community midwives to assess a 26-year-old woman who was discharged four days ago following the delivery of her first child via caesarean section. The infant is healthy. During the examination, she complains of diffuse tenderness in her abdomen, especially around her caesarean scar. She has a fever of 38.1°C and is experiencing a bloody discharge per vaginum, which has a notably strong odour.
What is the most significant risk factor associated with postpartum infection?Your Answer: Epidural anaesthesia
Correct Answer: Prolonged labour
Explanation:Endometritis and its association with Caesarean section and Prolonged Labour
Endometritis is a common infection that affects women after childbirth. The two main factors that increase the risk of endometritis are Caesarean section and Prolonged labour. However, Caesarean section is more likely to result in infection than Prolonged labour. Studies have shown that the rate of endometritis is higher in women who have undergone Caesarean section compared to those who have had vaginal deliveries. Symptoms such as scar tenderness, abdominal tenderness, pyrexia, and strong/foul smelling vaginal discharge support the diagnosis of endometritis.
Prolonged labour and multiparity may also increase the risk of retained products of conception, which can lead to infection. Combination antibiotic therapy with an aminoglycoside and metronidazole may be used to treat endometritis. Pelvic ultrasound can be helpful in identifying haematoma or a collection of fluid that may require drainage. It is important to monitor and treat endometritis promptly to prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Sophie is a 22-year-old woman who doesn't use any form of regular contraception. Last night she had unprotected sexual intercourse. She has taken levonorgestrel 3 hours ago and has vomited twice since.
During your phone consultation with Sophie, she expresses uncertainty about what steps to take next.
What is the most crucial advice to provide Sophie regarding her pregnancy risk?Your Answer: Take a second dose of levonorgestrel as soon as possible
Explanation:If a patient vomits within 3 hours of taking levonorgestrel, it is recommended to prescribe a second dose of emergency hormonal contraception to be taken as soon as possible, according to NICE guidelines. Therefore, reassuring Zoe that she is protected from pregnancy is incorrect. It is also not advisable to immediately start Zoe on the COCP, as the most important advice is to take a second dose of emergency contraception. Additionally, Zoe should be offered a range of contraceptive options, including long-acting reversible contraceptives. Suggesting other forms of emergency contraception, such as ulipristal acetate or the IUD, is also incorrect in this situation, as the guidelines specify that a second dose of levonorgestrel should be taken. However, if Zoe experiences persistent vomiting or diarrhea for more than 24 hours after taking emergency hormonal contraception, the IUD may be considered.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her desogestrel contraceptive pill (progestogen only) this morning and is uncertain about what to do. She typically takes the pill at approximately 0900, and it is now 1430. What guidance should be provided?
Your Answer: Emergency contraception should be offered
Correct Answer: Take missed pill now and no further action needed
Explanation:Since desogestrel has a 12-hour window, the patient can take the pill now without requiring any additional steps.
The progestogen only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to not confuse the two. For traditional POPs such as Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, and Femulen, as well as Cerazette (desogestrel), if a pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required and pill taking can continue as normal. However, if a pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e. more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. If a pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required. But if a pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e. more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
If action is needed, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible. If more than one pill has been missed, only one pill should be taken. The next pill should be taken at the usual time, which may mean taking two pills in one day. Pill taking should continue with the rest of the pack. Extra precautions, such as using condoms, should be taken until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman comes to the surgery seeking advice on contraception. She has started a new relationship and has only relied on condoms before. Her BMI is 34 kg/m² and she has no significant medical history. What is the accurate statement about her contraceptive choices?
Your Answer: She should be advised to reduce her BMI to <= 30 kg/m² before using any hormonal methods due to the risk of venous thromboembolism
Correct Answer: Desogestrel 75 mcg od would be a suitable choice
Explanation:While the use of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) may be restricted for obese patients, all other contraceptive options are considered safe with a UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) rating of 1. It has been established that Depo-Provera may lead to weight gain, but there is no indication that the dosage of progestogen-only pills or other forms of contraception needs to be altered for obese patients.
Contraception for Obese Patients
Obesity can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism in women who take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Therefore, it is recommended that patients with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be less effective in patients who weigh over 90kg.
It is important to note that all other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe for use in obese patients. However, patients who have undergone gastric sleeve/bypass/duodenal switch surgeries cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to its lack of efficacy.
In summary, obese patients should be cautious when using the COCP and consider alternative methods of contraception. It is important to discuss contraceptive options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on individual needs and medical history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
What is true during menopause?
Your Answer: All symptoms respond to counselling
Correct Answer: Phyto-oestrogens are as effective as HRT
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms
Systemic oestrogens remain the most effective treatment for hot flashes during menopause, according to available evidence. However, hormone profiling is only useful in uncertain cases, and clonidine effectiveness in treating hot flashes is not yet conclusive. Loss of libido is often caused by a decrease in circulating androgens, but tibolone has been shown to improve libido. On the other hand, counselling efficacy in treating menopausal symptoms is still uncertain, and phyto-oestrogens are no more effective than a placebo, according to BMJ Clinical Evidence. In summary, systemic oestrogens and tibolone are the most promising treatments for menopausal symptoms, while other options require further research.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has Chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:
Varicella IgM Negative
Varicella IgG Negative
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman visits the clinic. She began using a combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT) containing oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate her menopausal symptoms half a year ago. She was still experiencing periods when she started HRT.
Today, she seeks advice as she has entered a new relationship after being celibate for the past three years. She inquires about alternative contraceptive methods aside from using condoms. What would be the best answer to provide her?Your Answer: The addition of the combined oral contraceptive pill is the most appropriate method
Correct Answer: The addition of a progestogen-only pill is the most appropriate method
Explanation:Although the progestogen-only pill can be used in combination with HRT, it cannot serve as the sole progestogen component. Women aged 40 and above can use the combined oral contraceptive pill, which is classified as UKMEC2. For women over 45 years, Depo-Provera is also classified as UKMEC2.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old pregnant woman is curious about why she has been recommended to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What makes her eligible for an oral glucose tolerance test?
Your Answer: Her body mass index
Correct Answer: Previous macrosomia
Explanation:It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the most appropriate forms of contraception for her. During your discussion, you highlight the advantages of long-acting reversible contraception, and she expresses interest in learning more about the contraceptive implant and its mechanism of action. What is the primary mode of action of the contraceptive implant?
Your Answer: Preventing ovulation and implantation
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The main way in which the contraceptive implant works is by stopping ovulation. It may also have secondary effects such as changing cervical mucous to prevent sperm from entering and thinning the endometrium to potentially prevent implantation, but these are not its primary mode of action.
Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives
Contraceptives are designed to prevent pregnancy by various mechanisms. The mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception is summarized in the table below, based on documents produced by the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH).
Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progestogen-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and some progestogen-only pills work by inhibiting ovulation, while others thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Injectable and implantable contraceptives primarily inhibit ovulation, but also thicken cervical mucous. Intrauterine devices decrease sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous.
Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, includes levonorgestrel, ulipristal, and the intrauterine contraceptive device. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal work by inhibiting ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and can also inhibit implantation.
Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important for choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also essential for using contraceptives effectively and maximizing their effectiveness in preventing unintended pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old multiparous lady has been referred for a 75 g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test by the midwife. She is 34 weeks pregnant on her 3rd pregnancy. Her urine tested 1+ to glucose on two occasions and her midwife arranged for her to undergo further testing.
What is the threshold plasma glucose level for diagnosing gestational diabetes following a 75 g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test?Your Answer: 5.6
Correct Answer: 7.8
Explanation:Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes
Gestational diabetes is a common condition that affects pregnant women. It is important to be familiar with the threshold levels of plasma glucose for diagnosing gestational diabetes using both a fasting and 75g 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test. The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is different from that of non-pregnant or male patients.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, a woman should have either a fasting plasma glucose level of 5.6 mmol/litre or above or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of 7.8 mmol/litre or above. For non-pregnant or male patients, the figures are 7 mmol/l and 11.1 mmol/l.
It is recommended that patients should be offered a 75 g 2-hour OGTT if they have risk factors for diabetes or if they had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy. In 2015, NICE offered new advice that glycosuria of 2+ or above on one occasion or of 1+ or above on two or more occasions detected by reagent strip testing during routine antenatal care may indicate undiagnosed gestational diabetes. If this is observed, further testing should be considered to exclude gestational diabetes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old woman presents 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) and requests emergency contraception (EC). Her last menstrual period finished 3 days ago. She has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications.
Her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and her BMI is 23 kg/m2.
After discussing her emergency contraception options she opts to have levonorgestrel (Plan B). She also now wants to take regular contraception in the form of a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and would like to know when she can start taking it.
What is the most appropriate advice to give?Your Answer: Barrier methods are not needed as soon as she starts the COCP
Correct Answer: She should start taking the COCP from 5 days after taking ulipristal
Explanation:Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception. This is because ulipristal may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. This advice applies to all hormonal contraception methods, including the pill, patch, or ring.
Barrier methods should be used during the 5-day waiting period before starting the COCP to ensure its effectiveness. If the patient is starting the COCP within the first 5 days of her cycle, barrier methods may not be necessary.
Based on the information provided, there is no reason why the patient cannot be prescribed the COCP. Alternative contraception is not required if the patient prefers the COCP.
It is not necessary to wait until the start of the next cycle before taking the pill, as long as barrier methods are used for 7 days.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman attends her medication review appointment at the clinic. She is currently prescribed sodium valproate for her epilepsy and reports no issues with her medication. She mentions that she is not sexually active but has the progesterone implant (Nexplanon) which is due to expire in 2 years. As per the current guidelines of the valproate pregnancy prevention program, what additional steps should be taken?
Your Answer: Ensure the patient has an annual acknowledgement of risk form signed by the general practitioner or pharmacist for the current year
Correct Answer: Ensure the patient has an annual acknowledgement of risk form from her epilepsy specialist for the current year
Explanation:Patients taking sodium valproate must undergo an Annual Acknowledgement of Risk form with a specialist once a year as part of the valproate pregnancy prevention programme. This is crucial as unplanned pregnancies can result in birth defects. To ensure compliance with the programme, the general practitioner should confirm that the patient is using highly effective contraception, have an up-to-date acknowledgement of risk form signed by the specialist and patient, and refer the patient back to the specialist for an annual review. In the event of an unplanned or planned pregnancy, the patient should be urgently referred to the specialist. Highly effective contraception methods include LARC, Cu-IUD, LNG-IUS, IMP, and sterilisation. The progesterone-only implant doesn’t interfere with sodium valproate. Even if the patient is not sexually active, an annual acknowledgement of risk form and highly effective contraception are still required. The form must be signed by the specialist and patient, not the general practitioner or pharmacist.
Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects
Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.
Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to potential drug interactions. It may cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, as well as weight gain and increased appetite. Alopecia is also a possible side effect, with regrowth often being curly. Ataxia, tremors, and hepatotoxicity are other potential adverse effects. Pancreatitis, thrombocytopaenia, hyponatraemia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy are also possible, with the latter being treated with L-carnitine.
In summary, while sodium valproate is an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor. Additionally, potential adverse effects such as gastrointestinal symptoms, weight gain, alopecia, and neurological symptoms should be monitored closely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman comes to see you to discuss her contraception. She has been using the progestogen-only pill for the past 4 years. She is currently amenorrhoeic. She is not sure how long she should continue to use contraception for and asks your advice.
She was seen two months ago by a colleague who advised her to have her FSH levels checked. This has shown an FSH level of 42 (normal range: less than 30).
What do you advise?Your Answer: Repeat FSH now and if >30, then contraception can be stopped in 6 months
Correct Answer: Repeat FSH now and if >30, then she can stop contraception in 1 year
Explanation:FSH Testing for Women on Contraception
Current guidance from the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare suggests that women using progestogen-only contraception can have their FSH levels measured, but only if they are over 50 years old. However, a single elevated FSH reading is not enough to determine ovarian failure. If FSH levels are consistently above 30, contraception can be stopped after a year. It’s important to note that amenorrhea alone is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure in women taking exogenous hormones. Additionally, for women using combined hormones, FSH testing during a hormone-free period is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure. Proper testing and monitoring are crucial for women on contraception to ensure their reproductive health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What are the current antenatal screening tests recommended for Down's syndrome in the UK for pregnant women?
Your Answer: B-HCG + alpha-feto protein + oestradiol
Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency + B-HCG + pregnancy associated plasma protein A
Explanation:NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual cycle for a week during her upcoming travels. She doesn't smoke, has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, and has no history of heart disease or breast cancer. She is currently using only barrier contraception.
What would be the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer: Offer norethisterone be taken 3 days before the onset of periods until her return, advising the patient it will act as contraception during this time
Correct Answer: Offer norethisterone to be taken 3 days before the onset of periods until her return, advising the patient it will not act as contraception
Explanation:To delay their periods, women who are not on the combined hormonal contraceptive pill can take norethisterone 5 mg three times a day, starting three days before their expected period. It is important to note that this method doesn’t provide contraception, and additional contraception should be used. It is not necessary to take norethisterone seven days before the expected period. The progestogen-only pill, tranexamic acid, and copper intra-uterine device are not recommended for period delay. Tranexamic acid may be used for heavy periods.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.
During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old female who is 22 weeks pregnant is found to have a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg on three separate occasions. Urine protein is negative.
Which of the following would be the initial treatment option?Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Alpha methyldopa
Explanation:Safe Medications for Hypertension in Pregnancy
Beta blockers are considered safe during the third trimester of pregnancy, but they are not commonly used due to concerns about intrauterine growth retardation. Instead, labetalol is often preferred as it has an established track record of safety and efficacy. Magnesium sulphate is a recognized treatment for pre-eclampsia, a condition not mentioned in this context. ACE inhibitors are not recommended for use during pregnancy. Nifedipine may be used as a second-line treatment. Methyldopa is a well-studied medication that has been shown to be both effective and safe for both mother and baby during pregnancy. By carefully selecting the appropriate medication, hypertension in pregnancy can be managed safely and effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
A 22-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of irregular vaginal bleeding. She started the combined hormonal contraceptive pill 3 months ago. She has no other medication and is not taking any over the counter medication. She reports no missed pills. She has recently been to the sexual-health clinic and reports all tests were normal including a negative pregnancy test. She reports no abdominal pain, no dyspareunia, no abnormal vaginal discharge, no heavy bleeding and no postcoital bleeding.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Continue the same pill and review at 3 months, reassuring the patient that most bleeding may settle after 3 months
Explanation:Patients who experience problematic bleeding within the first 3 months of starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, without any concerning symptoms, can be reassured and monitored. It is common for bleeding to improve after this initial period. A physical examination is typically not necessary for these patients, as long as they are participating in cervical screening and have not experienced more than 3 months of problematic bleeding.
A transvaginal ultrasound scan is not recommended at this stage.
However, if bleeding persists beyond 3 months or if there are other symptoms that suggest an underlying cause, such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal and speculum examination should be considered.
If problematic bleeding continues, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol in a combined hormonal contraceptive pill can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. While there is no evidence that changing the dose of progestogen improves cycle control, it may be beneficial on an individual basis.
There is no need for gynaecology referral at this stage.
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.
Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
You are contemplating recommending ulipristal (EllaOne) for a female who has come in seeking emergency contraception. What is the timeframe for using ulipristal after unprotected sexual intercourse?
Your Answer: 144 hours (6 days)
Correct Answer: 120 hours (5 days)
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
A 35-year-old female patient comes to you seeking advice on contraception. She has a medical history of obesity and migraines without aura. The patient is currently taking orlistat and loratadine. During her visit to your clinic, her body mass index is measured to be 27kg/m² and her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer: Orlistat may reduce effectiveness of oral contraception
Explanation:The effectiveness of oral contraception may be reduced by medication that causes diarrhoea or vomiting, such as orlistat or laxatives. However, loratadine doesn’t have an impact on the effectiveness of either the combined oral contraceptive pill or the progesterone-only pill. It’s worth noting that orlistat only affects oral contraception and will not reduce the effectiveness of the contraceptive transdermal patch or injection.
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.
Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in the previous four months. She has been amenorrheic for some months.
On examination she had fine lanugo hair and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
Which one of the following laboratory results would support the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Suppressed T3 concentration
Correct Answer: Low plasma testosterone concentration
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and its Associated Hormonal Changes
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that affects many individuals. It is characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Patients with anorexia often experience hormonal changes that can have significant effects on their health.
One of the most common hormonal changes associated with anorexia is functional hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This condition is characterized by low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH). Despite this, plasma testosterone levels are typically normal in females with anorexia.
Cortisol levels may also be affected in patients with anorexia. While they may be within the normal range, they may fail to suppress with dexamethasone. Additionally, basal levels of T3 may be depressed, while thyroxine (T4) and TSH levels may be normal. Finally, ferritin levels are often low in a state of malnutrition.
Overall, anorexia nervosa can have significant effects on a patient’s hormonal balance. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these changes and to monitor patients accordingly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.5
2 15.1
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Give advice about a diabetic diet
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a malodorous vaginal discharge that is white in color. She reports no associated itch or dyspareunia. The healthcare provider suspects bacterial vaginosis. Which organism is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma hominis
Correct Answer: Gardnerella
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is a condition characterized by the excessive growth of mainly bacteria.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving birth to her daughter last week. Despite her usual loss of appetite when anxious, she reports eating well. While she was excited about her daughter's arrival during pregnancy, she now experiences frequent unhappiness and irritability. She expresses worry about motherhood and a lack of enthusiasm for it.
What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale before referring to psychiatry
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Mothers experiencing the ‘baby blues’ typically require reassurance, support, and follow-up. This is the correct answer as ‘baby blues’ is a common condition among mothers in the postnatal period, usually starting a week after childbirth and lasting only a few days. It is normal for mothers to feel emotional, anxious, tearful, and low after giving birth due to sudden hormonal changes. Reassurance is usually sufficient to manage this condition.
Cognitive behavioural therapy and starting sertraline are incorrect options as they are suitable for patients with postnatal depression, which tends to start within 1-3 months post-delivery. Symptoms of postnatal depression include those of baby blues, but with additional symptoms such as lack of sleep, appetite changes, anhedonia, and thoughts of hurting themselves and their baby. Symptoms may also come on more gradually and last for a long time. However, in this vignette, the patient only describes feelings related to low mood and anxiety that set in a week after giving birth, making a diagnosis of postnatal depression unlikely.
Referring to psychiatry is also an incorrect option as it is necessary only for severe circumstances where the patient has severe mental health impairment and poses a risk to themselves or others. This vignette suggests that the patient has baby blues, so reassurance would be the most appropriate option.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman who delivered a baby a week ago comes in for a follow-up appointment with her spouse. The husband expresses concern about her mood as she appears to be depressed and is not bonding well with the newborn. He recalls her behavior three days ago when she was speaking rapidly and incoherently about the future. The patient denies experiencing any hallucinations but mentions that she feels like her child has been born into a terrible world. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission
Explanation:The mother’s behavior suggests that she may be experiencing puerperal psychosis and requires immediate admission for psychiatric assessment.
Although not all psychotic symptoms are present, there are several indications of significant mental health issues, such as the mother’s unusual lack of interaction with her baby, incoherent speech about the future, and expressing concern that the baby has been born into a troubled world.
Therefore, it is crucial that the mother receives prompt psychiatric evaluation.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice on contraception. She is experiencing heavier and more painful periods, despite them still being regular. She has expressed interest in learning more about the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS).
What is the accurate statement regarding the LNG-IUS and this patient?Your Answer: The LNG-IUS can be used for contraception until age 50 if inserted at age 45 or over
Correct Answer: The LNG-IUS can be used for contraception until the age of 55 if inserted at age 45 or over
Explanation:The Mirena®, Levosert®, and Jaydess® are three types of LNG-IUS available in the UK for women. The Mirena® coil can be used for contraception, heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB), and endometrial protection during estrogen-only hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for up to 5 years. Levosert® is licensed for contraception and HMB for 3 years, while Jaydess® is licensed for contraception only for 3 years. However, the faculty of sexual and reproductive health recommends that women aged 45 or over can use Mirena® for contraception until the age of 55, as long as it is not being used for endometrial protection during HRT. Therefore, for a 45-year-old patient, the correct answer is 1.
Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A mother comes to the clinic with her 15-year-old son and she is worried as her son's voice has not yet deepened. Her son is also of short stature when compared to his calculated expected height.
Which one of the following should you keep in mind when evaluating him?Your Answer: Onset of periods normally co-incides with the peak height velocity
Correct Answer: You would have expected the menarche to have occurred in 90%+ of 16-year-olds
Explanation:Understanding Menarche and Puberty in Girls
Less than 3% of girls experience menarche after the age of 15, which is associated with the deceleration phase of the height velocity curve seen in puberty. The first sign of puberty in girls is breast bud development. However, delayed or absent puberty may indicate an underlying problem. Very high levels of gonadotrophins may suggest ovarian failure, while low levels may indicate a pituitary cause. Understanding the signs and symptoms of puberty can help girls and their families navigate this important stage of development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about exposure to Chickenpox. Her 4-year-old nephew has the virus and she was in close contact with him yesterday. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant with her first child and is unsure if she had Chickenpox as a child. The midwife advised her to avoid exposure to the virus. You urgently test her blood for varicella antibody.
VZV IgG NOT DETECTED
What is the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer: General advice about how to manage symptoms and a leaflet for if she develops Chickenpox
Correct Answer: Give varicella immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a pregnant woman who is not immune to Chickenpox has been exposed to the virus before 20 weeks of pregnancy, the recommended course of action is to administer VZIG. Ganciclovir is not typically used to treat Chickenpox, but may be used for acute herpetic keratitis or cytomegalovirus. However, it should be avoided during pregnancy unless the benefits outweigh the risks. General advice is not appropriate for pregnant women with symptoms of Chickenpox due to the risk of fetal varicella syndrome. If the pregnant woman had already developed Chickenpox, oral aciclovir may be prescribed within 24 hours of the onset of the rash.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits your clinic after being exposed to a child with Chickenpox, for the second time. She had received VZIG 29 days ago due to being non-immune. What is the appropriate course of action for her now?
Your Answer: Arrange urgent fetal ultrasound
Correct Answer: Arrange for second administration of VZIG
Explanation:In the event that a pregnant patient who is not immune is exposed to Chickenpox, it is recommended that she receive VZIG as soon as possible. VZIG can still be effective if administered within 10 days of contact, with the definition of continuous exposure being 10 days from the appearance of the rash in the initial case. If there is another exposure reported and at least 3 weeks have passed since the last dose, a second dose of VZIG may be necessary.
Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has already had her booking visit with the midwives. So far, there have been no complications related to her pregnancy. The tests conducted showed that she has a blood group of A and is Rhesus negative. What is the best course of action for managing her rhesus status?
Your Answer: Give first dose of anti-D as soon as possible
Correct Answer: Give first dose of anti-D at 28 weeks
Explanation:Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman visits her GP due to vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon amount of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate is 85 beats per minute, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the next recommended management step based on the current NICE CKS guidelines?
Your Answer: Refer the patient urgently to the early pregnancy assessment unit for an outpatient scan
Correct Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit
Explanation:Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.
Bleeding in the First Trimester: Causes and Management
Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for women, often leading them to seek medical attention. The main causes of bleeding during this time include miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. Of these causes, ectopic pregnancy is the most important to rule out as it can be life-threatening if missed.
To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal or pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman experiences bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat.
For pregnancies under six weeks gestation and no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, expectant management is appropriate. Women should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops, to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test indicates a miscarriage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage bleeding in the first trimester and ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman visits your office with chronic anxiety. She recently came across an article in the newspaper about breast cancer and is now concerned about her risk of developing it.
What is a known risk factor for breast cancer?Your Answer: Having three or more children
Correct Answer: High alcohol consumption
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Breast Cancer
Breast cancer is a major concern for women worldwide, and understanding its risk factors is crucial for prevention and early detection. According to the Royal College, having knowledge of the epidemiology of major cancers, along with risk factors and unhealthy behaviors, is essential.
One of the significant risk factors for breast cancer is high alcohol consumption, which can increase the likelihood of developing the disease. Additionally, a late menopause can also increase the risk of breast cancer. Other risk factors include having had no children, not having breastfed, and having an early puberty.
It is important to note that having one or more of these risk factors doesn’t necessarily mean that a person will develop breast cancer. However, being aware of these factors and taking steps to reduce their impact can help lower the risk of developing the disease. Regular breast cancer screenings and maintaining a healthy lifestyle can also aid in early detection and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman in her second trimester of pregnancy complains of a malodorous vaginal discharge. Upon examination, it is determined that she has bacterial vaginosis. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Clotrimazole pessary
Correct Answer: Oral metronidazole
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can lead to various pregnancy-related issues, such as preterm labor. In the past, it was advised to avoid taking oral metronidazole during the first trimester. However, current guidelines suggest that it is safe to use throughout the entire pregnancy. For more information, please refer to the Clinical Knowledge Summary provided.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
At booking, which women should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks due to their risk of gestational diabetes?
Your Answer: Presence of hypertension
Correct Answer: Family history of a first degree relative with diabetes
Explanation:Screening for Gestational Diabetes
A family history of diabetes in a first-degree relative is a risk factor for gestational diabetes. Therefore, women with this risk factor should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends screening for gestational diabetes using risk factors in a healthy population. At the booking appointment, healthcare providers should determine the following risk factors: body mass index above 30 kg/m2, previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above, previous gestational diabetes, family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Women with any of these risk factors should be offered testing for gestational diabetes using the two-hour 75 g OGTT. Diagnosis should be made using the criteria defined by the World Health Organization. Women who have had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy should be offered early self-monitoring of blood glucose or an OGTT at 16-18 weeks, and a further OGTT at 28 weeks if the results are normal. Women with any of the other risk factors for gestational diabetes should be offered an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. By identifying and managing gestational diabetes, healthcare providers can improve outcomes for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A 22-year-old female patient visits the surgery seeking advice on contraception. She has a medical history of epilepsy, which is under control with carbamazepine. The patient is a non-smoker with a body mass index of 24 kg/m². There is no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism or migraine.
Based on the UKMEC guidelines, what is the most suitable contraceptive option for this patient?Your Answer: Depo-Provera
Explanation:Implants are considered a UKMEC 2 option for contraception in patients with epilepsy. However, there are also UKMEC 1 options available.
Contraception for Women with Epilepsy
Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. The effectiveness of anti-epileptic medication can be affected by the contraceptive, and vice versa. Additionally, if a woman becomes pregnant while taking anti-epileptic medication, there is a risk of teratogenic effects on the fetus. To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends the consistent use of condoms in addition to other forms of contraception.
For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends using the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) or progestogen-only pill (POP) with a UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) rating of 3. The implant has a UKMEC rating of 2, while the Depo-Provera injection, intrauterine device (IUD), and intrauterine system (IUS) have a UKMEC rating of 1.
For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends using the COCP with a UKMEC rating of 3 or the POP, implant, Depo-Provera injection, IUD, or IUS with a UKMEC rating of 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol.
In summary, women with epilepsy should carefully consider the potential interactions between their anti-epileptic medication and their chosen contraceptive method. Using condoms consistently in addition to other forms of contraception can help reduce the risk of unintended pregnancy and potential teratogenic effects on the fetus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman has had four previous live births.
Twenty weeks into her fifth pregnancy she presents with diffuse lower abdominal pain.
On examination she is tender in the suprapubic area. She has a fundal height of 28 cm and there is a firm mass related to the uterus. She has urinary frequency but no dysuria. Only one fetal heart is heard.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Placental abruption
Correct Answer: Uterine fibroids
Explanation:Fibroids in Pregnancy
Fibroids are a common occurrence in pregnancy, with reported incidence rates varying depending on the method of diagnosis used. These growths are dependent on estrogen and may increase in size during pregnancy, leading to large for dates pregnancies. However, they can also be complicated by red degeneration, which occurs when the blood supply to the fibroid is compromised, resulting in pain and uterine tenderness. Treatment for this condition is expectant, with bed rest and analgesia being the primary methods used. Other complications that may arise include malpresentation, obstructed labor, and, in rare cases, postpartum hemorrhage. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to monitor patients with fibroids closely during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old, Afro-Caribbean woman was offered an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to screen for gestational diabetes at 24 weeks gestation. She contacts you to discuss the outcome of her OGTT exam.
What result indicates a diagnosis in accordance with NICE recommendations?Your Answer: A fasting glucose of 5.0 mmol/L and a 1-hour glucose of 7.9 mmol/L
Correct Answer: A fasting glucose of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose of 7.8 mmol/L
Explanation:To diagnose gestational diabetes, the fasting glucose level should be equal to or greater than 5.6 mmol/L or the 2-hour glucose level should be equal to or greater than 7.8 mmol/L. According to NICE guidance, either of these criteria can be used for OGTT diagnosis. Therefore, the correct diagnosis would be a fasting glucose level of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L. The other options are incorrect as they do not meet the diagnostic threshold, and NICE doesn’t consider 1-hour glucose results in their criteria. It is worth noting that SIGN guidance has different diagnostic criteria.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old lady presented 48hrs ago with a tender swelling in her left breast. She was prescribed flucloxacillin but her symptoms have failed to settle. She had been Breastfeeding her baby for three weeks and was well until four days prior to being seen when she noted a painful swelling developing.
On examination there was a tender, erythematous, warm area in the left breast. She has been fully compliant with her medication and an alternative diagnosis appears unlikely on clinical grounds.
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Continue with flucloxacillin for a further 5 days before re-assessing
Correct Answer: Breast milk should be cultured
Explanation:Treatment for Lactational Mastitis
Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. If symptoms fail to improve after 48 hours of first-line antibiotic treatment, it is important to check that the woman has taken the antibiotic correctly and consider the possibility of an alternative diagnosis such as breast cancer or a breast abscess. If an abscess is suspected, it is important to note that malaise and fever may have subsided if antibiotics have been started.
If an alternative diagnosis is unlikely, a sample of breast milk should be sent for microscopy, culture, and antibiotic sensitivity. A second-line antibiotic, co-amoxiclav 500/125 mg three times a day, should be prescribed for 10-14 days, with a review of this choice when breast milk culture results become available. It is important to seek specialist advice if the woman is allergic to penicillin.
Breastfeeding should continue from both breasts if possible, with the affected breast being expressed if feeding is too uncomfortable. In the absence of culture and sensitivity results, flucloxacillin is the usual first choice, with erythromycin for those who are penicillin allergic. Recurrences are best treated with co-amoxiclav. It is worth noting that some cases progress to an obvious abscess, which should be drained.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old mother comes to see her GP. She had given birth to her child 8 weeks ago. She is feeling upset and tearful, explaining that motherhood is not what she expected. She is experiencing poor quality of sleep, loss of appetite, and feelings of guilt. She has not mentioned any thoughts of suicide.
What screening tool should be used for this woman?Your Answer: Bishop score
Correct Answer: Edinburgh Scale
Explanation:To screen for postnatal depression, healthcare professionals can use the Edinburgh Scale questionnaire. Patients displaying symptoms of depression after giving birth should be assessed using either the Edinburgh Scale or the PHQ-9 form, according to NICE guidelines. The severity of anxiety can be measured using the GAD 7 questionnaire. The Bishop score is a scoring system used to determine if induction of labor is necessary.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after engaging in UPSI and requests emergency contraception. She had missed a few days of taking her POP before the encounter. The doctor advises her to book an appointment at the sexual health clinic for screening and after counselling, prescribes levonorgestrel.
What is the waiting period for the patient to restart her POP after taking the emergency contraception?Your Answer: 2 days
Correct Answer: She doesn't - can start immediately
Explanation:Women can begin using hormonal contraception right away after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. However, if ulipristal acetate was used instead, it may affect the effectiveness of hormonal contraception and women should use barrier methods or refrain from sex for 5 days before resuming hormonal contraception.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her rubella status. Her sister's child has recently been diagnosed with rubella, and she is currently 10 weeks pregnant.
What would be the initial course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Admit to hospital urgently
Correct Answer: Discuss immediately with the local Health Protection Unit
Explanation:In case of suspected rubella during pregnancy, it is important to consult with the local Health Protection Unit for guidance on appropriate investigations. If the mother is found to be non-immune to rubella, the MMR vaccine should be administered after delivery. However, the risk of transmission to the fetus in this scenario is uncertain. If transmission does occur, particularly later in the pregnancy, it can cause significant harm to the developing fetus. Hospitalization is not necessary at this point.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, rubella is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is as high as 90% in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, but damage is rare after 16 weeks. Congenital rubella syndrome can cause a range of features, including sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It is important to note that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is crucial to check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the postnatal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 56
Correct
-
Samantha is a 35-year-old G1P1 woman who is six months postpartum. She visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and constipation. The doctor suspects postpartum thyroiditis as the probable diagnosis.
Which investigation(s) are required to confirm this diagnosis definitively?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests alone
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management
Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. However, this phase is not usually treated with anti-thyroid drugs as the thyroid is not truly overactive. Instead, symptom control is achieved with propranolol. In the hypothyroid phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. This phase is usually treated with thyroxine.
It is important to note that thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis. Additionally, it is worth noting that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the different stages and manifestations of thyroid dysfunction to ensure proper diagnosis and management. Women who have experienced postpartum thyroiditis also have a higher risk of recurrence in future pregnancies. With proper management and monitoring, however, women with postpartum thyroiditis can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presents with excessive sweating and tremors. Upon blood testing, the following results are obtained:
- TSH < 0.05 mu/l
- T4 188 nmol/l
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Radioiodine
Correct Answer: Propylthiouracil
Explanation:CKS recommends using propylthiouracil instead of carbimazole during the first trimester of pregnancy due to the potential risk of congenital abnormalities associated with carbimazole. However, in the second trimester, it is advised to switch back to carbimazole as propylthiouracil has been linked to a slight risk of severe liver damage.
During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.
On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old patient comes in seeking contraception. She has no medical history and doesn't smoke. Today, her weight is 92 kg and her blood pressure is 118/82 mmHg.
What advice should be given in this situation?Your Answer: The effectiveness of the copper intrauterine device may be reduced
Correct Answer: The effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be reduced
Explanation:Patients weighing over 90kg may experience reduced effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch. However, the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, copper intrauterine device, etonogestrel subdermal implant, and progesterone-only injection are all highly effective methods of contraception that do not appear to be affected by body weight based on available evidence.
Contraception for Obese Patients
Obesity can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism in women who take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Therefore, it is recommended that patients with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be less effective in patients who weigh over 90kg.
It is important to note that all other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe for use in obese patients. However, patients who have undergone gastric sleeve/bypass/duodenal switch surgeries cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to its lack of efficacy.
In summary, obese patients should be cautious when using the COCP and consider alternative methods of contraception. It is important to discuss contraceptive options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on individual needs and medical history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 59
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements regarding the management of elderly, non-sensitised Rhesus negative women is inaccurate?
Your Answer: External cephalic version doesn't require prophylaxis
Explanation:Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female presents 16 weeks into her pregnancy with a vaginal discharge. Further investigation confirms infection with Chlamydia trachomatis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Treatment of C. trachomatis Infection in Pregnancy
C. trachomatis infection is becoming more common in the UK and can lead to adverse fetal outcomes such as spontaneous miscarriage, premature rupture of membranes, and intrauterine growth retardation. Therefore, treatment is advised ahead of test results if chlamydia is strongly suspected clinically. Current UK guidelines recommend three different options for pregnant patients: erythromycin, amoxicillin, and azithromycin. However, erythromycin is the most appropriate option as it is the recommended treatment by most guidelines. Doxycycline, co-trimoxazole, and metronidazole are not routinely used in the treatment of chlamydia during pregnancy. It is also important to note that pregnant patients should be tested for cure 5 weeks after completing treatment (or 6 weeks if azithromycin is used).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 61
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy. Despite progressing well, she has been experiencing persistent nausea and vomiting throughout her pregnancy. During her previous pregnancy, she tried metformin, but it worsened her symptoms and caused frequent loose stools. As a result, she is unwilling to take metformin again. She has made changes to her diet and lifestyle for the past two weeks.
Her recent blood test results are as follows:
- On diagnosis: Fasting plasma glucose of 6.7 mmol/L (normal range <5.6mmol/L)
- Two weeks later: Fasting plasma glucose of 6.8 mmol/L (normal range <5.3mmol/L)
What should be the next step in managing her condition?Your Answer: Commence insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced as the next step. This is in accordance with current NICE guidelines, which recommend offering insulin if metformin is not suitable for the patient or contraindicated.
For pregnant women with any form of diabetes, it is important to maintain plasma glucose levels below the following target values:
– Fasting: 5.3 mmol/L
– One hour after a meal: 7.8 mmol/L
– Two hours after a meal: 6.4 mmol/LCommencing anti-emetic medications is not the correct answer, as this will not address the gestational diabetes and is therefore not the most relevant option.
Similarly, commencing metformin is not appropriate in this case, as the patient has indicated that it is not acceptable to her. Insulin should be offered instead.
Offering a 2 week trial of diet and exercise changes is not the correct answer, as this patient now requires medication. This approach may be appropriate for patients with a fasting plasma glucose of between 6.0 and 6.9 mmol/L without complications, but medication should be started if blood glucose targets are not met.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 62
Correct
-
A 25-year-old patient presents to you for a contraceptive pill review. She is considering discontinuing her pill to start a family and seeks your guidance on folic acid intake. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any other medications.
What recommendations would you make regarding the dosage and duration of folic acid supplementation?Your Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy
Explanation:Folic Acid Supplements for Women
Taking folic acid supplements before conception can be beneficial for women. It is important to note that the correct dose for women without risk factors is 400mcg, not 5mg. While 400mcg tablets are available over the counter, 5mg tablets require a prescription. Women should continue taking the supplements until 12 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to start taking folic acid before becoming pregnant to reap the benefits.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman had blood tests taken at her 12-week booking appointment with the midwife. This is her first pregnancy and she has no significant medical history. The results of her full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
- Hb: 110 g/L
- Platelets: 340 10^9/L
- WBC: 7.2 10^9/L
What would be the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?Your Answer: Check serum ferritin levels
Correct Answer: Start oral iron replacement therapy
Explanation:To determine if iron supplementation is necessary, a cut-off of 110 g/L should be applied during the first trimester.
During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually at 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a woman requires oral iron therapy. For the first trimester, the cut-off is less than 110 g/L, for the second and third trimesters, it is less than 105 g/L, and for the postpartum period, it is less than 100 g/L. If a woman falls below these levels, she should receive oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. Treatment should continue for three months after iron deficiency is corrected to allow for the replenishment of iron stores.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
Which fetal anomaly screening tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program provided by the NHS for women in the UK?
Your Answer: Amniocentesis
Correct Answer: Second trimester anomaly scan
Explanation:Prenatal Screening Tests: An Overview
One of the routine tests offered to pregnant women is the second trimester anomaly scan, which screens for fetal abnormalities. However, for more specific testing, amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS) are available. Amniocentesis is typically done between weeks 15-20 of pregnancy and can detect Down’s syndrome, spina bifida, and other conditions. CVS, on the other hand, is done between weeks 10-13 and is only offered to those with a high risk of serious inherited conditions. The first trimester scan is mainly used to confirm and date the pregnancy, while the second trimester anomaly scan is used to detect fetal abnormalities. The nuchal translucency (NT) scan is also offered as part of the NHS screening program between weeks 11-13.6 of pregnancy. It’s important to note that while these tests are available, they are not routinely offered to all women and carry a small risk of miscarriage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss her options for contraception. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
What should this woman avoid in terms of contraception?Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Injectable contraceptive
Explanation:Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.
As the woman is concerned about weight gain, it is not recommended for her to use depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. This contraceptive can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.
Although some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review doesn’t support a causal relationship between the pill and weight gain. Therefore, there are no contraindications for this woman to use the combined oral contraceptive pill.
The progestogen-only pill has not been associated with weight gain, and there are no contraindications for its use in this woman.
The intra-uterine system (IUS) is not linked to weight gain in users, and there are no contraindications for its use in this woman.
The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progestogen effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it doesn’t typically cause weight gain, and there are no contraindications for its use in this situation.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic after receiving a positive pregnancy test. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and this is her second pregnancy. During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes. She has no medical conditions and no family history of diabetes or hypertension. Her BMI is 23 kg/m². As per the current NICE guidelines, what investigation should be arranged in primary care?
Your Answer: Arrange a fasting blood glucose test as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the results of the first fasting blood glucose are normal
Correct Answer: Arrange an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first OGTT is normal
Explanation:For women who have had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy, it is recommended that they undergo an OGTT as soon as possible after their initial booking, and then again at 24-28 weeks. If the first test is normal, they may also be offered early self-monitoring of blood glucose as an alternative. Women who have other risk factors for gestational diabetes, such as a BMI over 30 kg/m², a previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or more, a first degree relative with diabetes, or a minority ethnic family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes, but no previous history of gestational diabetes, should be offered an OGTT at 24-28 weeks.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a routine check-up regarding her migraines. She reports experiencing these headaches twice a week for the past few months and has been managing them with sumatriptan. During her last visit, your colleague suggested trying a prophylactic medication if her symptoms do not improve. The patient mentions that she and her partner are considering starting a family soon but are not currently using any long-term contraception.
Which of the following treatments should be avoided?Your Answer: Acupuncture
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Pregnant women are advised to avoid all pharmacological migraine prophylactics, but topiramate is particularly linked to foetal malformations. Women who take topiramate and are of reproductive age should use a reliable long-term contraception method. Although topiramate is also used to treat epilepsy, its use during pregnancy should be carefully monitored by a neurologist and an obstetrician. Propranolol and amitriptyline are licensed as migraine prophylactics, but their use during pregnancy should only be considered under the guidance of a neurologist. Acupuncture is recommended in the NICE guidelines for migraine as an alternative for women who cannot use pharmacological prophylaxis, but it is not generally available on the NHS.
Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations
Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.
Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.
Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old overweight woman comes to the surgery seeking guidance on birth control. Her BMI is 38 kg/m^2. What is the appropriate prescription for her?
Your Answer: Norethisterone (Noriday) 5mg tds
Correct Answer: Desogestrel (Cerazette) 75 mcg od (standard dose)
Explanation:Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).
When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.
Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 69
Correct
-
When starting contraception at any time in a teenage girl's menstrual cycle, a clinician should be fairly certain that she is not pregnant.
Which of the following statements would allow a health professional to be reasonably certain that a teenage girl is not currently pregnant?Your Answer: She is eight weeks postpartum and bottle feeding
Explanation:Criteria for Exclusion of Pregnancy
Health professionals can confidently exclude pregnancy in women if certain criteria are met. These include not having had intercourse since the last normal menstrual period, consistent use of reliable contraception, being within the first seven days of a normal menstrual period, being within four weeks postpartum for non-lactating women, being within the first seven days post-abortion or miscarriage, or being fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than six months postpartum.
While a pregnancy test can provide additional confirmation, it should only be carried out at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. If a woman is at risk of pregnancy due to recent unprotected intercourse, a pregnancy test should be considered within the first seven days. By following these guidelines, health professionals can accurately exclude pregnancy and provide appropriate care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her last two Microgynon 30 pills, which she has been taking for the past 4 years. She is currently 11 days into a new packet of pills and had not missed any prior to this. During intercourse with a new partner last night, the condom broke. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Perform a pregnancy test
Correct Answer: Advise condom use for next 7 days
Explanation:The FSRH has updated its guidance on missed contraceptive pills. If a woman misses two or more pills, she should continue taking the rest of the pack as usual and use an additional form of contraception for the next seven days. Condoms should be used or sexual activity avoided until seven consecutive active pills have been taken. This advice may be overly cautious in the second and third weeks, but it serves as a backup in case more pills are missed. If the woman has a new partner, it is recommended to consider STI screening after a suitable period. For more information, refer to the FSRH guidelines.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 71
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She visits surgery with worries about reduced fetal movement. You decide to refer her to the maternal health unit.
What would be the most suitable initial investigation to perform?Your Answer: Handheld Doppler for fetal heartbeat
Explanation:When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, it is important to investigate the cause as it can indicate a risk of stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. The first step in this investigation should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the presence of a fetal heartbeat.
If a fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler and the pregnancy is over 28 weeks gestation, a CTG should be used to monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 20 minutes to assess for any fetal compromise.
The guidelines recommend assessing fetal movements based on the subjective perception of the mother. If a mother reports reduced fetal movements, there is no need for further counting of fetal movements.
If no fetal heartbeat is detected with the handheld Doppler, an immediate ultrasound should be offered. If there is still concern about reduced fetal movements despite a normal CTG, an urgent ultrasound can be used to assess abdominal circumference or estimated fetal weight and amniotic fluid volume measurement, rather than ultrasound with Doppler.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a cause for concern as they can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that there may also be a link between reduced fetal movements and placental insufficiency. Fetal movements usually start between 18-20 weeks gestation and increase until 32 weeks gestation, after which the frequency of movement tends to plateau. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner, from 16-18 weeks gestation. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy.
There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but the RCOG considers less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) an indication for further assessment. Reduced fetal movements are a fairly common presentation, affecting up to 15% of pregnancies. Risk factors for reduced fetal movements include posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size.
Investigations for reduced fetal movements are dependent on gestation at onset. If past 28 weeks gestation, handheld Doppler should be used to confirm fetal heartbeat. If no fetal heartbeat is detectable, immediate ultrasound should be offered. If fetal heartbeat is present, CTG should be used for at least 20 minutes to monitor fetal heart rate which can assist in excluding fetal compromise. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used. If between 24 and 28 weeks gestation, a handheld Doppler should be used to confirm the presence of fetal heartbeat. If below 24 weeks gestation, and fetal movements have previously been felt, a handheld Doppler should be used. If fetal movements have not yet been felt by 24 weeks, onward referral should be made to a maternal fetal medicine unit.
While reduced fetal movements can be a cause for concern, in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Therefore, it is important for expectant mothers to be aware of their baby’s movements and seek medical attention if they notice a decrease in fetal movements.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is worried about her contraception. She is currently taking rigevidon but has forgotten to take the last two pills due to misplacing her medication. Her last pill-free break started 20 days ago, and she had unprotected sex 2 days ago. What is the best course of action to manage her risk of pregnancy?
Your Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions
Correct Answer: Continue as normal with 7 days of additional precautions and omit the pill-free interval
Explanation:If two pills are missed during the third week of taking COCP, the patient should finish the current pack and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. This will require an additional 7 days of using additional precautions. Emergency contraception is not necessary in this situation unless unprotected intercourse occurred during the first week of taking the pill with the omission of two pills or during the pill-free week. Simply restarting the pill without omitting the pill-free interval or taking additional precautions is not appropriate as it will not provide adequate protection after the episode of unprotected intercourse.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
You are assessing a 32-year-old woman who has recently given birth. She has a lengthy medical history of rheumatoid arthritis but did not take any disease-modifying medications during pregnancy as her symptoms were well managed. Regrettably, she has experienced a flare-up of her symptoms after giving birth. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- CRP 35 mg/L
Her infant is currently 3 weeks old, and she is currently breastfeeding. She is curious if she can resume taking methotrexate. What is the current guidance provided in the British National Formulary (BNF)?Your Answer: Methotrexate can be started once the infant in > 4 weeks old
Correct Answer: Methotrexate is contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers
Explanation:Breastfeeding is not recommended while taking Methotrexate.
Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider
Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.
Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday morning after having unprotected sex on Saturday. She is worried about the possibility of an unintended pregnancy and wants to know the most effective method to prevent it. Her last menstrual cycle was two weeks ago.
What would be the best course of action?Your Answer: Prescribe ulipristal acetate emergency contraception
Correct Answer: Arrange for copper coil (IUD) insertion
Explanation:For this patient who has had unprotected intercourse within the last 72 hours and is seeking the most effective form of emergency contraception, the recommended course of action is to arrange for a copper coil (IUD) insertion. The copper coil is highly effective in preventing pregnancy for up to five days (120 hours) after intercourse, whether or not ovulation has occurred, by preventing fertilization or implantation. If there are concerns about sexually transmitted infections, antibiotics can be given at the same time. It is important to note that the patient has not missed the window for emergency contraception, as both the copper coil and ulipristal acetate are licensed for use up to five days after intercourse, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception can be taken up to 72 hours after intercourse. However, given that the patient is presenting 72 hours after intercourse and may have already ovulated, levonorgestrel emergency contraception or ulipristal acetate may not be as effective as the copper coil and therefore the copper coil is the most appropriate choice.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions.
What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Refer to the midwife
Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine
Explanation:Promethazine is the recommended medication for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as metoclopramide should not be used for more than 5 days due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects. Therefore, prescribing promethazine is the correct option for this patient who is requesting an antiemetic. Advising a trial of ginger and acupressure bands is not appropriate as there is little evidence to support their effectiveness. Additionally, advising the patient to take time off work is not necessary as she has expressed a desire to continue working.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 76
Correct
-
What factors are associated with the age of menopause onset in women?
Your Answer: Age at menarche
Explanation:Premature Menopause: Causes and Ethnic Differences
Studies have not found a correlation between the age at which a woman experiences menarche and the age at which she enters menopause. However, premature menopause may be linked to various factors such as smoking, living at high altitudes, and poor nutritional status. Additionally, there may be a genetic predisposition to early menopause. While there is no evidence of ethnic differences in the age of menopause, certain ethnic groups may be more susceptible to specific causes of premature menopause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A breastfeeding mother brings in her three-month-old infant who has been experiencing some burning pain in both nipples during feeds and for up to an hour after. She also reports some itching and sensitivity in her nipples. The baby is growing well and there are no other concerns. During examination, the mother's breasts and nipples appear normal, but the infant has white patches on their tongue. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Oral fluconazole for mother and baby
Correct Answer: Miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby
Explanation:When treating nipple candidiasis during breastfeeding, it is recommended to use miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby. This is likely to be nipple thrush, and it’s important to treat both mother and baby simultaneously to prevent re-infection, even if the baby shows no signs of infection. It’s worth noting that while miconazole gel can also be used for babies over 4 months, it’s not licensed for those under 4 months due to concerns about choking on the gel. Parents should be carefully informed about the risks and how to administer it safely if it’s prescribed.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
A woman in her third trimester is seeking guidance on air travel. What is the maximum time during her pregnancy that she can fly, assuming there are no complications and the estimated delivery date remains unchanged?
Your Answer: 28 weeks
Correct Answer: 36 weeks
Explanation:Pregnant women with a singleton pregnancy are deemed fit to fly up to 36 weeks.
The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 79
Correct
-
You are seeing a 65-year-old lady with oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer.
She has been prescribed exemestane 25 mg daily by her oncologist and has been taking this for four months.
Which of the following is the most common side effect that this patient may experience?Your Answer: Gastrointestinal discomfort
Explanation:BNF and AKT: Common Side Effects of Medications
The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used as a reference for setting questions in the AKT exam. One common topic is the side effects of medications. The BNF categorizes side effects based on their frequency, ranging from very common to very rare. Gastrointestinal discomfort and dyspepsia are the most common side effects, while drowsiness and peripheral oedema are less common. Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia are considered common side effects, but sarcopenia is not listed. It is important for candidates to be familiar with the BNF and the frequency of side effects to perform well in the AKT exam.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old pregnant woman attended her booking appointment with the midwife last week. She has no other medical conditions. This is her first pregnancy and she is 10-weeks pregnant.
During the booking appointment, the midwife sent a mid-stream urine sample to screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria. The patient denied experiencing any urinary symptoms. The culture results showed that she is positive for Escherichia Coli, which is sensitive to nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim. A repeat sample confirmed the findings.
Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Treat with a 3 day course of nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:It is important to screen pregnant women for bacteriuria as untreated cases may lead to acute pyelonephritis. Therefore, taking no action based on urine results is inappropriate. Trimethoprim is not recommended in the first trimester due to its teratogenic risk, so nitrofurantoin is a better option. Local prescribing guidelines should always be followed. If group B streptococcal bacteriuria is detected, antenatal services must be informed as prophylactic intrapartum antibiotics will be necessary.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
Sophie, who is interested in starting the copper coil for contraception, approaches you. She is on day 12 of her menstrual cycle and is currently relying on condoms for protection. Sophie assures you that there is no possibility of her being pregnant. She wants to know if she needs to use additional protection if she gets the copper coil inserted today, and if so, for how long?
Your Answer: She should use extra protection for 7 days
Correct Answer: No extra protection needed
Explanation:As the copper coil provides immediate effectiveness, there is no need for additional protection.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman with a history of blood clots who takes warfarin has just missed a period and has a positive pregnancy test. She is concerned about the potential harm to the developing fetus.
Which fetal anomaly is linked to the administration of this medication while pregnant?Your Answer: Reduced liquor
Correct Answer: Nasal hypoplasia
Explanation:The Risks of Warfarin Use During Pregnancy
Warfarin, a commonly used anticoagulant, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its ability to cross the placental barrier and cause bleeding in the fetus. Its use during the first trimester, particularly between the sixth and ninth weeks, can lead to skeletal abnormalities such as nasal hypoplasia, limb abnormalities, and calcification of the vertebral column, femur, and heel bone. Other potential complications include low birthweight, developmental disabilities, and an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, neonatal death, and preterm birth. However, unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin can be used as safer alternatives. While warfarin is not known to cause neural tube defects or cleft lip and palate, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with its use during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anti-epileptic medications poses the highest risk of neurodevelopmental delay when taken by expectant mothers?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:The use of sodium valproate in pregnant women poses a considerable threat of causing neurodevelopmental delay.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching. She has a past medical history of eczema and uses emollients regularly, but to no avail. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. During the physical examination, there are signs of excoriation on her hands, but no apparent visible dermatitis. What is the most crucial test to request?
Your Answer: Skin biopsy
Correct Answer: Liver function tests
Explanation:Pruritus is a common occurrence during pregnancy, affecting up to 25% of women. It can be caused by various factors such as eczema, polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, or changes in circulation due to skin stretching. However, if pruritus is present without a rash, it may indicate obstetric cholestasis, a serious condition that can lead to complications like prematurity, meconium passage, postpartum hemorrhage, and even stillbirth. Therefore, liver function tests and bile acid tests are crucial in diagnosing this condition. Additionally, pruritus can also be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia, so a full blood count should also be considered.
Jaundice During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.
Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman is seeking advice on which coil to use for contraception. She is concerned about the possibility of experiencing heavier or more painful periods. Additionally, she has a history of adult acne and noticed that her skin worsened while taking the progesterone-only pill. She wants to minimize the risk of this happening again by using a coil with the lowest amount of serum levonorgestrel (LNG). What coil would be the best option for her?
Your Answer: T-Safe 380A® quickload (copper coil)
Correct Answer: Jaydess® coil
Explanation:Compared to the Mirena IUS, the Jaydess IUS has lower release rates and serum levels of levonorgestrel. In the UK, there are various copper coils available with either banded copper arms or copper in the stem only, licensed for either 5 or 10 years. The insertion tube sizes vary, with the Nova-T 380 being the smallest at 3.6mm and the Mirena and Jaydess at 4.4mm and 3.8mm, respectively. The Jaydess has the lowest levels of levonorgestrel at 13.5mg, while the Kyleena has 19.5mg and the Mirena has 52mg. The Jaydess is licensed for 3 years, while the Mirena and Kyleena are licensed for 5 years.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a recognized benefit of breastfeeding for infants under six months of age?
Your Answer: Reduced incidence of type 1 diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Improved infant weight gain
Explanation:Breastfeeding is not acknowledged to result in enhanced weight gain.
Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding
Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.
Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.
One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.
In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old transgender woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. He is in a committed relationship with a male partner and engages in vaginal intercourse. He is currently receiving testosterone therapy and has not undergone any surgical procedures. He has no history of cardiac issues, breast cancer, blood clots, or stroke, and doesn't suffer from migraines. There is no significant family medical history. His BMI is 22 kg/m2, and his blood pressure is 134/75 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient regarding contraception?Your Answer: He is not at risk of pregnancy as he is taking testosterone therapy
Correct Answer: He should not be offered contraception containing oestrogen
Explanation:Patients who were assigned female at birth and are undergoing testosterone therapy should avoid using contraceptives that contain oestrogen as it can counteract the effects of the therapy. For transgender males, oestrogen-based contraception is also not recommended as it can interfere with testosterone. Instead, progesterone-only methods are a suitable alternative that do not affect testosterone therapy. While barrier methods are an option, it is important to consider other contraceptive options such as the copper coil or progesterone-only methods to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy, as testosterone therapy can be harmful to a developing fetus. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices like the copper coil do not interact with hormonal regimens, but they may increase menstrual bleeding, which may not be desirable for some patients. It is important to note that testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and appropriate contraception is necessary to prevent unwanted pregnancy.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be acceptable?
Your Answer: 1a: Old age. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (93-year-old patient)
Correct Answer: 1a: Cardiac arrest. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Cardiac arrest cannot be listed as the sole cause of death on a death certificate as it is a method of dying and requires further clarification.
While the use of old age is discouraged, it may be listed on a death certificate for patients over the age of 80 if specific criteria are met (refer to the provided link).
The only acceptable abbreviations for HIV and AIDS should be used on a death certificate.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge which has deteriorated over the past week. She is in a steady relationship and uses the oral contraceptive pill. Her partner is asymptomatic.
She has a temperature of 37.5°C. Vaginal examination reveals tenderness with an inflamed cervix and a purulent discharge, culture of which reveals Gram negative diplococci.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trichomoniasis
Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Gonorrhea: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococci Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can affect both males and females, and they may be asymptomatic or have very few symptoms that can go unnoticed. However, some patients may experience cervicitis, a purulent discharge, and fever.
Due to problems with resistance, current treatment guidelines recommend a combination of IM ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Oral Cefixime may be offered if the injection is refused. It is important to treat gonorrhea promptly to prevent complications such as sepsis, arthritis, pharyngitis, and ophthalmia.
In conclusion, gonorrhea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can have serious consequences if left untreated. It is important to practice safe sex and get tested regularly to prevent the spread of the infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing irregular periods for the past year and has been struggling with bothersome hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness for over 6 months. These symptoms are impacting her daily life and work. She has a history of migraines, asthma, and recently had a suspicious lesion removed from her right arm. She is currently taking inhaled corticosteroids, topiramate, and uses salbutamol and paracetamol as needed. Additionally, she has a mirena coil inserted.
Is hormone replacement therapy (HRT) a suitable option for this patient? What advice should be given regarding HRT?Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy should be avoided due to an increased risk of breast cancer
Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy may make her migraines worse
Explanation:Although HRT is generally considered safe for patients with migraines (with or without aura), it is important to note that in some cases, it may actually worsen migraines. While HRT can improve vasomotor symptoms, it also increases the risk of stroke and breast cancer. However, this doesn’t necessarily mean that HRT should be avoided altogether. Patients should be fully informed of the risks and benefits so that they can make an informed decision. In some cases, a Mirena coil may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, but an estrogen component is still necessary for controlling vasomotor symptoms. Ultimately, while HRT can be prescribed for patients with a history of migraines, it is important to advise them of the potential for worsening migraines.
Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors
Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.
When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.
In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)