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  • Question 1 - A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for...

    Correct

    • A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for 2 days, vomited once, and the father reports foul-smelling urine. The boy is happily playing with toys in your office.

      A recent urine sample reveals: negative leukocytes, positive nitrites, negative protein, and negative blood.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Start antibiotics and send a sample for culture

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, dipstick testing for leukocyte esterase and nitrite is just as effective as microscopy and culture for diagnosing UTIs in children over the age of 3. If both leukocytes and nitrites are positive, the child should be treated for a UTI with antibiotics. If the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or has had a UTI in the past, a urine sample should be sent for culture. If nitrites are positive but leukocytes are negative, antibiotics should be started and a urine sample should be sent for culture. If leukocytes are positive but nitrites are negative, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. It is important to only prescribe antibiotics if there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI, such as dysuria. If the dipstick is negative, another cause for the symptoms should be investigated and urine should not be sent for culture.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using illicit opioids but is struggling to achieve complete abstinence. He has recently been prescribed maintenance methadone by his local drug and alcohol withdrawal service.
      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a week-long methadone regime, reducing the dosage on a daily basis

      Correct Answer: Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Prescribing Methadone for Opioid Addiction Treatment

      Methadone is a commonly prescribed medication for opioid addiction treatment. However, prescribing and dispensing methadone requires careful consideration and adherence to best practices. Here are some guidelines for prescribing methadone for opioid addiction treatment:

      1. Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy.
      2. Prescribe a week-long methadone regime, reducing the dosage on a daily basis.
      3. Ask the patient whether they would prefer an oral or injectable form of methadone.
      4. Give the patient a prescription which they can take to a pharmacy of their choice in order to collect their methadone.
      5. Nominate a representative who can collect the patient’s methadone on their behalf.

      It is important to note that prescribing and dispensing methadone should be done in consultation with the patient and their healthcare team. By following these best practices, patients can receive safe and effective treatment for opioid addiction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a five year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI in this population?

      Your Answer: 50

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      When evaluating the efficacy of a treatment, it’s important to look beyond statistical significance and consider the practical impact on patients. The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a statistical figure that provides valuable information about the effectiveness of a treatment. For example, if 1000 patients are treated with a new statin for five years and 50 MIs are prevented, the NNT to prevent one MI is 20 (1000/50). This means that by treating just 20 patients, one MI can be prevented over a five-year period.

      The NNT can also be used to calculate cost economic data by factoring in the cost of the drug against the costs of treating and rehabilitating a patient with an MI. By understanding the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the most effective and cost-efficient treatments for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left leg. She has started taking warfarin after receiving low-molecular weight heparin for five days. Her medical history includes depression, osteoporosis, breast cancer, and type 2 diabetes. Which medication she is currently taking is most likely to have contributed to her increased risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Prior to initiating tamoxifen treatment, women should be informed about the elevated risk of VTE, which is one of the most significant side effects of the medication. Additionally, tamoxifen has been linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer.

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a two-day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a two-day history of a red, irritated right eye. His father has been wiping away stringy discharge from the eye and the eye has been stuck together in the mornings. He has no light sensitivity. He has no significant past medical history.

      During examination, pupils are equal and reactive to light. The right eye has injected bulbar and tarsal conjunctiva and follicles are present. A tender pre-auricular lymph node is palpable.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Viral conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Red Eye

      Viral conjunctivitis is a common cause of red eye, characterized by inflamed conjunctiva and itchiness. It is often caused by adenovirus and can follow an upper respiratory tract infection. Anterior uveitis or iritis, on the other hand, presents with unilateral inflamed conjunctiva, pain, and light sensitivity. It can be associated with systemic inflammatory disease and a past medical history of inflammatory arthropathy. Bacterial conjunctivitis, on the other hand, results in purulent discharge with no pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. Episcleritis is usually unilateral and causes segmental injection with no discharge and minimal discomfort. Lastly, scleritis is an inflammatory disease that causes severe ocular pain and is often associated with rheumatoid arthritis or vasculitis. It causes redness of the sclera and conjunctiva. Understanding these different types of red eye can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting blood glucose levels range from 7-10, and his HbA1c result is 64 mmol/mol (normal range 20-42) despite following a diabetic diet and exercising regularly. He has a body mass index of 30. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for suboptimal Glucose Control in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes is at risk of micro- and macrovascular complications due to suboptimal glucose control, as evidenced by an HbA1c of greater than 48 mmol/mol despite lifestyle intervention. The initial treatment of choice is metformin, which aims to achieve a HbA1c of less than 48 mmol/mol. Metformin reduces insulin resistance and cardiovascular risk, as demonstrated in the UKPDS study.

      If metformin is inappropriate, DPPIV inhibitors such as sitagliptin may be considered. These medications achieve glycaemic control without significant weight gain and do not promote hypoglycaemia. Pioglitazone or an SU may also be used as alternative treatment options where metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. It is important to reach target HbA1c levels to reduce the risk of complications associated with type 2 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with concerns about a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with concerns about a lump in her throat that she has been feeling for the past six months. She reports feeling the lump even when she is not swallowing. Upon examination, her oropharynx, ears, nose, and neck appear normal. She is also a non-smoker.
      What would be a significant cause for worry in a patient with these symptoms who is 50 years old?

      Your Answer: It is worse between meals

      Correct Answer: Left-sided ear pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Unilateral Ear Pain and Globus Sensation

      Unilateral ear pain in adults with normal otoscopy findings may indicate cancer of the base of the tongue, especially if accompanied by persistent hoarseness, dysphagia, weight loss, or a swelling in the neck. Risk factors for head and neck cancers include smoking and alcohol consumption. However, if the pain is worse between meals and eating or drinking alleviates the symptoms, it is more likely to be globus sensation, which is the feeling of a lump in the throat that doesn’t affect swallowing function. If the symptom persists for six months without affecting swallowing, it is less likely to be a worrying cause such as laryngeal or esophageal cancer. Intermittent symptoms are also less likely to indicate a malignant cause, as they are typical for globus and often exacerbated by stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner as he is febrile,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner as he is febrile, restless and has excessive drooling from the mouth. Drinking and eating are painful and his breath smells foul. His gums are swollen and red and he has ulcers on the tongue, throat, palate and insides of the cheeks and a few vesicles and erosions on the lips.
      Which of the following is the most likely infection?

      Your Answer: Coxsackievirus A

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Herpes Simplex Virus and Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Comparison

      Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that can cause cold sores on the face (type 1) or genital infections (type 2). Primary type 1 infection is usually mild or subclinical, but can cause herpetic gingivostomatitis, which is the most common clinical manifestation of the infection. After the initial infection, the virus remains latent in nerve cell ganglia and can be reactivated by various stimuli, resulting in a recurrence of symptoms and shedding of the virus.

      In contrast, hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the Coxsackie A virus and is usually a minor illness with mouth ulcers and vesicles on the hands and feet. While the mouth may be sore, it is not typically as severe as a herpes simplex infection.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these two viral infections can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      178.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are asked to complete a DS1500 form for a patient with advanced...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to complete a DS1500 form for a patient with advanced cancer who is in their 80s.
      Which of the following applies to completion of the DS1500 form?

      Your Answer: You can complete a DS1500 form for terminally ill patients with 12 months or less to live

      Correct Answer: MacMillan nurses, nurse specialists and practice nurses can complete the DS1500

      Explanation:

      DS1500 Form for Terminally Ill Patients

      A DS1500 form can be requested by a patient or their representative if the patient is deemed to be terminally ill. This form is specifically designed for patients who have six months or less to live, allowing them to apply for DWP benefits under special rules. In some cases, a representative may request the form if the patient is unaware of their diagnosis and/or prognosis.

      The completed DS1500 can either be given to the patient or their representative or can be sent directly to the DWP. MacMillan nurses, nurse specialists, and practice nurses can complete the form, but only GPs and GMC registered consultants may claim a fee. The fee for completing the DS1500 can be claimed by a GP or GMC registered consultant using the DS1500 fee form.

      Overall, the DS1500 form is an important tool for terminally ill patients and their families to access the necessary benefits and support during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her feet, accompanied by several flat brown lesions. These are scattered on a background of erythema and scaling.
      What would be the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Betamethasone ointment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Palmoplantar Pustulosis

      Palmoplantar pustulosis is a skin condition that is linked to psoriasis and is more common in women over 50. It is characterized by erythematous skin with yellow pustules that settle to form brown macules on the palms and soles of the hands and feet. Here are some treatment options for this condition:

      Betamethasone Ointment: This is a potent topical steroid that is effective in treating palmoplantar pustulosis.

      Calcipotriol + Betamethasone: While the steroid component would be beneficial, calcipotriol is not used to treat palmoplantar pustulosis, which is where the management differs from plaque psoriasis.

      Barrier Cream: A barrier cream is used to create a barrier between the skin and a potential irritant, so is useful in conditions such as contact dermatitis. Palmoplantar pustulosis is not caused by an irritant, so this would not be helpful.

      Flucloxacillin Capsules: There is no indication that this is a bacterial infection, so there would be no role for antibiotics in this patient’s management.

      Terbinafine Cream: A fungal infection would not cause pustules, so there is no indication for using an antifungal treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A mother brings her 3-year old daughter, Lily into your clinic with concerns...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 3-year old daughter, Lily into your clinic with concerns about vaccinations. Lily has recently undergone a liver transplant and is on immunosuppressants. The mother is worried that some vaccinations may not be safe for her daughter. Which of the following vaccinations can be administered in this situation?

      Your Answer: Pertussis vaccine

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines, such as those for seasonal nasal flu, oral polio, mumps, and measles, are commonly used. The pertussis vaccine, on the other hand, is an inactivated whole-cell vaccine that is safe for immunocompromised individuals. Immunization schedules for both children and adults are undergoing rapid changes, and some candidates may not be aware of these changes or recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated to clinical staff, it is important for GPs to be aware of contraindications and schedules in order to advise patients and parents. Auditing specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunization in cases where recommendations have changed.

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
      What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      69.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man who has undergone routine blood tests to monitor his Antihypertensive medication.

      The blood results are as follows:

      Na+ 126 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      eGFR 85 ml/min/1.73m2

      Upon calling the patient, he reports no symptoms and confirms that he is taking his regular lisinopril and amlodipine.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and repeat urea and electrolytes in 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital

      Explanation:

      Patients who have acute severe hyponatraemia, which is defined as having a serum sodium concentration of less than 125 mmol/L, must be urgently hospitalized, as per the current NICE CKS guidelines. Therefore, referring the patient to a routine endocrinology clinic is not appropriate, as immediate action is necessary. Although diuretics like bendroflumethiazide can cause low sodium, it would be inappropriate to wait for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium levels. Similarly, ramipril can also cause low sodium, but waiting for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium level would be inappropriate, and urgent measures must be taken. Waiting for 2 weeks for repeat blood tests is not appropriate, and the patient should be admitted to the hospital due to the low level of serum sodium.

      Understanding Hyponatraemia: Causes and Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a condition that can be caused by either an excess of water or a depletion of sodium in the body. However, it is important to note that there are also cases of pseudohyponatraemia, which can be caused by factors such as hyperlipidaemia or taking blood from a drip arm. To diagnose hyponatraemia, doctors often look at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity.

      If the urinary sodium level is above 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to renal loss or the use of diuretics such as thiazides or loop diuretics. Other possible causes include Addison’s disease or the diuretic stage of renal failure. On the other hand, if the patient is euvolaemic, it may be due to conditions such as SIADH (urine osmolality > 500 mmol/kg) or hypothyroidism.

      If the urinary sodium level is below 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to extra-renal loss caused by conditions such as diarrhoea, vomiting, sweating, burns, or adenoma of rectum. Alternatively, it may be due to water excess, which can cause the patient to be hypervolaemic and oedematous. This can be caused by conditions such as secondary hyperaldosteronism, nephrotic syndrome, IV dextrose, or psychogenic polydipsia.

      In summary, hyponatraemia can be caused by a variety of factors, and it is important to diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. By looking at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity, doctors can determine the cause of hyponatraemia and provide the necessary interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old patient is newly registered at a General Practice Surgery. The General...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient is newly registered at a General Practice Surgery. The General Practitioner notes that the patient has previously been under the care of a Community Team but has not had a health check for three years. Her father states that she had been experiencing some vomiting for one month, but this is currently being managed symptomatically with cyclizine, as a change in location causes her distress and disorientation.
      Which of the following is the best management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to a Community Learning Disability Team as an alternative to mainstream health services

      Correct Answer: Encourage annual health checks to identify serious conditions

      Explanation:

      Improving Healthcare for People with Learning Disabilities

      People with learning disabilities often face barriers when accessing mainstream healthcare services. However, introducing health checks specifically for this group has led to the identification of previously undetected health conditions, including serious and life-threatening ones such as cancer, heart disease, and dementia. It is important to assess both physical and mental health, and medication should only be given with the patient’s consent or following a best interest decision. Medication should not be used as the sole treatment for challenging behavior without a proper assessment and clear reason for its use. Doctors should provide the same level of care to all patients, without making assumptions about quality of life or the appropriateness of medical and social care interventions. However, patients with learning disabilities may be exempt from national screening programs due to low uptake. Referral to a Community Learning Disability Team can also facilitate access to mainstream services and provide specialist assessment and intervention for issues such as challenging behavior and mental health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. When looking straight...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is turned upward and outward. When attempting to look to the left, the double vision becomes more severe.

      What is the probable underlying issue?

      Your Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - When starting contraception at any time in a teenage girl's menstrual cycle, a...

    Incorrect

    • When starting contraception at any time in a teenage girl's menstrual cycle, a clinician should be fairly certain that she is not pregnant.

      Which of the following statements would allow a health professional to be reasonably certain that a teenage girl is not currently pregnant?

      Your Answer: She has a negative pregnancy test after unprotected sexual intercourse five days ago

      Correct Answer: She is eight weeks postpartum and bottle feeding

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Exclusion of Pregnancy

      Health professionals can confidently exclude pregnancy in women if certain criteria are met. These include not having had intercourse since the last normal menstrual period, consistent use of reliable contraception, being within the first seven days of a normal menstrual period, being within four weeks postpartum for non-lactating women, being within the first seven days post-abortion or miscarriage, or being fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than six months postpartum.

      While a pregnancy test can provide additional confirmation, it should only be carried out at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. If a woman is at risk of pregnancy due to recent unprotected intercourse, a pregnancy test should be considered within the first seven days. By following these guidelines, health professionals can accurately exclude pregnancy and provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish piling up inside his flat and sometimes he isn't seen for days. His family tell you that over the last year he has become very odd and isolated. On examination, he is withdrawn and quiet and you find it difficult to understand his answers as he frequently wanders off the point, as if he is answering a different question. Although spontaneous movements are reduced, there are no neurological signs and he is not on any medication, prescribed or illicit. His mother and two older brothers have both had episodes of major depression.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a possible favourable outcome from this episode.

      Your Answer: Family history of depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizophrenia: Symptoms, Predictors of Outcome, and Prevalence

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, and negative symptoms such as asocial behavior, reduced spontaneous movements, and disorganized speech. In this case, the individual exhibits mainly negative symptomatology, indicating a poor prognosis.

      Several factors can predict the outcome of schizophrenia. Young age, insidious onset, poor premorbid social function, negative symptomatology, neurological signs, no recognized precipitating factor, and family history of schizophrenia are all associated with a poor outcome. On the other hand, older age, acute onset, recognizable precipitant, good premorbid social function, being married, prominent mood disorder, family history of mood disorder, and positive symptomatology are associated with a better outcome.

      The overall prevalence of schizophrenia is 1% in all populations, and only 10-20% of patients will make a full recovery from one episode. It is important to understand the symptoms, predictors of outcome, and prevalence of schizophrenia to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chloasma

      Correct Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      Chloasma: A Common Skin Condition in Women

      Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.

      It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.

      Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago, and is now troubled by post herpetic neuralgia. He also had an inferior myocardial infarction eight weeks ago.

      His primary symptom at the moment is post herpetic neuralgia. Which of the following drugs would be contra-indicated in this man?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Contra-indication of Amitriptyline in Recent Myocardial Infarction

      Explanation: Patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction should avoid taking Amitriptyline as a treatment. This medication is not recommended for individuals who have suffered a heart attack in the past. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication, especially if you have a history of heart disease. It is crucial to follow the doctor’s advice and avoid any medication that may cause harm to your health. Remember, prevention is always better than cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of ‘puffiness’ around her eyes....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of ‘puffiness’ around her eyes. She seems well in herself and her mother is concerned that she may have hay fever. On examination, she has some pitting oedema around her ankles where her socks have been, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing of her urine reveals protein 4+ and blood 1+.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. Children typically present with periorbital oedema, while adults usually present with ankle oedema. Proteinuria can be measured using an early-morning urinary protein: creatinine ratio, with a ratio greater than 300-350 mg/mmol being suggestive. Microscopic haematuria may also be present. Urgent referral is necessary.

      Idiopathic primary nephrotic syndrome, which includes minimal-change glomerular disease or focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, accounts for over 75% of cases in children. Kidney biopsy is not always necessary, and treatment usually begins with a trial of corticosteroids. Approximately 90% of children with minimal-change disease achieve remission after the initial course of treatment, while relapses are common and may continue into adulthood.

      Angioedema, haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, urinary tract infection, and Wilms’ tumour are not associated with nephrotic syndrome. Angioedema is characterized by abrupt and transient swelling of deep dermis, subcutaneous, or submucosal tissue due to vascular leakage, while haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is associated with progressive renal failure, haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopaenia. Urinary tract infection typically presents with specific symptoms such as frequency, dysuria, and pain, while Wilms’ tumour presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - What is the correct statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

      Your Answer: OCD doesn't usually affect children

      Correct Answer: OCD is commonly associated with anxiety and depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding OCD: Symptoms, Comorbidities, and Treatment Options

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and the compulsion to perform certain actions in response. Individuals with OCD may also be diagnosed with other conditions such as depression, anxiety disorders, eating disorders, Tourette syndrome, and personality disorders. OCD can also lead to panic attacks and suicidal tendencies, making it a serious concern. While sufferers recognize their obsessions and compulsions as irrational, they may still experience distress. OCD typically begins in early adulthood, but childhood onset is also common. The most effective treatment involves gradual exposure to environmental cues and response prevention, often combined with antidepressant therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple...

    Correct

    • When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 23 - A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old unemployed man has been seeing you for the past six months as a newly registered patient with depression. He lives alone without support.

      He has suffered from depression since he was a young man, taking citalopram 20 mg for the past five months but has frequently defaulted review appointments with you. He last saw a colleague of yours as an emergency appointment eight weeks ago but did not attend follow up with you one week later as advised.

      On this occasion, you have been asked to visit by a neighbour who fears that he may have died, because his curtains have been drawn for seven days and when she last saw him, through his lounge window, he looked 'absolutely awful and has lost a lot of weight'.

      You phone his house, but there is no reply. You decide to visit, fearing the worst, but he finally answers the door when you shout your name through his letterbox.

      On examination he appears to have lost a significant amount of weight and is unshaven. He says that he has not slept or eaten for four days and feels very depressed. He says that he doesn't feel suicidal and that he is still taking the antidepressants, but you notice that there is an unopened box of tablets on his kitchen table. His house is very unkempt.

      What is the best way of managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase the citalopram to 40 mg daily

      Correct Answer: Tail off citalopram and switch to dosulepin

      Explanation:

      Consider Inpatient Treatment for High-Risk Patients

      You should consider inpatient treatment for individuals who are at a significant risk of suicide, self-harm, or self-neglect. According to the NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90), inpatient treatment should be considered for those who are at high risk.

      In this case, the patient is showing signs of self-neglect and has little social support. He has missed appointments and may not be taking his medication as prescribed. These factors increase the risk of suicide, although this has not been explicitly stated in the patient’s history.

      Changing the patient’s medication may not be appropriate since there is no guarantee that he will comply. Asking a neighbor to check on him may provide some support, but it may not be enough.

      Given the available information, the most appropriate course of action would be to consider emergency admission by contacting the mental health team. This will ensure that the patient receives the necessary care and support to manage his risk of self-harm or suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      384.5
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  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man presents to neurology clinic with complaints of arm pain, stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to neurology clinic with complaints of arm pain, stiffness, and balance issues. After undergoing tests, he is diagnosed with degenerative cervical myelopathy. However, he misses his next appointment due to hospitalization for acute coronary syndrome. Two months later, he visits his GP and reports ongoing neurological symptoms. What is the most crucial next step in his treatment?

      Your Answer: Commence neuropathic analgesia

      Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery or neurosurgery

      Explanation:

      Patients with cervical myelopathy should be managed by specialist spinal services, such as neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery. The main treatment for this condition is decompressive surgery, which is necessary to prevent further deterioration in cases of progressive or severe disease. Close observation may be an option for mild and stable disease, but surgery is required to stop disease progression.

      It is important to note that pre-operative physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services, as manipulation can cause more spinal cord damage. The timing of surgery is crucial, as any existing spinal cord damage can be permanent. Treatment within 6 months offers the best chance of making a full recovery. Unfortunately, many patients wait more than 2 years for a diagnosis, highlighting the need for improved awareness and timely referral.

      While neuropathic analgesia can provide symptomatic relief, it will not prevent further cord damage. Physiotherapy should not replace surgical opinion and should only be initiated by specialist services to avoid causing more spinal cord damage.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      26
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  • Question 25 - You are tasked with completing a death certificate for an 85-year-old patient under...

    Incorrect

    • You are tasked with completing a death certificate for an 85-year-old patient under your care. She passed away yesterday due to pneumonia at home, following a joint decision made by her family and medical team not to admit her to the hospital for further treatment. The patient had a history of dementia and osteoporosis, and you had last assessed her two days prior.

      The patient had recently undergone surgery for a fractured neck of femur, which she sustained after tripping on a step at home. Although her surgery had been successful and she had been recovering well, she began experiencing respiratory symptoms shortly after being discharged from the hospital. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the completion of the death certificate?

      Your Answer: 1a: Hospital-acquired bronchopneumonia 1b: Fractured neck of femur, II: Dementia

      Correct Answer: Speak to the coroner

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient passed away due to the initial fall, which necessitates referral to the coroner as per the guidance that mandates all deaths related to injury or poisoning.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      71.9
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  • Question 26 - A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the receptionists for an appointment to discuss prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      He was generally well but had suffered a myocardial infarction six months ago whilst on business in South Africa. He was diagnosed with diabetes three years ago and is on diet control alone.

      He had an eight year history of hypertension with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. He was obese with a BMI of 34 kg/m2.

      Investigations reveal:

      Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L (<5.2)

      Which would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a statin (HMG coA reductase inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      Secondary Prevention Scenario: Managing a Type 2 Diabetic with Cardiovascular Disease

      Firstly, it is important to recognize that this scenario involves secondary prevention. Evidence from trials such as the MRC/BHF Heart Protection Study has shown the benefits of lowering cholesterol in Type 2 diabetics with cardiovascular disease, regardless of their initial total cholesterol levels. Similarly, studies like CARE have demonstrated the advantages of maintaining cholesterol levels below 6 mmol/L in secondary prevention.

      As this patient is likely to be hypertensive, it would be appropriate to initiate antihypertensive therapy if their blood pressure remains elevated. The decision regarding insulin therapy would depend on their HbA1c levels, with metformin being the initial treatment of choice to improve insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that there is no significant benefit from using 300 mg over 75 mg of aspirin in these patients, and the higher dose may lead to more side effects. Additionally, there is no evidence to support improved life expectancy with Xenical.

      In summary, managing a Type 2 diabetic with cardiovascular disease in a secondary prevention scenario involves lowering cholesterol levels, initiating antihypertensive therapy if necessary, and considering insulin therapy based on HbA1c levels. It is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of medications such as aspirin and Xenical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 27 - A couple visits your clinic after their first child passed away suddenly at...

    Incorrect

    • A couple visits your clinic after their first child passed away suddenly at the age of ten months with no prior warning. The child had been a little fussy and had lost appetite the night before. The post mortem did not reveal any significant findings. What guidance would you offer the couple regarding the risks to their future offspring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low birth weight may be associated with increased risk of SIDS

      Explanation:

      Understanding SIDS Risk Factors

      Thankfully, Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is a rare occurrence, but there is still some debate about its epidemiology. However, certain risk factors have been identified, including smoking in the house, low birth weight, and being a sibling from a multiple birth pregnancy. Prone sleeping is also considered a risk factor, although some countries with high rates of prone sleeping, such as Sweden, have a low incidence of SIDS. It is important to note that the death of a sibling increases the risk of SIDS for future children, which can lead to multiple deaths in some households being mistaken for non-accidental injury. By understanding these risk factors, parents and caregivers can take steps to reduce the risk of SIDS and keep their infants safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 28 - A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college with suspected meningitis. She complained of a severe headache, fever, and vomiting that had been getting worse for the past two days. After a lumbar puncture, it was confirmed that she has a positive culture for Neisseria meningitidis.

      What antibiotic should be prescribed for her college roommates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis typically involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. Amoxicillin is primarily used in the treatment of meningitis in young children who are at a higher risk for listeria meningitis. In emergency situations, benzylpenicillin is the preferred treatment for meningitis, but it is not used for prophylaxis. Cephalosporins, such as cefalexin, are typically used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis rather than for prophylaxis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to you for her annual medication review. She expresses worry about her likelihood of developing cancer since her father had a history of bladder cancer.

      What is the most significant factor that increases a person's chances of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer Risk Factors

      Understanding the risk factors associated with bladder cancer is crucial for early detection and prevention. While family history may be a concern for some, lifestyle and environmental factors play a more significant role in the majority of cases. Smoking, for instance, is responsible for 37% of bladder cancers, with smokers being 3.8 times more likely to develop the disease than non-smokers. A family history of bladder cancer in a first-degree relative increases the risk by 1.8 times, while HPV infection is associated with a 2.8 times higher risk. Obesity, with a body mass index of 30 or more, can cause a 9% higher risk of developing bladder cancer than in someone of healthy weight. However, alcohol consumption has not been shown to be a risk factor. Additionally, occupational and environmental factors can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. For more information on these factors, Cancer Research UK provides a useful resource on bladder cancer risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents for his annual diabetic review. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes for the past 10 years and is currently taking metformin and insulin for glycemic control. He holds a group 1 driving license.

      During the consultation, you inquire about any episodes of hypoglycemia. He reports experiencing three or four episodes of low blood sugar since his last review, but he has good awareness of this and checks his blood sugar regularly. He also takes a dextrose tablet when necessary. He checks his blood sugar before driving and maintains a close record of his glycemic control.

      Upon reviewing his records, you note that his blood sugar has dropped to less than 4 mmol/L four times in the past year. However, he has awareness of hypoglycemia and reports feeling slightly nauseated when his sugars drop below 4 mmol/L. He takes a dextrose tablet when this happens, and he has not experienced any episodes of collapsing, confusion, or significant illness associated with low glucose levels. His lowest recorded glucose level is 3.4 mmol/L.

      Given his driving status, what advice should you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He can continue driving but he should be provided with the DVLA guidance on insulin treated diabetes and driving

      Explanation:

      New Medical Driving Standards for Diabetic Drivers

      The medical driving standards for individuals with diabetes have recently been updated. For those with a group 1 entitlement who are managed with insulin, it is required that they have awareness of hypoglycaemia and have not experienced more than one severe hypoglycaemic episode within the past 12 months. Appropriate blood glucose monitoring is also necessary. Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as an episode that requires external help, indicating that the individual is unable to treat the hypoglycaemia themselves.

      It is important for these individuals to be informed of the DVLA guidance regarding insulin-treated diabetes and driving. They should also be advised to carry dextrose with them in case of an emergency. The DVLA has provided clear guidelines for patients on how diabetes can affect their ability to drive and what self-monitoring they should undertake. These guidelines are available as part of the ‘At a Glance Guide to the Current Medical Standards of Fitness to Drive for Medical Practitioners’, which is freely available online.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/3) 33%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Passmed