00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency?

      Your Answer: It causes abnormal neurological findings similar to vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: It is responsible for neural tube defect in the fetus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency and Supplementation

      Folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in fetal development and overall health. Inadequate intake of folic acid can lead to various health problems, including neural tube defects in the fetus. Pregnant women are particularly at risk and are advised to take folic acid supplements to meet their increased requirements.

      Contrary to popular belief, intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency. Instead, reduced intake is the primary cause, and deficiency can develop rapidly within four months in people with an inadequate diet. It is important to note that folic acid deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia, but it doesn’t typically result in neurological symptoms like vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Methotrexate, a drug used to treat various conditions, can impair folate utilization and cause megaloblastic anemia. Concomitant folic acid supplementation can reduce the overall toxicity of the drug without affecting its efficacy. However, it is recommended to avoid taking folic acid on the same day as methotrexate to prevent adverse effects on absorption.

      In summary, understanding folic acid deficiency and supplementation is crucial for maintaining overall health, especially during pregnancy and when taking certain medications. Adequate intake of folic acid can prevent various health problems and improve overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What is the probable reason for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Mebeverine

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Drugs and Pancytopenia in Ulcerative Colitis: Understanding the Risks

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for the condition, various drugs can help manage symptoms and induce remission. However, some of these drugs can also cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a condition called pancytopenia.

      Azathioprine, methotrexate, ciclosporin, infliximab, and mesalazine are some of the drugs commonly used in ulcerative colitis that can cause bone marrow suppression. Patients taking these drugs should be monitored regularly for symptoms of bleeding or infection, and blood counts should be undertaken.

      Anti-diarrhoeal drugs like codeine phosphate, co-phenotrope, and loperamide may help control symptoms, but they do not cause pancytopenia. Mebeverine may provide symptomatic relief from colic, but it doesn’t cause pancytopenia either.

      While metronidazole may be helpful in people with Crohn’s disease, it is generally not considered useful for those with ulcerative colitis. Pancytopenia has been reported with metronidazole. Prednisolone, on the other hand, can be used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis without causing pancytopenia.

      It is essential to note that other drugs, such as chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, septrin, gold, penicillamine, indometacin, diclofenac, naproxen, piroxicam, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, thiouracil, dosulepin, phenothiazines, chlorpropamide, and chloroquine, have also been reported to cause pancytopenia. Therefore, patients with ulcerative colitis should be aware of the risks associated with these drugs and report any symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain, and dry eyes. He has also noticed a red-purple rash on his upper cheeks that worsens after sun exposure. Upon further inquiry, he reports frequent mouth ulcers. Based on these symptoms, you suspect systemic lupus erythematosus.

      Initial laboratory tests show anemia and proteinuria on urinalysis. Which of the following tests would be the most appropriate to rule out this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-Smith (Sm) antibody

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      The ANA test is commonly used to screen for autoimmune rheumatic disease in adults, but it has limited diagnostic value on its own. The presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies, low complement levels, or anti-Smith (Sm) antibodies, along with relevant clinical features, are highly indicative of a diagnosis of SLE. However, these markers cannot be used to rule out SLE as there is still a chance of a false negative result. Anti-Ro/La antibodies are less specific to SLE and can also be found in other autoimmune rheumatic disorders.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky right eye that started yesterday. She mentions experiencing mild discomfort but is generally feeling fine. Upon examination, you observe swollen conjunctiva with redness in the eyelid and yellow-green discharge. Her visual acuity is normal. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking paracetamol, codeine, methotrexate, and folic acid. You suspect that she has bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Which of the following topical eye drops should be avoided in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should not use chloramphenicol eye drops.

      Chloramphenicol is the appropriate choice, as it can exacerbate the effects of methotrexate on bone marrow suppression.

      Cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, gentamicin, and levofloxacin are not associated with bone marrow suppression.

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.

      The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer: Quinine

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part of a 'well man' check. His full blood count comes back with a haematocrit of 0.59 (Normal: 0.35-0.55) and a haemoglobin level of 182 g/l (Normal: 135-175 g/l).
      Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycythemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Polycythemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the body to produce too many red blood cells. A person with this condition may experience generalized pruritus, splenomegaly, thrombocytosis, and neutrophil leukocytosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for a specific mutation (JAK2) present in more than 95% of people with polycythemia vera is necessary.

      Without treatment, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera is only 6-18 months. This is due to the high risk of thrombosis, which can lead to ischaemic stroke and myocardial infarction. Venous and arterial thrombosis can also cause other complications such as pulmonary emboli, renal failure, intestinal ischaemia, and peripheral arterial emboli. Bleeding is also a common complication, usually resulting from vascular occlusion due to thrombosis or hyperviscosity. Acute leukaemia, myelofibrosis, and peptic ulcer disease are also possible complications.

      However, with treatment to maintain a normal haematocrit, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera can increase to an average of 20 years. While this is still reduced compared to the general population, it is a significant improvement. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive proper medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing. She follows a...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing. She follows a lacto-vegetarian diet and takes ramipril and indapamide for high blood pressure. Upon examination, she appears pale and has glossitis, but no neurological symptoms. Her blood test results show a low hemoglobin level, low white blood cell count, low platelet count, high mean corpuscular volume, and the presence of oval macrocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils, and circulating megaloblasts. Her ferritin level is within normal range, but her serum folate and vitamin B12 levels are low. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Pernicious Anaemia

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anaemia, with pernicious anaemia being the most common cause due to impaired absorption of the vitamin. Other causes include coeliac disease, pancreatic disease, malabsorption, ileal resection, Crohn’s disease, chronic tropical sprue, HIV, and radiotherapy affecting the ileum. Folate and iron deficiency may also be present. Helicobacter pylori infection, gastrectomy, gastric resection, and atrophic gastritis can also cause B12 deficiency. A vegan diet may result in deficiency, but many vegan foods are now fortified with vitamins, including B12. Drug-induced deficiency can occur with colchicine, metformin, and long-term use of drugs affecting gastric acid production. This patient has no history or symptoms suggestive of these causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      80.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 44-year-old woman has experienced a spontaneous iliofemoral venous thrombosis. She has tested...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman has experienced a spontaneous iliofemoral venous thrombosis. She has tested positive for the lupus anticoagulant and her anticardiolipin antibodies are elevated to > 50 U/l. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulant therapy and what INR level should be targeted?

      Your Answer: 2.5 Lifelong

      Explanation:

      INR Targets for Antiphospholipid Syndrome

      Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a condition characterized by the presence of lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibody, and it increases the risk of thrombotic events. The appropriate target for international normalized ratio (INR) varies depending on the patient’s history and risk factors.

      For patients with a single episode of venous thromboembolism (VTE) while being anticoagulated, the target INR should be 2.5. Treatment for significant thrombotic events in patients with APS is generally Lifelong, and the target INR should be maintained at 2.5.

      Patients who experience recurrent thrombotic events while well anticoagulated may require an INR of 3.5. This higher target is appropriate for patients with arterial thrombosis or recurrent VTE despite adequate anticoagulation. In these cases, Lifelong anticoagulation is necessary, given that the risk of VTE is ongoing.

      In high-risk situations, such as surgery or prolonged immobilization, thromboprophylaxis may be necessary in addition to maintaining the appropriate INR target. Close monitoring and individualized treatment plans are essential for managing APS and preventing thrombotic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man of Mediterranean descent presented to his GP with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man of Mediterranean descent presented to his GP with complaints of increased fatigue, jaundice, and abdominal discomfort. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, hyperlipidaemia, and glucose-6-phosphate deficiency. The patient takes lansoprazole, ramipril, metformin, simvastatin, and glimepiride regularly and drinks about 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, the patient had mild scleral icterus, splenomegaly, and mild abdominal tenderness in the left upper quadrant. His recent blood results showed low Hb levels, normal platelets and WBC count, high bilirubin, ALP, and γGT levels, and low albumin levels. The blood film showed bite cells and blister cells. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Glimepiride

      Explanation:

      Glimepiride, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes and belonging to the sulphonylurea class, can trigger haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. This can be indicated by mild anaemia, elevated bilirubin levels, and the presence of bite cells and blister cells on a blood film, suggesting haemolytic anaemia. Simvastatin, on the other hand, can induce hepatitis and cause jaundice, but this is unlikely if alanine transaminase and alkaline phosphatase levels are normal. Metformin, ramipril, and lansoprazole are not associated with haemolytic anaemia.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a haemarthrosis in...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a haemarthrosis in his right knee while playing outside. The following blood tests are conducted:

      Platelets 220 * 109/l
      PT 11 secs
      APTT 76 secs
      Factor VIIIc activity Normal

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      An extremely high APTT can result from the use of heparin, as well as from haemophilia or antiphospholipid syndrome. If factor VIIIc activity is normal, the patient may have haemophilia B (which involves a deficiency of factor IX). Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of blood clots.

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      23.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (2/10) 20%
Passmed