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  • Question 1 - An adolescent is seeking genetic counselling. His mother has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is...

    Correct

    • An adolescent is seeking genetic counselling. His mother has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is inherited as autosomal recessive. He has a brother with PKU.
      What is the likelihood that he carries the disease?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Phenylketonuria (PKU) Inheritance and Carrier Probability

      Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive inherited condition that affects the body’s ability to break down phenylalanine. Inheritance of PKU follows a specific pattern, where the affected allele must be inherited from both parents for the disease to manifest.

      If a person’s mother has PKU, she must be homozygous for the affected allele. If the person’s brother also has PKU, their father must be at least a carrier (heterozygous). Therefore, if the person seeking genetic counseling does not have PKU, there is a 100% certainty that they are a carrier.

      The probability of a baby born to this family having PKU is 50%, and the probability of them being a carrier is also 50%. However, as an asymptomatic teenager seeking counseling, the odds of being a carrier are 100%.

      PKU is an inborn error of metabolism that can lead to learning disabilities if not detected and treated early. It is tested for shortly after birth using the Guthrie test and can be managed by removing phenylalanine from the diet.

      Understanding the inheritance pattern and carrier probability of PKU is crucial for genetic counseling and early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at university. She is described by others as quite a reserved character. She has one friend but prefers solitary activities and has few interests. Sarah has never had a boyfriend and does not seem to be interested in companionship. When she is praised or criticised by others, she remains indifferent to their comments. There is no history of low mood or hallucinations.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for Sarah's condition?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder exhibits similar negative symptoms to those seen in schizophrenia. This disorder is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise or criticism, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and a disregard for social norms. John displays more than three of these traits, indicating a possible diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by feelings of inadequacy and social inhibition, while borderline personality disorder involves mood swings and impulsive behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is marked by attention-seeking behavior and exaggerated emotions.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have...

    Correct

    • At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison

      Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.

      In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.

      Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old woman with a BMI of 18 is referred to a fertility...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman with a BMI of 18 is referred to a fertility clinic as she has been unsuccessful in conceiving with her partner for 2 years. After ruling out male factor infertility, you suspect that her low BMI may be causing anovulation. What hormone can be measured on day 21 of her menstrual cycle to test for ovulation?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      A woman’s ovulation usually occurs on day 14 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. After ovulation, hormonal changes occur.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are a junior doctor in paediatrica and have been asked to perform...

    Incorrect

    • You are a junior doctor in paediatrica and have been asked to perform a newborn exam. Which statement is true regarding the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres?

      Your Answer: It is performed by adducting the hip while applying pressure on the knee

      Correct Answer: It relocates a dislocation of the hip joint if this has been elicited during the Barlow manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Barlow and Ortolani Manoeuvres for Hip Dislocation Screening

      Hip dislocation is a common problem in infants, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Two screening tests commonly used are the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres. The Barlow manoeuvre involves adducting the hip while applying pressure on the knee, while the Ortolani manoeuvre flexes the hips and knees to 90 degrees, with pressure applied to the greater trochanters and thumbs to abduct the legs. A positive test confirms hip dislocation, and further investigation is necessary if risk factors are present, such as breech delivery or a family history of hip problems. However, a negative test does not exclude all hip problems, and parents should seek medical advice if they notice any asymmetry or walking difficulties in their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old male undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. During the 24-hour postoperative period,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. During the 24-hour postoperative period, he is administered a total of 6 liters of 0.9% sodium chloride solution. What potential complications may arise from this treatment?

      Your Answer: Hyperchloraemic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hyperchloraemiac acidosis.

      Explanation:

      Administering too much intravenous fluid can lead to tissue swelling and even heart failure. Overuse of sodium chloride can cause hyperchloraemic acidosis, so it may be better to use Hartmann’s solution when giving large amounts of fluid.

      Guidelines for Post-Operative Fluid Management

      Post-operative fluid management is a crucial aspect of patient care, and the composition of intravenous fluids plays a significant role in determining the patient’s outcome. The commonly used intravenous fluids include plasma, 0.9% saline, dextrose/saline, and Hartmann’s, each with varying levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. In the UK, the GIFTASUP guidelines were developed to provide consensus guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids.

      Previously, excessive administration of normal saline was believed to cause little harm, leading to oliguric postoperative patients receiving enormous quantities of IV fluids and developing hyperchloraemic acidosis. However, with a better understanding of this potential complication, electrolyte balanced solutions such as Ringers lactate and Hartmann’s are now preferred over normal saline. Additionally, solutions of 5% dextrose and dextrose/saline combinations are generally not recommended for surgical patients.

      The GIFTASUP guidelines recommend documenting fluids given clearly and assessing the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre. If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, oral fluid intake should be restarted as soon as possible. Patients with urinary sodium levels below 20 should be reviewed, and if a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia should be treated first, followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.

      In conclusion, post-operative fluid management is critical, and the GIFTASUP guidelines provide valuable guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate fluid management, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What percentage of infants born with any level of hearing impairment are identified...

    Correct

    • What percentage of infants born with any level of hearing impairment are identified through neonatal screening as being at a high risk of having congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Importance of Universal Newborn Hearing Screening

      A variety of factors can increase the risk of neonatal hearing loss, including prematurity, low birth weight, neonatal jaundice, and bacterial meningitis. Traditional screening methods only target high-risk infants with these risk factors, but this approach only detects half of all cases of hearing impairment. The other half of cases have no obvious risk factors, making it difficult for parents and professionals to identify the problem.

      To address this issue, universal newborn hearing screening has been introduced to ensure that all infants have their hearing tested from birth. This approach is crucial for detecting hearing loss early and providing appropriate interventions to support language and communication development. By identifying hearing loss in all infants, regardless of risk factors, we can ensure that no child goes undetected and untreated. Universal newborn hearing screening is an important step towards improving outcomes for children with hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You assess a client who complains of excessive sweating.
    What is the physiological...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a client who complains of excessive sweating.
      What is the physiological process through which sweating results in heat dissipation?

      Your Answer: Decreased conduction

      Correct Answer: Increased conduction

      Explanation:

      The Effect of Humidity on Heat Loss

      Sweating is a natural response of the body to regulate its temperature. When sweat evaporates from the skin, it takes away heat and cools the body. However, the effectiveness of this process is affected by the humidity in the air. High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation, which means less heat is taken away from the body. As a result, individuals may feel hotter and more uncomfortable in humid conditions.

      This phenomenon is due to the fact that humidity affects the efficacy of heat loss via conduction. When the air is dry, sweat evaporates quickly, leading to increased heat conduction away from the skin. However, when the air is humid, the moisture in the air makes it harder for sweat to evaporate. This reduces the rate of heat loss and makes it more difficult for the body to regulate its temperature.

      Overall, the effect of humidity on heat loss is an important factor to consider when assessing the comfort level of individuals in different environments. this relationship can help us design better cooling systems and improve our ability to adapt to different weather conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman is seeking a consultation before undergoing breast reconstruction following a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is seeking a consultation before undergoing breast reconstruction following a mastectomy due to breast cancer. She is worried about potential adverse effects. Which nerves should you caution her about potential harm?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve is at risk during breast surgery due to its location and susceptibility to injury. Damage to this nerve causes paralysis of the serratus anterior, resulting in the scapula appearing like a wing and limited arm abduction. The axillary and radial nerves are less likely to be damaged in breast surgery as they arise from the posterior cord and continue down the upper arm. The intercostal nerves run along the intercostal spaces and are initially protected from damage, passing between the internal intercostal membrane and muscle near the middle of the intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A geriatric patient is admitted with right upper quadrant pain and jaundice. The...

    Incorrect

    • A geriatric patient is admitted with right upper quadrant pain and jaundice. The following investigation results are obtained:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Bilirubin 154 µmol/l 3–17 µmol/l
      Conjugated bilirubin 110 mmol/l 3 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 10 IU/l 1–21 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 200 IU/l 50–160 IU/l
      Prothrombin time 55 s 25–41 s
      Ultrasound report: ‘A dilated bile duct is noted, no other abnormality seen’
      Urine: bilirubin +++
      What is the most likely cause of the jaundice?

      Your Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Stone in common bile duct

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of obstructive liver function tests

      Obstructive liver function tests, characterized by elevated conjugated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, can be caused by various conditions. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      – Stone in common bile duct: This can obstruct the flow of bile and cause jaundice, as well as dilate the bile duct. The absence of urobilinogen in urine and the correction of prothrombin time with vitamin K support the diagnosis.
      – Haemolytic anaemia: This can lead to increased breakdown of red blood cells and elevated unconjugated bilirubin, but usually does not affect alkaline phosphatase.
      – Hepatitis: This can cause inflammation of the liver and elevated transaminases, but usually does not affect conjugated bilirubin or alkaline phosphatase.
      – Liver cirrhosis: This can result from chronic liver damage and fibrosis, but usually does not cause obstructive liver function tests unless there is associated biliary obstruction or cholestasis.
      – Paracetamol overdose: This can cause liver damage and elevated transaminases, but usually does not affect conjugated bilirubin or alkaline phosphatase unless there is associated liver failure or cholestasis.

      Therefore, a careful clinical evaluation and additional tests may be needed to confirm the underlying cause of obstructive liver function tests and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end her life by jumping from a height. On examination, she is conscious and has significant bruising over the occiput region. She reports that her parents are recently divorced and it has caused significant strain on her current relationship and as a result, is failing to do well at work. She has no significant medical history, apart from an incident when she was 17 where she was admitted to the hospital after intentionally taking too many paracetamol.
      Which of the following from the patient’s history is most associated with an increased risk of repeated attempts of self-harm/suicide?

      Your Answer: Previous attempted suicide

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Self-Harm and Suicide Attempts

      Previous suicide attempts or episodes of self-harm are the biggest predictor of future attempts, with 15% of people attempting again within a year and 1% succeeding in committing suicide. Strained relationships with partners or dissatisfaction with work alone have not been linked to repeated attempts. However, significant life events such as parental divorce, bereavement, abuse, or family breakdown may increase the risk. Age alone, particularly for adults in their twenties, has not been associated with repeated self-harm or suicide attempts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 3.8 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birth weight was 3.2 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the pylorus becomes enlarged, typically affecting baby boys at around six weeks of age. Symptoms include projectile vomiting, dehydration, and poor weight gain. Diagnosis is confirmed through ultrasound, and treatment involves surgical pyloromyotomy, often done laparoscopically.

      Cow’s milk protein allergy is an immune response to cow’s milk protein, with symptoms appearing immediately or hours after ingestion. Symptoms include rash, constipation, colic, diarrhea, or reflux, but not projectile vomiting or an abdominal mass. Treatment involves an exclusion diet, with breastfeeding mothers advised to avoid cow’s milk and take calcium and vitamin D supplements.

      Gastroenteritis presents with diarrhea and vomiting, but not projectile vomiting or an abdominal mass. Rotavirus is a common cause, and babies can receive a vaccine at eight and twelve weeks.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) may cause vomiting and poor weight gain, but not projectile vomiting or an abdominal mass. Treatment involves regular winding during feeds, smaller and more frequent feeds, and keeping the baby upright after feeds. Medication may be prescribed if these measures fail.

      Volvulus is a twisting of the bowel resulting in acute obstruction and a distended abdomen. Symptoms have a shorter duration before the baby becomes very unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), what does a verbal score of...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), what does a verbal score of 1 indicate?

      Your Answer: Incomprehensible sounds

      Correct Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a scoring system used to assess the level of consciousness of a patient. It ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 being the best. The scale is made up of three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response.

      The best eye response is determined by how the patient reacts to visual stimuli, such as opening their eyes spontaneously or in response to a command. The best verbal response is graded on a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 being no response and 5 being an oriented patient who can answer questions appropriately. Finally, the best motor response is assessed by observing the patient’s movements, such as their ability to follow commands or move in response to pain.

      Overall, the Glasgow coma scale is an important tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness of a patient and determine the severity of their condition. By the different parameters and scores, medical professionals can provide appropriate treatment and care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman presents with acute lower back pain of one week duration....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with acute lower back pain of one week duration. The pain is localized to her lower back, rates 9/10 in severity, and has not improved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. She has a medical history significant for stage 3 chronic kidney disease, hypertension, osteoporosis, and hypercholesterolemia. The patient has a 30-pack-year smoking history and is currently taking bendroflumethiazide, amlodipine, alendronic acid, vitamin D supplements, calcium tablets, omeprazole, and atorvastatin. On physical examination, the patient has lumbar lordosis, decreased mobility, and spasm of the paravertebral muscles. Tenderness to palpation is noted at L4-L5. A previous DEXA scan taken 6 months ago shows a T-score of −3.0 in the lumbosacral spine and −3.2 in the left hip. What is the recommended first-line investigation?

      Your Answer: X-ray spine

      Explanation:

      X-ray of the spine is the first-line investigation for a suspected osteoporotic vertebral fracture, while CT spine, MRI spine, repeat DEXA scan, and skeletal survey are not indicated or necessary.

      Understanding Osteoporotic Vertebral Fractures

      Osteoporotic vertebral fractures are a common consequence of osteoporosis, a condition where bones gradually decrease in bone mineral density, leading to an increased risk of fragility fractures. These fractures often present with acute onset back pain, but patients can also be asymptomatic. Osteoporosis is more prevalent in females than males, with a male-to-female ratio of 1:6. Advancing age is a major risk factor for osteoporotic fractures, with women over 65 and men over 75 being at increased risk. Other risk factors include a previous history of fragility fractures, frequent or prolonged use of glucocorticoids, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, alternative causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, tobacco smoking, and high alcohol intake.

      Patients with osteoporotic vertebral fractures may present with acute back pain, breathing difficulties, gastrointestinal problems, loss of height, kyphosis, and localised tenderness on palpation of spinous processes at the fracture site. X-ray of the spine is the first investigation ordered, which may show wedging of the vertebra due to compression of the bone. Other investigations such as CT spine and MRI spine may be used to visualise the extent/features of the fracture more clearly and differentiate osteoporotic fractures from those caused by another pathology.

      To assess the likelihood of future fractures, risk factors are taken into account, and a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be considered. The FRAX tool or QFracture tool can be used to estimate the 10-year risk of a fracture. These tools require the clinician to input patient information into a form, which is then used by the programme to calculate the risk. Understanding osteoporotic vertebral fractures and their risk factors is crucial in preventing and managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of spotting in...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of spotting in the past month, despite having gone through menopause 8 years ago. She had taken hormone replacement therapy for 3 years. On examination, her abdomen appears normal, but she has vaginal dryness. What initial investigation would you perform?

      Your Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal women are at risk of developing endometrial cancer, making it crucial to rule out this possibility in cases of postmenopausal bleeding. Hormone replacement therapy, nulliparity, late menopause, early menses, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and family history are all risk factors for this type of cancer. The first step in investigating endometrial cancer is to conduct a trans-vaginal ultrasound scan to measure the thickness of the endometrial lining. Different hospitals have varying cut-offs for endometrial thickness and further investigation. If the endometrial lining is thickened, a hysteroscopy will be performed, and an endometrial biopsy will be taken. Treatment for endometrial cancer typically involves laparoscopic hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, with or without radiotherapy.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man has presented to the falls clinic complaining of an increased...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has presented to the falls clinic complaining of an increased frequency of falls over the past month. He has fallen 5 times in this period and now requires the assistance of a frame to move around. His wife reports that he experiences brief episodes of confusion followed by lucid periods. The patient's medical history includes hypertension, alcoholic fatty liver disease, and gout.

      During the examination, the patient displayed normal power and sensation in his upper limbs. He had a shuffling gait but generally good power in his lower limbs. The cranial nerve examination was unremarkable except for the inability to abduct his left eye on the left lateral gaze.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      If an elderly person with a history of alcohol excess experiences fluctuating confusion and falls frequently, it may indicate a subdural haematoma. A false localising sign from a space-occupying lesion, such as a left abducens nerve palsy, could also be present. A CT head scan can confirm the presence of a subdural haematoma, which is a lentiform-shaped collection of blood resulting from the rupture of cortical bridging veins.

      Hepatic encephalopathy is classified into five stages, ranging from minimal to comatose. It can be challenging to distinguish the minimal and mild forms from other disease presentations. However, since there are no other signs of decompensated liver disease, such as ascites and jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy is less likely to be the underlying cause.

      Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating cognitive impairment, hallucinations, sleep disturbance, and Parkinsonian motor symptoms. However, it cannot explain the abducens nerve palsy in this patient.

      Normal-pressure hydrocephalus is a condition where there is excess cerebrospinal fluid in the brain without an increase in intracranial pressure. It typically presents as a triad of dementia, gait apraxia, and urinary or faecal incontinence. While it should be considered as a differential diagnosis, the history of fluctuating confusion is more suggestive of a subdural haematoma.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?...

    Incorrect

    • What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?

      Your Answer: The end bulb on the postsynaptic axon

      Correct Answer: The synaptic terminal of the presynaptic axon

      Explanation:

      Bouton Terminaux: The Synaptic Terminal of the Presynaptic Axon

      A bouton terminaux, also known as a terminal button or end bulb, is a bulge found at the end of a synaptic projection, which can be either an axon or a dendrite. This structure is responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, allowing for communication between neurons. It is important to note that the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell in the context of a synapse.

      It is essential to differentiate the bouton terminaux from other structures involved in synaptic transmission. For instance, synaptic vesicles are membrane-bound packages containing neurotransmitters, but they are not the same as the bouton terminaux. Similarly, axon varicosities are small swellings along the length of an axon that release neurotransmitters directly onto effector organs, such as smooth muscle, and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.

      Furthermore, the end bulb on the postsynaptic axon is not the same as the bouton terminaux, even though it is another term for it. This is because the end bulb refers to the postsynaptic cell, whereas the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell. Finally, fusion pores on the presynaptic axon membrane are structures formed after the presynaptic neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.

      In summary, the bouton terminaux is a crucial structure in synaptic transmission, responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. It is specific to the presynaptic cell and should not be confused with other structures involved in synaptic transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to complaints of bilateral leg weakness and difficulty walking, which has been progressively worsening over the past few years. The patient's father, who passed away from a heart attack four years ago, also had similar issues with his legs. During the examination, the patient was found to have pes cavus, bilateral foot drop, and a stamping gait. Additionally, he had bilateral areflexia and flexor plantar responses, as well as glove-and-stocking sensory loss to the ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions: A Comparison

      Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome, Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord, Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP), Old Polio, and Peripheral Vascular Disease are all neurological conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system. However, each condition has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria.

      Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome is a hereditary sensorimotor polyneuropathy that presents with foot drop, pes cavus, scoliosis, and stamping gait. A strong family history supports the diagnosis.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord is mostly due to vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with a loss of proprioception and vibration sense, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Risk factors include malabsorption problems or being vegan.

      Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) causes peripheral neuropathy that is mainly motor. It is associated with anti-GM1 antibody, motor conduction block on nerve conduction studies, and elevated protein in the cerebrospinal fluid. It can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, prednisolone, plasmapheresis, and azathioprine.

      Old Polio presents with a lower motor neuron pattern of weakness without sensory signs. The signs are often asymmetrical, and the lower limbs are more commonly affected than the upper limbs. Patients may have contractures and fixed flexion deformities from long-standing immobility.

      Peripheral Vascular Disease is accompanied by a history of pain, often in the form of calf claudication on walking, and is unlikely to cause the clinical signs described in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.1
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with a past medical history of haematuria. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with a past medical history of haematuria. The general practitioner suspects the presence of renal carcinoma and venous drainage obstruction. At an early stage of renal carcinoma, which abdominal area or organs are likely to be associated?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Left testis

      Explanation:

      The testicular veins form a network called the pampiniform plexus, which helps regulate testicular temperature. The left testicular vein empties into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein enters the IVC. RCC can cause varicocele by obstructing the left testicular vein. The inferior mesenteric vein drains into the splenic vein before joining the IVC. The liver receives blood from the hepatic artery and portal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.3
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  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by two episodes of vomiting within the last hour. Despite a normal CT scan, a lumbar puncture taken 12 hours later reveals xanthochromia, leading to a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Urgent neurosurgical consultation is requested, and a CT cerebral angiography confirms a posterior communicating artery aneurysm as the underlying cause of the SAH. The patient is otherwise healthy. What is the most suitable treatment option for the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist

      Explanation:

      After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, urgent intervention is necessary for intracranial aneurysms due to the risk of rebleeding. The most common treatment for this is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist, which involves inserting soft metallic coils into the aneurysm to exclude it from intracranial circulation. This is less invasive than surgical clipping. While nimodipine is used to reduce vasospasm following a SAH, it is not sufficient on its own and additional intervention is required. Typically, nimodipine is administered for 21 days and targets the brain vasculature by inhibiting calcium channels.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying for a baby for more than a year. She and her partner have been directed to the Fertility Clinic for additional assessments by their General Practitioner.
      Regarding the female reproductive system, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen concentration peaks just before menstruation

      Correct Answer: The menopause is associated with an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      Menopause is often associated with misconceptions about reproductive health. Here are some common misconceptions and the correct information:

      Common Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction

      1. Menopause is associated with a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
      Correction: Menopause is associated with an increase in FSH due to the loss of negative feedback from estrogen on the anterior pituitary.

      2. Progesterone is necessary for ovulation to take place.
      Correction: Both FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH) are needed for ovulation to take place. Progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for implantation.

      3. Estrogen concentration peaks during menstruation.
      Correction: Estrogen concentration peaks just before ovulation during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.

      4. Ovarian tissue is the only source of estrogen production.
      Correction: While ovarian tissue is the main source of estrogen production, the adrenal cortex and adipose tissue also contribute to estrogen production.

      5. Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the uterus.
      Correction: Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the outer third of the Fallopian tubes, not the uterus. The fertilized egg then implants in the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man is recovering from a coronary artery bypass surgery and is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is recovering from a coronary artery bypass surgery and is about to come off the cardiac bypass circuit. What medication should be given to restore the patient's clotting function before closing the chest and removing the cannula?

      Your Answer: Protamine sulphate

      Explanation:

      Protamine sulphate can reverse an overdose of heparin.

      To prevent blood clots during cardiac bypass procedures, high amounts of heparin are given intravenously. However, if too much heparin is given, it can be reversed with protamine sulphate. Although fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may also work, it poses a risk of fluid overload.

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.2
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  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her father with complaints of difficulty concentrating at home and at school. She is reported by the teachers to be easily distracted which is adversely affecting her learning. She also shows repeated outbursts of anger and her father thinks she has 'too much energy'. The psychiatrist diagnoses her with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and starts her on methylphenidate (Ritalin).

      What parameter must be monitored every 6 months in this patient?

      Your Answer: Visual acuity

      Correct Answer: Weight and height

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of weight and height is recommended every 6 months for patients taking methylphenidate, a stimulant medication. This is important as the drug may cause appetite suppression and growth impairment in children. Additionally, blood pressure and pulse should also be monitored regularly.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.1
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department with a 24-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department with a 24-hour history of increasing restlessness, agitation, vomiting, diarrhoea and tremors. Upon examination, he displays hyperthermia, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperreflexia and myoclonus, with a particular emphasis on the lower limbs. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine. He has recently begun taking St John's wort to alleviate his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.1
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  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates to his back. He has vomited multiple times and admits to heavy drinking in the past two weeks. The patient is admitted and blood tests are taken. After receiving supportive treatment with intravenous fluids, he reports that the pain has subsided and he no longer feels nauseous or vomits.

      What is the initial step to be taken regarding nutrition for this patient?

      Your Answer: Allow patient to eat orally as tolerated

      Explanation:

      Patients with acute pancreatitis should be encouraged to eat orally as tolerated and should not be routinely made nil-by-mouth. Acute pancreatitis is typically caused by gallstones or alcohol abuse, but can also be caused by other factors. Symptoms include severe epigastric pain that radiates to the back and signs of shock. Treatment is supportive, and a low-fat diet should be encouraged following an episode of acute pancreatitis. Feeding via gastrostomy or nasogastric tube is not necessary unless there is a specific indication. Total parenteral nutrition may be considered if the patient is unable to tolerate enteral feeding.

      Managing Acute Pancreatitis in a Hospital Setting

      Acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires management in a hospital setting. The severity of the condition can be stratified based on the presence of organ failure and local complications. Key aspects of care include fluid resuscitation, aggressive early hydration with crystalloids, and adequate pain management with intravenous opioids. Patients should not be made ‘nil-by-mouth’ unless there is a clear reason, and enteral nutrition should be offered within 72 hours of presentation. Antibiotics should not be used prophylactically, but may be indicated in cases of infected pancreatic necrosis. Surgery may be necessary for patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones or obstructed biliary systems, and those with infected necrosis may require radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.9
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  • Question 26 - A 67-year-old man undergoes a subtotal colectomy and suffers iatrogenic injury to both...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man undergoes a subtotal colectomy and suffers iatrogenic injury to both ureters. He experiences renal failure and his serum potassium level is elevated at 6.9 mmol/L. An ECG is conducted, what is the probable result?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      The initial and prevalent indication of hyperkalaemia is the presence of elevated T waves.

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition that can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG findings associated with hyperkalaemia include tall and pointed T waves, which are the first signs of the condition. Additionally, there may be a loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern. In severe cases, ventricular fibrillation may also occur. These ECG findings can help diagnose hyperkalaemia and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis

      Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.

      The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      16.8
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  • Question 28 - A fit and well 36-week pregnant patient is admitted for a planned Caesarean...

    Correct

    • A fit and well 36-week pregnant patient is admitted for a planned Caesarean section. Blood tests show the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 82–98 fl
      Platelets 156 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      With which of the following are these findings consistent?

      Your Answer: Dilutional anaemia of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dilutional Anaemia of Pregnancy

      Dilutional anaemia of pregnancy is a common condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a normal mean cell volume (MCV) and is caused by a disproportional rise in plasma volume, which dilutes the red blood cells. This condition is the most likely option for a patient with a normal MCV.

      Iron deficiency anaemia, on the other hand, is microcytic and gives a low MCV. Pancytopenia, which is the term for low haemoglobin, white cells, and platelets, is not applicable in this case as the patient’s white cells and platelets are in the normal range.

      Folic acid or B12 deficiency would give rise to macrocytic anaemia with raised MCV, which is not the case for this patient. Myelodysplasia, an uncommon malignant condition that usually occurs in patients over 60, is also unlikely.

      In conclusion, understanding dilutional anaemia of pregnancy is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for pregnant patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.8
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman with three children and a history of two previous terminations...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with three children and a history of two previous terminations of pregnancy presents with menorrhagia. She is seeking advice on the most suitable contraceptive method for her.

      What would be the most appropriate contraceptive agent for this patient?

      Your Answer: Mirena' intrauterine hormone system

      Explanation:

      Contraception and Treatment for Menorrhagia

      When a woman is experiencing problematical menorrhagia and needs contraception, it is recommended to use progesterone-based long-acting reversible contraception over progesterone-only or combined-oral contraceptive pills due to its higher efficacy in preventing pregnancy. While tranexamic acid may help reduce menorrhagia, it is not a contraceptive. Mefenamic acid is more effective in providing analgesia than in treating menorrhagia and is also not a contraceptive.

      The most appropriate therapy for this situation would be Mirena, which is expected to provide good contraception while also potentially leading to amenorrhoea in the majority of cases. It is important to consider both contraception and treatment for menorrhagia in order to provide comprehensive care for women experiencing these issues. These recommendations are based on the FSRH guidelines on contraception from July 2019.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.3
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  • Question 30 - A 36-year-old woman with a history of Von Willebrand disease underwent a left...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman with a history of Von Willebrand disease underwent a left knee arthroscopy and screw removal with epidural anesthesia. The epidural space was identified at L3-L4 and local anesthetic was administered. During the operation, the patient experienced sensory block to temperature up to the T10 dermatome. After the procedure, the patient was comfortable and the block resolved completely after 2 hours. However, 2 hours later, the patient complained of severe back pain and exhibited 3/5 power in all muscle groups of the right leg, absent right patellar reflex, and reduced sensation to light touch in the right leg.

      What complication of epidural anesthesia is likely to be demonstrated in this case?

      Your Answer: Spinal epidural haematoma

      Explanation:

      One potential complication of epidural anesthesia is the development of a spinal epidural hematoma, which occurs when blood accumulates in the spinal epidural space and compresses the spinal cord. The symptoms experienced by the patient will depend on the location of the hematoma, but typically include a combination of severe back pain and neurological deficits. The patient’s coagulopathy, in this case Von-Willebrand disease, increases the risk of developing this complication.

      Local anesthetic toxicity is another potential complication, which occurs when the anesthetic is accidentally injected into a blood vessel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including numbness around the mouth, restlessness, tinnitus, shivering, muscle twitching, and convulsions. However, none of these symptoms are present in this case.

      Direct spinal cord injury would typically result in immediate symptoms during the procedure, which is not the case here.

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that is often preceded by an infection. It typically presents with sensory symptoms that precede motor symptoms.

      While spinal epidural abscess is a possibility, symptoms usually develop over a longer period of time. Given the patient’s coagulopathy, a hematoma is the most likely explanation for their symptoms.

      Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.

      For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.

      Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominis Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.

      Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (3/4) 75%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Surgery (5/6) 83%
Clinical Sciences (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed