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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following is not closely related to the capitate bone?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not closely related to the capitate bone?

      Your Answer: Hamate bone

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The pisiform bone is in close proximity to both the ulnar nerve and artery. Additionally, the capitate bone is in articulation with the lunate, scaphoid, hamate, and trapezoid bones, indicating a close relationship between them.

      The Capitate Bone: Largest of the Carpal Bones

      The capitate bone is the largest of the carpal bones and is located centrally in the wrist. It has a rounded head that fits into the cavities of the lunate and scaphoid bones. The bone also has flatter articular surfaces for the hamate medially and the trapezoid laterally. At the distal end, the capitate bone primarily articulates with the middle metacarpal. Overall, the capitate bone plays an important role in the structure and function of the wrist joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a junior doctor in orthopaedic surgery, you are tasked with evaluating a...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in orthopaedic surgery, you are tasked with evaluating a 42-year-old woman who is scheduled for surgery tomorrow to repair an open radial fracture resulting from a bike accident. The patient has a medical history of severe psoriasis, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, polycystic ovary syndrome, and depression. Routine blood tests were ordered before the surgery, and the results are surprising:

      - Bilirubin: 17 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 89 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 354 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 61 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 34 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      Which medication is most likely responsible for this abnormality?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity is a potential side effect of using Methotrexate to treat severe psoriasis. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast cancer. Fluoxetine may cause serotonin syndrome, while morphine can lead to respiratory depression and overdose, both of which are serious risks.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man is being evaluated by a vascular specialist for poor diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is being evaluated by a vascular specialist for poor diabetes control. His HbA1c is 7.8% and he has a medical history of type II diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and hypothyroidism. During the examination, the specialist observes diminished posterior tibial pulses. Which area is likely to experience compromised blood supply due to reduced blood flow through the posterior tibial artery?

      Your Answer: Posterior compartment of the leg and plantar surface of the foot

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial artery is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the posterior compartment of the leg as well as the plantar surface of the foot.

      Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery

      The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.

      The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.

      Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor with a complaint of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the doctor with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. The pain spreads to his buttocks and is most severe in the morning, but gets better with physical activity. Sometimes, it even wakes him up at night.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a condition that typically affects young men and causes lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the mornings. It is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that leads to inflammation of the lower axial skeleton. Sacroiliitis, which is inflammation of the sacroiliac joints, is a common sign on x-ray. Unlike many other rheumatological conditions, ankylosing spondylitis is more prevalent in men than women.

      Intervertebral disc herniation is not the correct answer. This condition typically causes back pain and dermatomal leg pain that does not improve throughout the day or with exercise. It is usually caused by an injury rather than developing gradually without a clear cause.

      Reactive arthritis is also an incorrect answer. This is another type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that occurs after exposure to certain gastrointestinal and genitourinary infections, such as Chlamydia, Salmonella, and Campylobacter jejuni.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is also not the correct answer. This is a chronic inflammatory condition that causes inflammation of the synovial tissue and is more common in women. It typically presents with symmetrical, polyarticular arthritis of the small joints.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while the patient may experience night pain that improves upon getting up.

      Clinical examination of patients with ankylosing spondylitis may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. The Schober’s test, which involves drawing a line 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples and measuring the distance between them when the patient bends forward, may also be used to assess the condition. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (which is more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain. Her ECG shows no abnormalities. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis managed with methotrexate, hypertension, and type II diabetes. Her BMI is 34 kg/m². As a healthcare provider, you initiate aspirin therapy.

      What is the most significant risk this patient is facing?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow toxicity

      Explanation:

      Taking aspirin while on methotrexate treatment can be dangerous as it reduces the excretion of methotrexate, leading to an increased risk of toxicity and bone marrow problems. However, some studies suggest that methotrexate may be helpful in treating severe osteoarthritis and polymyositis. All other options are incorrect.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following muscles is not located in the posterior compartment...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following muscles is not located in the posterior compartment of the lower leg?

      Your Answer: Popliteus

      Correct Answer: Peroneus brevis

      Explanation:

      The lateral compartment contains the peroneus brevis.

      Fascial Compartments of the Leg

      The leg is divided into compartments by fascial septae, which are thin layers of connective tissue. In the thigh, there are three compartments: the anterior, medial, and posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the femoral nerve and artery, as well as the quadriceps femoris muscle group. The medial compartment contains the obturator nerve and artery, as well as the adductor muscles and gracilis muscle. The posterior compartment contains the sciatic nerve and branches of the profunda femoris artery, as well as the hamstrings muscle group.

      In the lower leg, there are four compartments: the anterior, posterior (divided into deep and superficial compartments), lateral, and deep posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery, as well as the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneus tertius muscles. The posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the deep and superficial muscles. The lateral compartment contains the superficial peroneal nerve and peroneal artery, as well as the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. The deep posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of loss of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of loss of sensation in the 1st webspace of his left hand after a night of heavy drinking at a party. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient is unable to extend his left wrist and also reports a loss of sensation in the dorsal aspect of the 1st webspace. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies the skin on the dorsal aspect of the hand, while the axillary nerve innervates teres minor and deltoid muscle and provides sensory innervation to the badge area. The median nerve is the main nerve of the anterior compartment of the forearm, and the ulnar nerve innervates muscles in the forearm and intrinsic muscles of the hand. The musculocutaneous nerve supplies muscles in the upper arm and terminates as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 43-year-old woman expresses to her GP that she has been experiencing overall...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman expresses to her GP that she has been experiencing overall fatigue for the past couple of months. She reports feeling pain and stiffness in the joints of her hands and wrists, particularly in the morning, which has made writing difficult. Upon examination, an X-ray confirms a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient is prescribed methotrexate and sulfasalazine. What is the enzyme that methotrexate inhibits?

      Your Answer: Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate functions by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase, which prevents the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. This anti-metabolite targets purines, the building blocks of DNA.

      Leflunomide is utilized in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis as it targets dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, which plays a crucial role in pyrimidine biosynthesis by oxidizing dihydroorotate to orotate.

      COX 2 is essential for the synthesis of prostanoids, including prostaglandins and thromboxanes. COX 2 inhibitors, such as NSAIDs, are effective in reducing inflammation and pain.

      Matrix metalloproteinase 1 is an enzyme that breaks down interstitial collagens, including Type I, II, and III, which are part of the extracellular matrix.

      Answer 5 is incorrect.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff injury. The GP intends to assess the subscapularis muscle. What is the most suitable special test to examine the subscapularis muscle?

      Your Answer: Hawkin's test

      Correct Answer: Lift-off test

      Explanation:

      If a lift-off test shows abnormal results, it suggests that the subscapularis muscle may be involved.

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems and can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction. The signs of a rotator cuff injury include tenderness over the anterior acromion and a painful arc of abduction. The painful arc of abduction is typically between 60 and 120 degrees for subacromial impingement, while for rotator cuff tears, the pain may be in the first 60 degrees. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further damage and improve shoulder function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following relationship descriptions regarding the scalene muscles is incorrect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following relationship descriptions regarding the scalene muscles is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The subclavian artery passes posterior to the middle scalene

      Explanation:

      The middle scalene is located posterior to the subclavian artery.

      The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

      The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.

      The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.

      In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old presents to the hospital with severe wrist pain. He was playing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old presents to the hospital with severe wrist pain. He was playing basketball with his friends when he fell with his hand outstretched. On examination, there is significant tenderness at the anatomical snuffbox. Pain is elicited as the thumb is longitudinally compressed. His grip strength is also diminished.

      A posteroanterior and lateral x-ray of the wrist joint is performed which gives inconclusive results. The patient's wrist is immobilized with a splint and he is advised an MRI in a week’s time for further evaluation.

      The patient inquires about possible complications and the doctor expresses concern that if the blood supply is interrupted, the bone tissue may be compromised.

      Which of the following structures is most likely to be responsible for this complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsal carpal branch of radial artery

      Explanation:

      The primary neurovascular structure that can be affected by a scaphoid fracture is the dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the scaphoid bone, and a fracture can lead to a high risk of avascular necrosis in the proximal pole of the bone. Symptoms of a scaphoid fracture include tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, pain when compressing the thumb longitudinally, and a loss of grip strength. While an X-ray may not provide a conclusive diagnosis, further imaging studies can confirm the presence of an occult fracture.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. The common digital arteries originate from the superficial palmar arch and supply the fingers. The deep palmar arch primarily supplies the thumb and index finger. The proper digital arteries arise from the common digital arteries and supply the fingers.

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that usually occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to identify scaphoid fractures as they can lead to avascular necrosis due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically experience pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination involves checking for tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox, wrist joint effusion, pain on telescoping of the thumb, tenderness of the scaphoid tubercle, and pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist. Plain film radiographs and scaphoid views are used to diagnose scaphoid fractures, but MRI is considered the definitive investigation. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures typically treated with a cast and displaced fractures requiring surgical fixation. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is caused by type 1 helper T cells that participate in the cellular immune response, as opposed to type 2 helper T cells.

      Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications

      Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.

      There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.

      Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
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  • Question 13 - Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep ulnar

      Explanation:

      PAD and DAB can be remembered as a mnemonic for the actions of the palmar and dorsal interossei muscles. The palmar interossei muscles ADduct the fingers towards the midline of the hand, while the dorsal interossei muscles ABduct the fingers away from the midline.

      Interossei: Muscles of the Hand

      Interossei are a group of muscles located in the hand that occupy the spaces between the metacarpal bones. There are three palmar and four dorsal interossei, each with a specific origin and insertion point. Palmar interossei originate from the metacarpal of the digit on which it acts, while dorsal interossei come from the surface of the adjacent metacarpal on which it acts. The interosseous tendons, except the first palmar, pass to one or other side of the metacarpophalangeal joint posterior to the deep transverse metacarpal ligament. They become inserted into the base of the proximal phalanx and partly into the extensor hood.

      All interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and have specific actions. Dorsal interossei abduct the fingers, while palmar interossei adduct the fingers. Along with the lumbricals, the interossei flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. They are responsible for fine-tuning these movements.

      In cases where the interossei and lumbricals are paralyzed, the digits are pulled into hyperextension by extensor digitorum, resulting in a claw hand. Understanding the function and innervation of the interossei is important in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 14 - What is the position of the hyoid bone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the position of the hyoid bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C3

      Explanation:

      Surface Anatomy of the Neck: Identifying Structures and Corresponding Levels

      The neck is a complex region of the body that contains numerous structures and landmarks. By understanding the surface anatomy of the neck, healthcare professionals can accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.

      In the midline of the neck, several structures can be felt from top to bottom. These include the hyoid at the level of C3, the notch of the thyroid cartilage at C4, and the cricoid cartilage at C6. The lower border of the cricoid cartilage is particularly significant as it corresponds to several important structures, including the junction of the larynx and trachea, the junction of the pharynx and esophagus, and the level at which the inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland. Additionally, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen in the 6th cervical vertebrae at this level, and the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle crosses the carotid sheath. The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion is also located at this level, as well as the carotid tubercle, which can be used to compress the carotid artery.

      Overall, understanding the surface anatomy of the neck is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 15 - John, a 29-year-old male, presented to the emergency department after a fall where...

    Incorrect

    • John, a 29-year-old male, presented to the emergency department after a fall where he landed on his outstretched hand. He reports experiencing pain.

      During the examination, John's neurovascular status is intact, but he is tender to touch and has a dinner fork deformity. The emergency physician orders an x-ray of his right hand, wrist, and arm. The x-ray report reveals a Colles' fracture.

      What will the x-ray report show as abnormal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement of distal fragment

      Explanation:

      Smith’s fracture is the name given to a fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment, while Colles’ fracture refers to a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment, resulting in a dinner fork deformity. Another type of fracture involving the forearm is the Monteggia fracture, which involves a fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the proximal head of the radius.

      Understanding Colles’ Fracture: A Common Injury from a Fall

      Colles’ fracture is a type of injury that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture involves the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint. The fracture is characterized by a dorsal displacement of the bone fragments, resulting in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork.

      Classical Colles’ fractures have three distinct features. Firstly, the fracture is transverse, meaning it occurs horizontally across the bone. Secondly, the fracture is located approximately one inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint, which is the joint that connects the radius to the wrist bones. Finally, the fracture results in dorsal displacement and angulation of the bone fragments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old female comes in with a sudden onset of back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female comes in with a sudden onset of back pain that radiates down her lower limb while she was gardening and bending forward. During a neurological examination of her lower limb, it was discovered that she has reduced power when flexing her hip and extending her knee. Her patellar reflex was also reduced, and there is decreased sensation in the anteromedial aspect of her thigh. Can you determine the level at which the intervertebral disc herniation is located based on these examination findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3-L4

      Explanation:

      If there is a disc herniation at the L3-L4 level, it can impact the L4 spinal nerve and lead to issues with the femoral nerve’s function. A herniation at the L2-L3 level can cause L3 radiculopathy and result in weakness in hip adduction. On the other hand, a herniation at the L3-L4 level can cause L4 radiculopathy and lead to weakness in knee extension, with a greater contribution from L4 than L3, as well as a decrease in the patellar reflex.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old rower comes to your clinic complaining of a painful shoulder that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old rower comes to your clinic complaining of a painful shoulder that has been bothering him for the past two weeks. The pain is dull and comes and goes, mainly affecting the posterior and lateral parts of his shoulder. Heavy exercises such as weightlifting and rowing exacerbate the pain, so he has been avoiding these activities. During the examination, you notice tenderness on the posterior aspect of the shoulder, and there is some weakness on shoulder abduction. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare possibility for this presentation. Which of the following is not a border of the quadrangular space?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is infraspinatus, which is located superior to the quadrangular space. The quadrangular space is a passage for nerves and vessels between the anterior and posterior regions of the shoulder, bordered by the inferior border of teres major, the lateral border of the surgical neck of the humerus, the medial border of the lateral margin of the long head of triceps brachii, and the superior border of the inferior margin of teres minor. The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery pass through this space. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare condition that involves compression of these structures, typically in young adults without trauma. Symptoms may include shoulder pain during resisted abduction and external rotation, as well as wasting of the deltoid muscle.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old woman with breast cancer is prescribed a chemotherapy treatment that involves...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with breast cancer is prescribed a chemotherapy treatment that involves methotrexate.

      What specific enzyme does methotrexate inhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, which is a crucial enzyme in folate metabolism. This drug is effective in treating various conditions, such as Crohn’s disease, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of cancer, by disrupting DNA synthesis and repair. Although other enzymes are also involved in folate metabolism and homeostasis, methotrexate does not inhibit them. Notably, 5-Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthase, while methionine synthase, methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase, and folylpolyglutamate synthase play different roles in folate metabolism.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 19 - Mary, an 82-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a minor...

    Incorrect

    • Mary, an 82-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a minor fall. She reports discomfort in her left leg.

      A radiograph is ordered and reveals a left intracapsular neck of femur fracture. As a result, Mary is scheduled for a hemiarthroplasty to avoid avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

      In this particular fracture, which blood vessel is the primary source of blood supply to the femoral head and is most susceptible to damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is a significant supplier of blood to the femoral head, while the perforating branches of the profunda femoris artery supply the medial and posterior thigh. The lateral femoral circumflex artery provides blood to some muscles of the lateral thigh and a portion of the femoral head. Additionally, the anterior branch of the obturator artery supplies blood to the obturator externus, pectineus, adductor muscles, and gracilis muscles.

      Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply

      The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.

      The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.

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  • Question 20 - Which one of the following structures connects periosteum to bone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures connects periosteum to bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sharpeys fibres

      Explanation:

      Sharpey’s fibers, which are strong collagenous fibers, attach the periosteum to the bone and extend to the outer circumferential and interstitial lamellae. Additionally, the periosteum serves as a point of attachment for muscles and tendons.

      Understanding Periosteum: The Membrane Covering Bones

      Periosteum is a membrane that envelops the outer surface of all bones, except at the joints of long bones. It is made up of dense irregular connective tissue and is divided into two layers: the outer fibrous layer and the inner cambium layer. The fibrous layer contains fibroblasts, while the cambium layer contains progenitor cells that develop into osteoblasts. These osteoblasts are responsible for increasing the width of a long bone and the overall size of other bone types.

      Periosteum is very sensitive to manipulation as it has nociceptive nerve endings. It also provides nourishment by supplying blood to the bone. The membrane is attached to the bone by strong collagenous fibers called Sharpey’s fibers, which extend to the outer circumferential and interstitial lamellae. Additionally, periosteum provides an attachment for muscles and tendons.

      After a bone fracture, the progenitor cells develop into osteoblasts and chondroblasts, which are essential to the healing process. Periosteum that covers the outer surface of the bones of the skull is known as pericranium, except when referring to the layers of the scalp. Understanding periosteum is crucial in comprehending bone structure and the healing process after a bone fracture.

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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with a gym-related injury. While...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with a gym-related injury. While lifting a heavy barbell off the floor, they experienced a hamstring pull. Upon examination, the doctor notes weak knee flexion facilitated by the biceps femoris muscle. The doctor suspects nerve damage to the nerves innervating the short and long head of biceps femoris. Which nerve specifically provides innervation to the short head of biceps femoris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal branch of sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      The short head of biceps femoris receives innervation from the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve. The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius and minimus, while the inferior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus maximus. The perineum is primarily supplied by the pudendal nerve.

      The Biceps Femoris Muscle

      The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.

      On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.

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  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP for a routine health check-up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP for a routine health check-up. She has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with a daily dose of ACE inhibitor. During a screening DEXA scan, her pelvis and femur show T-scores of -2.6 and -2.9, respectively.

      What results would you anticipate from her laboratory tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal serum calcium, serum phosphate, ALP and PTH

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is the diagnosis for this patient, as indicated by a T-score of less than -2.5 on their DEXA scan. Their lab results for serum calcium, serum phosphate, ALP, and PTH are all within normal ranges for osteoporosis.

      Patients with osteomalacia typically have decreased serum calcium and serum phosphate levels, along with increased ALP and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease is characterized by an isolated increase in ALP, while the rest of the lab values are normal.

      Hyperparathyroidism is indicated by increased PTH levels, with the specific lab values depending on whether the patient has primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by raised PTH, calcium, and ALP levels, as increased bone resorption leads to high serum calcium and ALP levels. PTH also causes increased phosphate excretion by the kidneys, resulting in low serum phosphate levels.

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is indicated by raised PTH, phosphate, and ALP levels, typically seen in patients with chronic kidney disease. In this case, the kidneys cannot excrete phosphate, leading to increased serum phosphate levels, which in turn causes increased PTH secretion. PTH causes bone resorption, leading to high ALP levels. Chronic kidney disease also impairs vitamin D activation, resulting in hypocalcemia.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.

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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man falls and injures his left hip. He is given paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man falls and injures his left hip. He is given paracetamol by a junior doctor and sent home. After a few months, he returns with persistent pain and discomfort in the hip. The doctors suspect avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Which of the following features is least likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apoptosis of osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Necrotic cell death does not involve apoptosis. Instead, the body typically attempts to repair the damage by promoting angiogenesis and the proliferation of fibroblasts. These cells may even differentiate into osteoblasts, which can then lay down new matrix.

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, resulting in bone destruction and joint dysfunction. This commonly affects the femur’s epiphysis, which is a long bone. The causes of AVN include long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma. Initially, AVN may not show any symptoms, but pain in the affected joint may develop over time. Plain x-rays may not show any abnormalities at first, but osteopenia and microfractures may be visible early on. The crescent sign may appear due to the collapse of the articular surface. MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. Joint replacement may be necessary for management.

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  • Question 24 - During a lower limb examination, a 54-year-old female patient is observed by the...

    Incorrect

    • During a lower limb examination, a 54-year-old female patient is observed by the GP to have a right-sided pelvic drop while walking, which is identified as a positive Trendelenburg sign. Which specific muscle or group of muscles is weakened in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

      Explanation:

      The Trendelenburg sign test evaluates the strength of the abductor muscles of the hip, specifically the gluteus medius and minimus. During the gait cycle, the contralateral abductor muscles are necessary to prevent the pelvis from dropping to the side of the stance leg when the patient stands on one leg. A positive Trendelenburg sign on the right side indicates weakness in the left gluteus medius and minimus, which are responsible for lifting the pelvis.

      The Trendelenburg sign test assesses the contralateral muscles that contract to maintain a straight pelvis. Therefore, if the pelvis tilts to the right, the left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus are likely weak.

      It’s important to note that the gluteus maximus is not involved in hip abduction and is not tested with this test. Additionally, the adductor muscles, including the adductor magnus, help stabilize the leg and prevent outward movement, and are not evaluated with the Trendelenburg sign test.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old weight lifter presents to primary care with a complaint of painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old weight lifter presents to primary care with a complaint of painful right arm. He reports feeling a 'pop' during his last workout. Upon examination, a significant swelling is observed in the proximal arm, and the distal insertion of biceps brachii cannot be palpated. Which movement is expected to be impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supination

      Explanation:

      The primary role of the Biceps Brachii muscle is to facilitate supination and elbow flexion. It is particularly effective in supination when the elbow is flexed, such as when using a screwdriver. The muscles located in the posterior compartment of the forearm are responsible for wrist flexion, while the triceps are responsible for elbow extension and the deltoid is mostly responsible for shoulder abduction.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 26 - Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of the cuboid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5th metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The cuboid bone is situated on the outer side of the foot, positioned between the heel bone at the back and the fourth and fifth toe bones towards the front.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

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  • Question 27 - Which muscle is connected to the front of the fibrous capsule that surrounds...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is connected to the front of the fibrous capsule that surrounds the elbow joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachialis

      Explanation:

      When the brachialis muscle contracts, it aids in elbow flexion by inserting some of its fibers into the fibrous joint of the elbow capsule.

      Anatomy of the Elbow Joint

      The elbow joint is a large synovial hinge joint that connects the bones of the forearm to the lower end of the humerus. It consists of the humeral articular surface, which comprises the grooved trochlea, the spheroidal capitulum, and the sulcus between them, and the ulnar and radial surfaces. The joint is encased within a fibrous capsule that is relatively weak anteriorly and posteriorly but strengthened at the sides to form the radial and ulnar collateral ligaments. The synovial membrane follows the attachments of the fibrous capsule, and the joint is innervated by the musculocutaneous, median, radial, and ulnar nerves.

      Movement occurs around a transverse axis, with flexion occurring when the forearm makes anteriorly a diminishing angle with the upper arm and extension when the opposite occurs. The axis of movement passes through the humeral epicondyles and is not at right angles with either the humerus or bones of the forearm. In full extension with the forearm supinated, the arm and forearm form an angle which is more than 180 degrees, the extent to which this angle is exceeded is termed the carrying angle. The carrying angle is masked when the forearm is pronated.

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  • Question 28 - Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior scalene muscle

      Explanation:

      The subclavian vein (anterior) and subclavian artery (posterior) are separated by the significant anatomical feature known as the anterior scalene muscle.

      The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

      The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.

      The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.

      In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.

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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of a painful, red toe. The pain began a few hours ago and has been getting worse. Upon examination, her 1st metatarsophalangeal joint is inflamed, erythematous, and tender to the touch.

      What are the joint aspiration findings that would confirm a gout flare diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals

      Explanation:

      Joint aspiration is a valuable diagnostic tool for differentiating between various causes of joint swelling, including septic arthritis and pseudogout. In the case of gout, joint aspiration will reveal needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light. These crystals form when uric acid levels remain persistently high and deposit in tissues, leading to the characteristic inflammatory response seen in gout.

      It is important to note that a green-colored aspirate with a positive gram stain for Staphylococcus aureus is not indicative of gout, but rather suggests septic arthritis. In this case, the aspirate may have a raised white cell count and appear yellow or green.

      Similarly, the presence of negatively birefringent needle-shaped calcium oxalate crystals is not associated with gout, but rather with kidney stones. These crystals form when there are high concentrations of calcium oxalate in the urine and are typically octahedral or envelope-shaped.

      Finally, positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals are not seen in gout, but rather in pseudogout. Pseudogout presents with similar symptoms to gout and more commonly affects the knee joint.

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and can affect various joints, with the first metatarsophalangeal joint being the most commonly affected. Swelling and redness are also common symptoms of gout.

      If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to joint damage and chronic joint problems. To diagnose gout, doctors may perform synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack.

      Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, gout does not cause periarticular osteopenia. Soft tissue tophi may also be visible.

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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man visits his physician after being diagnosed with osteoporosis due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his physician after being diagnosed with osteoporosis due to a hip fracture. The doctor suggests prescribing alendronic acid, a bisphosphonate, to prevent future fractures.

      What is the mechanism of action of alendronic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast inhibition

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are responsible for breaking down bone. This promotes bone health and is commonly used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates do not cause increased cholecalciferol synthesis or osteoblast inhibition, but are actually used in the management of hypercalcemia. Osteoclast stimulation would be harmful to patients and is not the correct description of the action of bisphosphonates.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

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