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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic collision. His breathing is irregular. Upon examination, he has multiple rib fractures, including 2 fractures in the 3rd rib and 3 fractures in the 4th rib. What is the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Flail chest injury
Explanation:A flail chest is identified when an individual has multiple rib fractures, with at least two fractures in more than two ribs. This condition is often accompanied by pulmonary contusion.
Thoracic Trauma: Common Conditions and Treatment
Thoracic trauma can result in various conditions that require prompt medical attention. Tension pneumothorax, for instance, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration to the lung parenchyma with a flap. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Symptoms of tension pneumothorax overlap with cardiac tamponade, but hyper-resonant percussion note is more likely. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.
Pneumothorax is another common condition resulting from lung laceration with air leakage. Traumatic pneumothoraces should have a chest drain, and patients should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothorax, which is most commonly due to laceration of the lung, intercostal vessel, or internal mammary artery, is treated with a large bore chest drain if it is large enough to appear on CXR. Surgical exploration is warranted if more than 1500 ml blood is drained immediately.
Cardiac tamponade is characterized by elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, and reduced heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus may also occur with as little as 100 ml blood. Pulmonary contusion is the most common potentially lethal chest injury, and arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry are important. Early intubation within an hour is necessary if significant hypoxia is present. Blunt cardiac injury usually occurs secondary to chest wall injury, and ECG may show features of myocardial infarction. Aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds are other conditions that require prompt medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI
A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.
The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.
In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are a medical senior house officer seeing a patient called Edith with your consultant. Edith is a very frail 88-year-old lady with urinary sepsis and a history of metastatic bladder carcinoma. Your consultant completes her ward round and is of the opinion that cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) would be unsuccessful if Edith were to have a cardiac arrest. After the round, a nurse asks you to complete a Do Not Attempt Resuscitation order (DNAR), which will mean that Edith would not undergo CPR in the event of a cardiac arrest. Edith does not currently have mental capacity to make decisions about her care. You have not discussed resuscitation with Edith or her family and do not have any more information available to you at this time. Her son has been appointed Power of Attorney, which includes provision for him to make decisions about Edith’s welfare and medical care.
Select the most appropriate action to take in this case.Your Answer: Complete the DNAR form only if you obtain consent from Edith’s Power of Attorney
Correct Answer: Attempt to contact Edith’s son to discuss the DNACPR order first and then complete the DNAR form
Explanation:Making Decisions about DNACPR and DNAR Orders for Patients without Capacity
When a patient lacks capacity, decisions about their care must be made by their appointed Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for health and welfare. In the case of Edith, a decision has been made by the consultant that CPR would not be successful, and a DNACPR order must be put in place to avoid futile attempts at resuscitation. It is good practice to discuss this decision with Edith’s son, who has been assigned as her LPA. However, if he cannot be reached, the order must still be put in place, with continued attempts to contact him for discussion.
It is important to note that a DNAR form should only be completed when the patient has regained mental capacity and can consent to the decision. In Edith’s case, a senior clinician has already determined that attempts at resuscitation would be unsuccessful, and waiting for the consultant to sign the DNAR form may cause harm to Edith if she suffers a cardiac arrest before it is completed.
While it is important to involve the LPA in discussions about the patient’s care, the decision on whether to attempt CPR is ultimately a clinical decision made by the multidisciplinary team. If there is disagreement between the healthcare team and the LPA, a second opinion can be sought, and if necessary, the Court of Protection may be asked to make a declaration. However, the priority should always be the patient’s best interest and avoiding unnecessary distress or harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to severe headache. He gives a history of recurrent rapid-onset severe right-sided headache and eye pain. It sometimes wakes him up at night. He claims the eye itself becomes watery and red during the periods of pain. He also claims that side of his face feels hot and painful during episodes. They normally last 60 minutes. However, he says they can be shorter or longer. There is no significant medical history. He is a smoker. He is pain-free during the consultation and examination is non-contributory.
Which of the following is most likely to be of value in relieving pain?Your Answer: Oxygen
Explanation:Understanding Cluster Headaches and Treatment Options
Cluster headaches are a rare and severe form of headache with an unknown cause, although it is believed to be related to serotonin hyperreactivity in the superficial temporal artery smooth muscle and an autosomal dominant gene. They are more common in young male smokers but can affect any age group. Symptoms include sudden onset of severe unilateral headache, pain around one eye, watery and bloodshot eye, lid swelling, facial flushing, and more. Attacks can occur 1-2 times a day and last 15 minutes to 2 hours. Treatment options include high-flow 100% oxygen, subcutaneous sumatriptan, and verapamil or topiramate for prevention. Other treatments, such as amitriptyline for trigeminal neuralgia or high-dose prednisolone for giant cell arthritis, are not appropriate for cluster headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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As a Foundation Year 2 doctor on a four month rotation at an Emergency department, you encounter a 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. She presents with a two month history of dry mouth and itchy eyes, as well as a three day history of painful eyes and sensitivity to bright light. Despite her well-controlled rheumatoid arthritis with methotrexate and sulfasalazine, she requires NSAIDs for symptomatic relief. Upon examination, you observe a dry oral cavity and a few corneal abrasions on her right eye, but the sclera is otherwise white. Her pupil is normal and visual acuity tests are unremarkable. A bedside Schirmer's test reveals 3 mm of diffusion on filter paper bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:Sjögren’s Syndrome and its Ocular Manifestations
Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the exocrine glands, leading to decreased production of tears and saliva. This results in dry eyes and dry mouth, which can cause corneal abrasions and even ulceration if left untreated. It is commonly associated with connective tissue diseases, particularly rheumatoid arthritis.
When it comes to ocular manifestations, it is important to differentiate Sjögren’s syndrome from other conditions such as scleritis, episcleritis, uveitis, and ulcerative keratitis. The phenylephrine test can help distinguish between episcleritis and scleritis, while uveitis typically presents with ocular pain, photophobia, and blurred vision. Ulcerative keratitis, on the other hand, has an infectious presentation and requires different treatment approaches depending on the depth of the ulcer.
Overall, the pathophysiology and ocular manifestations of Sjögren’s syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this autoimmune disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of contraception. She had visited her pharmacist the day before and received the levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill after engaging in unprotected sexual activity. As her healthcare provider, you recommend the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the appropriate time for this patient to begin taking the COCP?
Your Answer: 30 days after the emergency contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Starting hormonal contraception immediately after using levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill is safe. However, if ulipristal was used, hormonal contraception should be started or restarted after 5 days, and barrier methods should be used during this time. Waiting for 7 or 30 days before starting hormonal contraception is unnecessary as levonorgestrel does not affect its efficacy. A pregnancy test is only recommended if the patient’s next period is more than 5-7 days late or lighter than usual, not routinely after taking levonorgestrel.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been experiencing memory loss for recent events and has gotten lost while out shopping. His cognitive abilities seem to fluctuate frequently, but overall, they appear to be declining. Additionally, he reports seeing small, fairy-like creatures running around, although he knows they are not real. He has also had several unexplained falls. Apart from increased muscle tone in all limbs, there are no other neurological symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Different Types of Dementia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Dementia is a progressive cognitive impairment that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of dementia:
Dementia with Lewy bodies
This type of dementia is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive function, with a particular emphasis on memory loss and disorientation. It is caused by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are distributed more widely than in Parkinson’s disease. Diagnosis requires the presence of dementia, as well as two out of three core features: fluctuating attention and concentration, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism.Huntington’s disease
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically presents in middle age. It causes a deterioration in mental ability and mood, as well as uncoordinated movements and jerky, random motions. Diagnosis is made through genetic testing.Multi-infarct dementia
This type of dementia is caused by a history of interrupted blood supply to the brain, such as multiple strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.Pick’s disease
Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, Pick’s disease is characterized by a loss of inhibitions and other behavioral changes.Alzheimer’s disease
The most common type of dementia, Alzheimer’s is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function, including memory loss and disorientation. However, the presence of visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and a fluctuating course may indicate dementia with Lewy bodies instead.In conclusion, understanding the different types of dementia and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman is seeking preconception advice from her GP as she plans to start trying for a baby. Despite feeling relatively well, she has several pre-existing medical conditions. She is classified as grade 2 obese and has type 2 diabetes (which is managed with metformin), hypertension (treated with ramipril), gastro-oesophageal reflux (using ranitidine), and allergic rhinitis (taking loratadine). Additionally, she experiences back pain and takes paracetamol on a daily basis.
Which medication should she avoid during pregnancy?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Pregnant women should avoid taking ACE inhibitors like ramipril as they can lead to fetal abnormalities and renal failure. These medications are believed to hinder the production of fetal urine, resulting in oligohydramnios, and increase the likelihood of cranial and cardiac defects. However, other drugs do not pose any known risks during pregnancy and can be continued if necessary.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter after being found collapsed at home by his caregiver. He is complaining of a headache and appears confused. The patient has a history of an irregular heartbeat and takes digoxin and warfarin. On examination, there is no evidence of trauma or injury. The patient is confused with a Mini Mental score of 24/30 and is slightly drowsy but can be easily awakened. He has mild weakness in his left arm and leg, and the left plantar response is extensor. Urgent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 111 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), an INR of 5.7 (usual range for this patient: 2-3), and a urea level of 9.6 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l). An urgent CT scan is ordered. What is the most likely finding on the CT scan?
Your Answer: Right sided subarachnoid haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Right sided acute subdural haematoma
Explanation:Different Types of Intracranial Bleeding and Their Causes
Intracranial bleeding can occur in various forms, each with its own causes and symptoms. Here are some of the different types of intracranial bleeding and their associated factors:
1. Right Sided Acute Subdural Haematoma
This type of bleeding can occur in elderly patients who are on anticoagulation therapy, especially if their INR levels are higher than the therapeutic limits. The symptoms include fluctuating confusion and conscious level, and a history of trauma is not always necessary.2. Intraparenchymal Haematoma in the Right Temporal Lobe with Mass Effect
This type of bleeding is usually caused by trauma, hypertension, or an underlying neoplastic lesion. It is less common than subdural haematoma.3. Right Sided Extradural Haematoma
Extradural haematoma is associated with significant head trauma.4. Right Sided Chronic Subdural Haematoma
Chronic subdural haematoma has a longer, insidious course and is often accompanied by headache, impaired conscious level, and focal signs. Over-anticoagulation can increase the likelihood of this type of bleeding.5. Right Sided Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage is usually caused by significant trauma or a ruptured aneurysm.Overall, the elderly are more at risk of subdural haematomas due to factors such as thinner cortical bridging veins, increased subdural space, and increased probability of falls and use of medications that alter blood clotting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the hospital with a neck of femur fracture after slipping at her local supermarket. The orthopaedic SHO takes her medical history, which reveals that she has a history of ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. She went through menopause at 55 and was an avid jogger until the fall. Following surgical management of the fracture, a DEXA scan is performed, which shows a T score of -2.9, indicating osteoporosis. What aspect of the patient's medical history is most strongly linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Black ethnicity
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:The inclusion of rheumatoid arthritis in the FRAX assessment tool highlights its significance as a risk factor for osteoporosis. This connection is likely due to various factors, such as increased use of corticosteroids, limited mobility caused by joint pain, and the impact of systemic inflammation on bone remodelling. Conversely, engaging in high-impact exercise, experiencing menopause later in life, and being of black ethnicity are all associated with a lower risk of developing osteoporosis. Additionally, recent research suggests that osteoporosis may actually increase the risk of ischaemic heart disease, rather than the other way around.
Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus.
There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated on the medical ward due to increasing episodes of dyspnoea, mainly on exertion. She has been experiencing fatigue more frequently over the past few months. Upon examination, she exhibits slight wheezing and bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Her medical history includes type I diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension, recurrent UTIs, and hypothyroidism. Her current medications consist of insulin, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, and amlodipine. She has never smoked, drinks two units of alcohol per week, and does not use recreational drugs. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 152 g/l, a white cell count of 4.7 × 109/l, a sodium level of 142 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.6 mmol/l, a urea level of 5.4 mmol/l, and a creatinine level of 69 µmol/l. Additionally, her N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) level is 350 pg/ml, which is higher than the normal value of < 100 pg/ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Left ventricular failure
Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Cor Pulmonale vs. Other Conditions
Cor pulmonale, or right ventricular failure due to pulmonary heart disease, is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as wheeze, increasing fatigue, and pitting edema. The patient’s history of taking drugs known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, such as methotrexate and nitrofurantoin, supports this diagnosis. Aortic stenosis, asthma, COPD, and left ventricular failure are all possible differential diagnoses, but each has distinguishing factors that make them less likely. Aortic stenosis would not typically present with peripheral edema, while asthma and COPD do not fit with the patient’s lack of risk factors and absence of certain symptoms. Left ventricular failure is also less likely due to the absence of signs such as decreased breath sounds and S3 gallop on heart auscultation. Overall, cor pulmonale is the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has been prescribed tranexamic acid to alleviate symptoms of heavy menstrual bleeding. Can you explain the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid?
Your Answer: Vitamin K analogue
Correct Answer: Inhibits fibrin degradation
Explanation:Anticoagulant Medications and Their Mechanisms
Anticoagulant medications are used to prevent and treat thromboembolic disease. Tranexamic acid is a potent inhibitor of fibrinolysis, which is the process of breaking down blood clots. It works by blocking the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which is necessary for the breakdown of clots. Compared to aminocaproic acid, tranexamic acid is about 10 times more effective in inhibiting fibrinolysis.
Factor X inhibitors and vitamin K inhibitors, such as warfarin, are also used to prevent thromboembolic events. These medications work by interfering with the clotting cascade, which is a series of chemical reactions that lead to the formation of blood clots. By inhibiting the production of clotting factors, these medications can prevent the formation of new clots and reduce the risk of further events.
Aspirin and clopidogrel are medications that inhibit platelet aggregation. Platelets are small cells in the blood that play a key role in clot formation. By inhibiting platelet aggregation, these medications can reduce the risk of clot formation and prevent thromboembolic events. Aspirin works by blocking the production of thromboxane, a chemical that promotes platelet aggregation, while clopidogrel works by blocking the activation of platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with a tender nodule in the palm near the middle finger, which eventually becomes painless and leads to the formation of a superficial cord. This is followed by the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints of the finger. Fibrous nodules also develop on the penis. What is the inheritance pattern of this condition, which is more common in men?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns of Genetic Disorders
Genetic disorders can be inherited in different ways, depending on the specific condition. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in conditions such as Dupuytren’s contracture, which affects the palms and fingers. This condition is more common in men and can be passed down from one generation to the next with varying degrees of penetrance.
X-linked recessive conditions, such as haemophilia A and B, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females. Duchenne muscular dystrophy and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency are also X-linked recessive disorders.
Autosomal recessive conditions, such as cystic fibrosis and sickle-cell disease, require two copies of the mutated gene to be present for the disorder to manifest. Hereditary haemochromatosis is another autosomal recessive disorder that affects iron metabolism.
X-linked dominant conditions, such as Alport syndrome and vitamin D-resistant rickets, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and can affect both males and females.
Polygenic conditions, such as essential hypertension and diabetes mellitus, are influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors. These conditions can be more complex to understand and manage than single-gene disorders.
Understanding the inheritance patterns of genetic disorders can help individuals and families make informed decisions about their health and genetic testing options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of redness around his left eye and pain when moving his eye since waking up this morning. He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold for a few days. Upon examination of his left eye, there is redness around the eye, proptosis, limited and painful eye movements, and decreased visual acuity. The examination of his right eye is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis is a serious eye infection that can cause redness around the eye, pain when moving the eye, limited eye movement, bulging of the eye, and decreased vision. It is more commonly seen in children and is caused by an infection behind the orbital septum. This infection can spread from the sinuses, trauma to the eye, or from preseptal cellulitis. On the other hand, a chalazion, which is a small cyst in the eyelid, would not cause these symptoms. Optic neuritis, which is inflammation of the optic nerve, is often associated with multiple sclerosis and can cause vision problems and abnormal color vision. Preseptal cellulitis, which is an infection in front of the orbital septum, can cause eyelid swelling and drooping, but does not cause the same symptoms as orbital cellulitis. Sinusitis, which is inflammation of the sinuses, can lead to orbital cellulitis, but it does not fully explain the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes in with bilateral ankle swelling. During the examination, an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 7 cm above the sternal angle and large V waves are observed. Upon listening to the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is heard at the left sternal edge. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Common Heart Murmurs and Their Characteristics
Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.
Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur.
Pulmonary Stenosis: This condition produces an ejection systolic murmur.
Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.
Aortic Stenosis: Aortic stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck.
Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).
These common heart murmurs have distinct characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest X-ray, there are several rounded lesions with alveolar shadowing. Her serum test shows a positive result for cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Pulmonary Granulomas and Positive c-ANCA: A Case Study
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a rare autoimmune disease that often presents with granulomatous lung disease and alveolar capillaritis. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. Chest X-ray and computed tomography can show rounded lesions that may cavitate, while bronchoscopy can reveal granulomatous inflammation. In this case study, the chest radiograph appearances, epistaxis, and positive c-ANCA are more indicative of GPA than lung cancer, echinococcosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, or tuberculosis. While SLE can also cause pulmonary manifestations, cavitating lesions are not typical. Positive c-ANCA is associated with GPA, while SLE is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies, double-stranded DNA antibodies, and extractable nuclear antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to suspected learning difficulties. Whilst talking to her parents, you notice that she has a friendly and sociable personality. You begin to wonder if she might have William's syndrome.
What physical characteristic would be the strongest indicator of this diagnosis?Your Answer: Flattened philtrum
Correct Answer: Elfin facies
Explanation:William’s syndrome is linked to unique physical characteristics such as elfin facies, a broad forehead, strabismus, and short stature. It is important to note that Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by a tall and slender stature. Edward’s syndrome is associated with rocker-bottom feet, while foetal alcohol syndrome is linked to a flattened philtrum. Turner’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome are associated with webbing of the neck. Individuals with William’s syndrome often have an elongated, not flat philtrum.
Understanding William’s Syndrome
William’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects neurodevelopment and is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The condition is characterized by a range of physical and cognitive features, including elfin-like facies, short stature, and learning difficulties. Individuals with William’s syndrome also tend to have a very friendly and social demeanor, which is a hallmark of the condition. Other common symptoms include transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and supravalvular aortic stenosis.
Diagnosis of William’s syndrome is typically made through FISH studies, which can detect the microdeletion on chromosome 7. While there is no cure for the condition, early intervention and support can help individuals with William’s syndrome to manage their symptoms and lead fulfilling lives. With a better understanding of this disorder, we can work towards improving the lives of those affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer: Compensatory
Correct Answer: Panacinar
Explanation:Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics
Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.
Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.
Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.
Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.
Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.
In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?
Rewritten: Which ONE of the following women, who are all 35 years old, has gestational hypertension?Your Answer: 32 weeks gestation and BP 170/100 and proteinuria ++
Correct Answer: 22 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and no proteinuria
Explanation:If high blood pressure occurs after 20 weeks gestation and there is no proteinuria, it is considered gestational hypertension. However, if high blood pressure is present before 20 weeks, it is likely pre-existing hypertension.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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As a GP, you come across a 42-year-old man who had an incidental discovery of hyperlipidaemia during a recent insurance medical examination at work. His test results showed cholesterol levels of 22 mmol/L (ideal <5 mmol/L) with triglycerides of 18 mmol/L (<1.5 mmol/L). He is generally healthy but has low albumin and peripheral oedema. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows:
Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: +++
Glucose: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: Negative
Ketones: +
What could be the possible explanation for these findings?Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, low levels of serum albumin, and peripheral edema. Patients with this condition often have severe hyperlipidemia, with total cholesterol levels exceeding 10 mmol/L. Additionally, the loss of natural anticoagulants in the urine can lead to altered clotting, which requires treatment with antiplatelet agents and/or low molecular weight heparin.
It is important to note that in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome, the levels of urea and creatinine may appear normal despite underlying renal pathology. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients with marked hyperlipidemia and proteinuria on urinalysis for signs of nephrotic syndrome. If diagnosed, patients should be referred to a local renal team for management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left flank pain and haematuria that has persisted for 3 weeks. She also reports a dry cough that has worsened over the past month. The patient has a history of smoking for 10 pack years. During the examination, a palpable mass is detected in the left flank. The patient is prescribed pembrolizumab and axitinib for treatment. What stage of cancer is likely to have been present at the time of diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stage 3
Correct Answer: Stage 4
Explanation:The patient’s renal cell carcinoma had progressed to stage 4, which is metastatic and often presents with symptoms. This was supported by the fact that the patient was treated with pembrolizumab and axitinib, which are the first-line options for stage 4 disease. Stage 1 and 2 were ruled out as they are typically treated with surgical resection, surveillance, or local ablation. Stage 3 was also ruled out as it involves nearby structure invasion but no distant metastases, and is treated with radical nephrectomy.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A patient with risk factors for atherosclerosis presents with pain (even when resting) in the leg.
About which sign or symptom are you most concerned in an elderly patient?Your Answer: Cold limb
Correct Answer: Paraesthesiae
Explanation:Understanding the Six Ps of Limb Ischaemia
Limb ischaemia is a serious condition that can lead to the loss of a limb if not treated promptly. To diagnose acute limb ischaemia, doctors look for the six Ps: pain, paraesthesiae, paralysis, pulselessness, pallor, and coldness. Of these, paraesthesiae and paralysis are the most concerning, as they indicate that the limb is at risk of being lost within 24 hours without intervention.
It’s important to note that pulselessness, pain, pallor, and coldness are also symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, but they don’t necessarily indicate the severity of the condition. For example, a patient may have a pulseless limb but still have time to save the limb with proper treatment. Similarly, a patient may experience pain, pallor, or coldness, but these symptoms alone don’t necessarily mean that the limb is in immediate danger.
In summary, understanding the six Ps of limb ischaemia is crucial for diagnosing and treating this serious condition. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, seek medical attention immediately to prevent the loss of the limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. The PCP observes a lump in the center of her neck and proceeds to conduct a cardiovascular and thyroid function assessment. During the examination, the patient appears sluggish and has a subdued mood. Her heart rate is 68 bpm and her blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg; there is paleness of the conjunctivae. The lump is symmetrically enlarged without skin alterations; it moves upward when swallowing and has a nodular consistency.
What is the most appropriate initial test to perform for diagnostic assistance?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Thyroid Function Tests: Initial Investigation for Hypothyroidism
When a patient presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of hypothyroidism, the most appropriate initial test is thyroid function tests. However, if a neck swelling is also present, an ultrasound scan may be useful to assess for a goitre. If a cystic swelling is identified, a fine-needle aspirate sample may be taken for cytological analysis. A radio-isotope scan may also be performed to further assess thyroid pathology. While a full blood count is typically checked at the same time, it is not the best answer given the scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Correct
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An 87-year-old man is admitted with fever, nausea and diarrhoea for four days. Stool culture grows Escherichia coli. His laboratory results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/
Magnesium 0.2 mmol/l 0.75 –1.00 mmol/l
Urea 11 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Which of the following should be used to manage his hypomagnesaemia?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hypomagnesaemia
Hypomagnesaemia, or low magnesium levels in the blood, can cause a range of symptoms including tremors, tetany, cramps, seizures, ataxia, and muscle weakness. Treatment options depend on the severity of the condition.
For severe hypomagnesaemia with magnesium concentrations of less than 0.4, intravenous magnesium sulfate is recommended. This can be administered over 3-12 hours in a solution of 0.9% sodium chloride or 5% glucose.
For mild or moderate hypomagnesaemia with magnesium concentrations above 0.4, oral magnesium replacement with aspartate or glycerophosphate can be used. Oral treatment is limited by the onset of diarrhea, and the amount given should be about twice the estimated deficit in patients with intact renal function.
It is important to recheck magnesium concentration in 24 hours after treatment. Concurrent hypokalaemia or hypocalcaemia should also be addressed, as these electrolyte disturbances are difficult to correct until magnesium has been repleted.
Intramuscular magnesium is effective but slower to increase serum magnesium concentration and can be painful. Therefore, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the severity of hypomagnesaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents with gradual onset abdominal pain that has been getting progressively worse for 4 days. She reports feeling nauseated and has vomited twice today. Her temperature is 38.4ºC, blood pressure is 116/82 mmHg, and heart rate is 104 beats per minute. The uterus is palpable just above the umbilicus and a fetal heartbeat is heard via hand-held Doppler. On speculum examination, the cervix is closed and there is no blood. She has a history of menorrhagia due to uterine fibroids. This is her first pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroid degeneration
Explanation:During pregnancy, uterine fibroids can grow due to their sensitivity to oestrogen. If their growth exceeds their blood supply, they may undergo red or ‘carneous’ degeneration, which can cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting. Treatment typically involves rest and pain relief, and the condition should resolve within a week. It is unlikely that this is a multiple pregnancy, as it would have been detected by now, and a closed cervical os suggests that a miscarriage is not imminent.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is receiving trastuzumab as part of her treatment. What is the rationale for using trastuzumab in breast cancer therapy?
Your Answer: HER2 +ve
Explanation:Trastuzumab (herceptin) is only recommended for women who test positive for HER2. Women who test positive for ER can be prescribed tamoxifen or aromatase inhibitors, depending on their menopausal status.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of redness, grittiness, and stickiness in both eyes for the past 5 days. She also reports experiencing whitish-yellow discharge on her lids, particularly in the morning. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, and there is diffuse injection of the conjunctivae with mild chemosis. The cornea shows no fluorescein uptake. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's eye condition?
Your Answer: Topical chloramphenicol eye drops
Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid eye drops
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bacterial Conjunctivitis in Pregnant Women
Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that can occur during pregnancy. While topical antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment, certain options should be avoided or used with caution in pregnant women. Here are the treatment options for bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women:
Topical Fusidic Acid Eye Drops: These eye drops are typically a second-line choice for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but they are often the first-line treatment for pregnant women.
Topical Steroid Eye Drops: These eye drops are not recommended for bacterial conjunctivitis, especially in pregnant women.
Artificial Tears: While artificial tears can provide relief for dry eyes, they are not useful in treating bacterial conjunctivitis.
Eye Shield: An eye shield is not necessary for bacterial conjunctivitis.
Topical Chloramphenicol Eye Drops: Topical antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but chloramphenicol should be avoided in pregnant women unless it is essential. The British National Formulary recommends avoiding topical chloramphenicol due to the risk of neonatal grey-baby syndrome with oral use in the third trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presented with worsening constipation. One year previously she had been discharged from hospital following an acute coronary syndrome and atrial fibrillation. She was treated with several new drugs in hospital and was adherent to all of them.
Which one of her medications is most likely to have caused her constipation?Your Answer: Nicorandil
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Common Side-Effects of Medications for Cardiovascular Conditions
Verapamil, Ramipril, Aspirin, Nicorandil, and Simvastatin are medications commonly used in the treatment of cardiovascular conditions. However, they also come with some common side-effects that patients should be aware of.
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause constipation, headache, hypotension, reflux symptoms, nausea, peripheral oedema, fatigue, atrioventricular block, flushing, and bradycardia.
Ramipril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, can cause first-dose hypotension, dry cough, renal dysfunction, dizziness, and diarrhoea.
Aspirin, a blood thinner, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, nosebleeds, reflux symptoms, and abdominal pain/cramping.
Nicorandil, a vasodilator, can cause mouth/skin/anal ulceration, headaches, dizziness, flushing, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting.
Simvastatin, a cholesterol-lowering medication, can cause myopathy, deranged liver function tests/hepatitis, reflux symptoms, diarrhoea, gastrointestinal disturbance, and joint pains.
It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found wandering the streets in an agitated state. His medical history includes hepatic steatosis, hypertension, and asthma, and he regularly takes amlodipine and Symbicort. He drinks up to 1 liter of vodka daily and has smoked for 30 years. He has not been seen by his family for 2-3 days before these events. His vital signs are heart rate 111 beats per minute, blood pressure 170/94 mmHg, respiratory rate 23 /min, oxygen saturations 97% on air, and temperature 37.2ºC. He is tremulous, diaphoretic, and agitated. Shortly after examination, he has a self-terminating seizure lasting 30 seconds. Blood tests and a CT head are performed, with the latter being reported as normal. What is the best medication choice to prevent further seizures?
Your Answer: Intravenous hypertonic saline
Correct Answer: Oral chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Chlordiazepoxide is the preferred medication for treating delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal, not diazepam. Symptoms of minor alcohol withdrawal, such as tremors, anxiety, and headaches, typically appear 6-12 hours after alcohol cessation and can progress to alcoholic hallucinosis, withdrawal seizures, and delirium tremens. Delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal seizures are treated with chlordiazepoxide as the first-line medication. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA) score is used to manage alcohol withdrawal in hospital, with benzodiazepines being administered based on the score. Intravenous glucose, intravenous hypertonic saline, and intravenous levetiracetam are not appropriate treatments for delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department with confusion. She has a history of manic illness. There is no evidence of alcohol or drug abuse. Upon examination, she displays mild jaundice and signs of chronic liver disease, such as spider naevi and palmar erythema. Additionally, there is a brownish ring discoloration at the limbus of the cornea.
Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 130 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 85 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Ferritin 100 μg/l 10–120 µg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with liver disease and neurological symptoms
Wilson’s disease, haemochromatosis, alcohol-related cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis are among the possible causes of liver disease. In the case of a patient with Kayser-Fleischer rings, the likelihood of Wilson’s disease increases, as this is a characteristic sign of copper overload due to defective incorporation of copper and caeruloplasmin. Neurological symptoms such as disinhibition, emotional lability, and chorea may also suggest Wilson’s disease, although they are not specific to it. Haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron overload, can be ruled out if the ferritin level is normal. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is less likely if the patient denies alcohol or drug abuse, but this information may not always be reliable. Viral hepatitis is a common cause of liver disease, but in this case, there are no obvious risk factors in the history. Primary sclerosing cholangitis, which is a chronic inflammatory disease of the bile ducts, does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s clinical features, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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