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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
Right 0.95
Left 0.95
The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the best course of action to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?Your Answer: Intermittent pneumatic compression
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia presents to dermatology with multiple lesions on his shin. Upon examination, symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules are observed. The lesions are healing without scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:The relevant diagnosis for this question relies solely on the description of the lesions, as the patient’s medical history is not a factor. Specifically, the tender shin lesions are indicative of erythema nodosum.
Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features
Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with a painful rash on her foot. She says that it started several weeks ago and often stings. Examination reveals a red rash in the interdigital spaces, with small fissures and white exudate.
What is the most appropriate treatment option?Your Answer: Topical miconazole
Explanation:Understanding Topical Treatments for Skin Conditions
Athlete’s foot is a common fungal infection that affects the toe webs and is often caused by excess moisture. The first-line treatment for this condition is a topical antifungal such as miconazole or terbinafine cream, which should be used twice daily for four weeks. If there is no improvement, further investigations may be required, and oral antifungals may be prescribed. It is important to advise patients on foot hygiene and to avoid walking barefoot in communal areas.
Dithranol is a topical treatment for psoriasis, a condition that presents as large, scaly plaques with a symmetrical distribution. This is different from athlete’s foot, which is characterized by a moist, peeling rash between the toes. Emollients, which are topical moisturizers, are used for atopic eczema management and have no role in treating athlete’s foot.
Oral terbinafine is reserved for severe or extensive fungal infections that cannot be treated with topical antifungal agents. Finally, while an antifungal/topical steroid combination may reduce symptoms more rapidly in cases of inflamed tissue, it has no overall benefit. Moderately potent topical steroids such as eumovate are more appropriate for managing atopic eczema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with blisters on his skin. He reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing, and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by his doctor, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, he has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral ulcers that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy shows circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other condition is likely to be present in this patient?
Your Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes
Explanation:Understanding Autoimmune Blistering Conditions: Pemphigus Vulgaris and Bullous Pemphigoid
Pemphigus Vulgaris: Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged patients. The condition is caused by Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies against desmosomal components (desmogleins 1 and 3) of the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that rupture easily, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are usually positive. The condition requires aggressive treatment, with high-dose steroids initially used, and life-long maintenance doses often needed. Immunologicals are being trialled.
Bullous Pemphigoid: Another Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Bullous pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering condition that typically affects older patients. The condition is caused by antibodies directed to the deeper basement membrane of the skin. This results in tense, firm, often haemorrhagic blisters that do not rupture easily. Oral lesions are rare, and Nikolsky’s sign is negative. Immunofluorescence reveals linear IgG and C3 deposits along the basement membrane of the skin, and antibodies against hemidesmosomes may be positive. The condition carries significantly less morbidity than pemphigus vulgaris, and topical steroid cream (ex: clobetasol propionate usually suffices).
No Link to Other Conditions
There is no link between pemphigus vulgaris or bullous pemphigoid and other conditions such as alopecia, positive HIV serology, or psoriasis. It is important to understand the differences between these autoimmune blistering conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Correct Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:Erythema nodosum caused by syphilis is uncommon.
Understanding Erythema Nodosum
Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body such as the forearms and thighs. The condition usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.
There are several possible causes of erythema nodosum, including infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s can also lead to the condition. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be associated with malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs like penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also trigger the condition.
Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of erythema nodosum is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema and Crohn's disease presents with a pruritic, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. She works as a nurse and frequently scratches the back of her knees while on duty. This is the third time she has experienced such a popliteal rash. She reports having had similar skin conditions affecting her posterior neck and inguinal areas in the past.
Upon examination, both popliteal areas are inflamed with mild swelling and exudation. There are some accompanying vesicles and papules.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions and Their Distribution: Understanding the Diagnosis
When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as their appearance. For instance, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis, especially if the patient has a history of asthma. Acute dermatitis typically presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.
On the other hand, dermatitis herpetiformis, which is often associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, presents with grouped vesicles and papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. A rash limited to the popliteal region is unlikely to be dermatitis herpetiformis.
Lichen planus, characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, is mostly found on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, which presents with silvery, scaling, erythematous plaques, is primarily found on the extensor surfaces. Seborrhoeic dermatitis, which is found in the distribution of the sebaceous glands, such as the nasolabial folds, scalp, eyebrows, genitalia, and presternal regions, is unlikely to be the cause of a rash limited to the popliteal region.
In summary, understanding the distribution and location of skin lesions is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis of dermatological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Explanation:Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.
Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.
There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.
In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of severe itching, which is mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past two to three weeks and is now unbearable. She mentions having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem.
You notice an erythematous, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 80 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
You draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip. Rubbing off the excess reveals several burrows.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Itching and Skin Lesions: Scabies, Atopic Dermatitis, Erythema Infectiosum, Folliculitis, and Keratosis Pilaris
A patient presents with itching between the web spaces and in the groin, which has been ongoing for three to four weeks. The patient reports sexual intercourse as a possible mode of transmission. The differential diagnosis includes scabies, atopic dermatitis, erythema infectiosum, folliculitis, and keratosis pilaris.
Scabies is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with itching after a delay of three to four weeks following skin-to-skin contact. A washable felt-tip can be used to identify the burrows of the scabies mites, and treatment involves a typical topical agent such as permethrin cream.
Atopic dermatitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents with a rash/itch on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.
Erythema infectiosum is a doubtful diagnosis, as it primarily affects children and presents with a slapped cheek appearance and other symptoms such as fever and headache.
Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it presents with pinpoint erythematous lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.
Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It is also unrelated to sexual activity.
In conclusion, scabies is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms, and treatment with a topical agent such as permethrin cream is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his axillary skin. He reports feeling otherwise healthy and denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, you observe thickened and darkened skin in the axillary creases. The patient's BMI is 38 kg/m² and his blood pressure is within normal limits. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:A thickened brown velvety patch of skin, often accompanied by skin tags, is a common sign of Acanthosis nigricans (AN). This condition is typically found in the axilla, groin, and back of the neck. However, AN is not a standalone condition, but rather a cutaneous sign of underlying disease. The most common type of AN is associated with obesity and insulin resistance. Other underlying conditions linked to AN include Cushing’s syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain medications such as nicotinic acid, insulin, and systemic corticosteroids. In rare cases, AN may indicate an underlying malignancy, particularly stomach cancer. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this possibility when making a diagnosis.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 24-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner with a rapidly growing lesion on the tip of her index finger. It began as a small spot but has rapidly increased in size over the past five days. It is dark red in colour and causes discomfort and easy bleeding when working in her café.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Choose the ONE most likely diagnosis from the options below.Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Lesions: Pyogenic Granuloma, BCC, Haemangioma, Melanoma, and Viral Wart
Skin lesions can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate them to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common skin lesions and their characteristics:
Pyogenic Granuloma
Pyogenic granulomas are benign vascular lesions that grow rapidly and bleed easily. They appear as a fleshy nodule and can be polyploid. They commonly occur in children, young adults, and pregnancy and are often found on the fingers and hands.Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)
BCC is a slow-growing, locally invasive lesion that appears on sun-exposed skin. It has a characteristic rolled edge and is more prevalent in elderly patients with fair skin and a history of sun exposure. BCC can be skin-colored, pink, or pigmented.Haemangioma
Haemangiomas are benign lesions caused by a collection of blood vessels under the skin. They commonly occur in infants and are known as strawberry marks. A new lesion that grows rapidly is unlikely to be a haemangioma.Melanoma
Melanoma is a malignant tumour that arises from the over-proliferation of cutaneous melanocytes. It can occur anywhere on the body and has characteristic asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and large diameter. The ABCDE criteria of melanoma can help in identifying it.Viral Wart
Viral warts are benign skin lesions caused by human papillomavirus infection. They commonly occur in school-aged children and have a rough, hyperkeratotic surface.In conclusion, identifying the characteristics of different skin lesions can help in determining the appropriate treatment and management. It is important to seek medical advice if there is any doubt about the nature of a skin lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots on her shoulder. She reports that the lesions are accompanied by several tiny blood vessels that radiate from the center. During the examination, you observe that applying pressure to the spots causes them to turn white and then refill from the center. What condition is typically associated with this type of lesion?
Your Answer: Liver failure
Explanation:When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, fatigue, and a tingling sensation in the lateral aspect of his left thigh. The tingling was initially tolerable but has become increasingly painful over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the area described is erythematous with a macular rash appearing. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral therapy with an undetectable viral load. He denies any cough, coryzal symptoms, focal neurological signs, or trauma to the site.
What is the appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis? Choose from the options provided.Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, as this can help reduce the risk of post-herpetic complications. In the case of this patient, who is experiencing symptoms of shingles within the 72-hour window and has an immunosuppressive condition, antivirals such as aciclovir should be prescribed. Amitriptyline, which is used to manage post-herpetic neuralgia, would not be appropriate at this stage. Chlorphenamine is typically used to manage itching associated with chickenpox, but as this patient is only experiencing symptoms in one dermatome, it is more likely to be shingles. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic used to treat bacterial skin infections, would not be appropriate in this case as the patient’s symptoms are consistent with herpes zoster infection.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days, she experiences a prodromal illness with symptoms of sore throat, malaise, and conjunctivitis. She then develops a rash that initially presents as erythematous macules on her torso and progresses to blisters, covering less than 10% of her body surface area. Additionally, she has painful ulcers in her mouth, stomatitis, and worsening conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that is characterized by a rash that affects a small area of the body or the entire body surface. It can be caused by drugs or other factors. The exact cause of this condition is unknown. The rash typically appears on the hands and feet and is often raised. In some cases, the rash may also affect the mucous membranes. This is known as the major form of erythema multiforme.
Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects both the skin and mucosa. It is usually caused by a drug reaction and is considered a separate entity from erythema multiforme. Common causes of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills. The rash associated with this syndrome is typically maculopapular with target lesions, which may develop into vesicles or bullae. A positive Nikolsky sign is observed in erythematous areas, where blisters and erosions appear when the skin is gently rubbed. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur. Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of hypopigmented skin lesions on her chest and back. She has just come back from a trip to Spain and has a tanned complexion. During examination, the lesions appear to be slightly scaly. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about a mole on his leg. He has noticed over the past few months that it has increased in size. On examination, the mole is 7 mm in diameter and has an irregular border but is a consistent colour.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Your Answer: 2-week wait referral to dermatology
Explanation:Understanding Referral Guidelines for Suspicious Pigmented Lesions
When assessing pigmented lesions, the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the 7-point scoring system.
The 7-point checklist includes:
Major features (2 points each):
change in size
irregular shape or border
irregular colour.
Minor features (1 point each):
> 7 mm at greatest diameter
inflammation
oozing or crusting
change in sensation including itch.Lesions scoring 3 or more or with other suspicious features of melanoma should be referred urgently via the cancer fast-track pathway to dermatology.
For lesions with a low suspicion of melanoma, a photo should be taken with a ruler and the patient advised to return in eight weeks for review. However, lesions scoring 5 on the checklist, like those with a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, should be referred urgently to a dermatologist to avoid any delay in diagnosis and subsequent treatment.
Excision of lesions suspicious of melanoma should be avoided in primary care as this can delay treatment, and incomplete excision is more common. Routine referral to dermatology would be suitable for a pigmented lesion which scores less than 3 on the 7-point checklist if there are no other features to suggest melanoma. Referral to genetics is recommended if three or more family members have been diagnosed with melanoma.
It is important to understand these referral guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of suspicious pigmented lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are examining a 7-month-old infant who has a capillary haemangioma located on the right cheek that is beginning to interfere with their vision. Following a conversation with the parents, you have decided to initiate treatment for this area due to the potential impact on eyesight.
What is the primary treatment option for capillary haemangioma?Your Answer: Surgical removal
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:When it comes to capillary haemangiomas that require intervention, the preferred treatment is propranolol. Other options include laser therapy or systemic steroids, but topical steroids are unlikely to be effective. Surgery is generally not recommended for most cases.
Understanding Strawberry Naevus
Strawberry naevus, also known as capillary haemangioma, is a type of skin condition that usually develops in infants within the first month of life. It is characterized by raised, erythematous, and multilobed tumours that commonly appear on the face, scalp, and back. While it is not present at birth, it can grow rapidly and reach its peak size at around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve before the child reaches 10 years of age. However, there are potential complications that may arise, such as obstructing visual fields or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia.
Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in female and premature infants, as well as those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling. In cases where treatment is necessary, propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers like timolol may also be used. It is important to note that there is a deeper type of capillary haemangioma called cavernous haemangioma. Understanding the nature of strawberry naevus is crucial in managing its potential complications and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of hair loss. She reports noticing that her hair has become significantly thinner and that she is shedding more hair than usual, both on her pillow and in the shower drain. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history except for giving birth to her first child 6 months ago. She is not taking any medications regularly and there is no family history of hair loss. On examination, her scalp hair is uniformly thin, but there are no areas of complete hair loss. Her systemic examination is unremarkable and her vital signs are within normal limits. Blood tests, including iron studies and thyroid function, are all normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Correct Answer: Telogen effluvium
Explanation:Telogen effluvium is characterized by hair loss and thinning as a result of experiencing significant stress. In this case, the patient’s recent physical stress from giving birth is a likely cause of her hair becoming thinner due to telogen effluvium. The hair loss patterns observed do not match those of alopecia areata or alopecia totalis, which respectively cause distinct areas of complete hair loss or complete loss of all hair on the head and face.
Input:
Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.Output:
– Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
– Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
– Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old Asian woman presents with completely depigmented patches of skin on her arms and legs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders
Skin pigmentation disorders are conditions that affect the color of the skin. Here are some of the most common ones:
Vitiligo: This rare condition is believed to be caused by the immune system attacking melanocytes, resulting in patches of skin with no pigment. It is more common in people of African descent.
Albinism: This genetic disorder reduces the activity of tyrosinase in melanocytes, resulting in a complete lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes.
Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that develops from melanocytes. It is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles.
Melasma: This condition causes increased pigmentation, usually under the eyes. It is common in pregnant women and users of oral contraceptives.
Pityriasis alba: This condition causes white, scaly patches on the face, and is most commonly seen in children.
Understanding these skin pigmentation disorders can help individuals identify and manage them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nail changes is least likely to occur in psoriasis for a 30-year-old patient?
Your Answer: Onycholysis
Correct Answer: Yellow nail syndrome
Explanation:Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthropathy: Nail Changes
Psoriasis is a skin condition that can also affect the nails. The changes in the nails do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy have nail changes.
The nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and loss of the nail. These changes can affect both the fingers and toes. It is important to note that while nail changes may not be a reliable indicator of psoriasis severity, they can be a sign of psoriatic arthropathy, which is a type of arthritis that can occur in people with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Roseola infantum
Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has type 2 diabetes that is currently well managed with dapagliflozin. Upon examination, a purple rash with bullae is observed covering the entire perineum and extending up the scrotum. The patient reports intense pain, but reduced sensation is noted upon palpation of the rash. Vital signs are as follows: BP 110/90 mmHg, heart rate 109bpm, respiration rate 21/minute, temperature 38.1ºC, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Correct Answer: Necrotizing fasciitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, which often affects the perineum. The patient is experiencing severe pain, which may be causing his fever and rapid heart and breathing rates. As a type 2 diabetic taking dapagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, his risk of developing necrotizing fasciitis is increased. While cellulitis can have similar symptoms in the early stages, the presence of bullae, purple discoloration, and severe pain in a patient with risk factors for necrotizing fasciitis make it less likely. Septic arthritis is not a likely diagnosis as it affects joint spaces, which is not the case in this patient. Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is associated with inflammatory conditions, is not a likely diagnosis as the rash is not ulcerated and the patient has no history of inflammatory bowel disease or rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis
Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.
The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.
Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of a lesion on his shin. During the examination, the dermatologist observes shiny, painless areas of yellow skin with numerous telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Explanation:Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a condition characterized by waxy yellow shin lesions that often occur in individuals with diabetes.
Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features
Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash on her palms and forearms. The rash has white lines visible across its surface and scratching has worsened it. Additionally, she has noticed thinning of her nails with longitudinal ridges visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Emollients
Correct Answer: Potent topical steroids
Explanation:The primary treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Emollients are not effective for this condition, and oral steroids may only be necessary in severe or resistant cases. Calcipotriol, a synthetic vitamin D derivative, is used for psoriasis and not lichen planus. Fusidic acid is an antibiotic used for staphylococcal skin infections, such as impetigo, and is not indicated for lichen planus.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father who has noticed a number of small 'spots' and 'bruises' on his legs that have developed over the past 2-3 days. He initially thought this was due to an allergy but it has not gone away. His son is described as being well apart from a cough he's had for the past 2 weeks.
On examination, he is apyrexial with a heart rate of 98/min. Examination of his ears, throat and chest is normal. There is no neck stiffness or abdominal masses. A number of petechiae are seen around his chest area as well as purpura on his lower legs and arms.
What is the most appropriate action?Your Answer: Sensitively ask about the possibility of non-accidental injury
Correct Answer: Admit immediately to paediatrics
Explanation:If a child develops purpura suddenly, it is crucial to refer them for urgent investigations to rule out meningococcal disease and ALL. Although petechiae may occur in viral infections or due to increased pressure in the superior vena cava, purpura is never a normal finding in children. Therefore, immediate admission is necessary to exclude any serious underlying condition. In case of suspicion of meningococcal septicaemia, antibiotics should be administered parenterally without delaying transfer.
Understanding Purpura: Causes and Symptoms
Purpura is a medical condition characterized by bleeding into the skin from small blood vessels, resulting in a non-blanching rash. It is often caused by low platelets, but it can also be associated with bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease. In addition to the rash, smaller petechiae may also be present, which are tiny red or purple spots on the skin.
It is crucial to recognize purpura as it can indicate the presence of serious underlying diseases. In children, a new purpuric rash should be treated as an emergency and investigated immediately, as it may be a sign of meningococcal septicaemia or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, parenteral antibiotics should be given before transfer.
The causes of purpura can vary depending on the age group. In children, it can be caused by meningococcal septicaemia, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, congenital bleeding disorders, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, or non-accidental injury. In adults, it can be caused by immune thrombocytopenic purpura, bone marrow failure (secondary to leukaemias, myelodysplasia, or bone metastases), senile purpura, drugs (quinine, antiepileptics, antithrombotics), or nutritional deficiencies (vitamins B12, C, and folate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her scalp, which is well-defined. The hair loss is affecting approximately 25% of her scalp, and she is experiencing significant emotional distress. The doctor suspects alopecia areata. What would be an appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer: Topical corticosteroid + referral to dermatologist
Explanation:The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.
NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.
ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.
Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient visits the GP office with a concerning facial rash. She reports that the rash worsens after consuming alcohol and has not attempted any treatment before. During the examination, the doctor observes facial erythema, papules, and pustules scattered on the chin and cheeks, and telangiectasia of the lesions. The nasolabial groove is also affected, but there are no comedones. What is the best initial treatment for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral isotretinoin
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, the most appropriate initial option is topical metronidazole. This patient, who presents with erythematous papules and pustules exacerbated by alcohol and telangiectasia, falls under this category. Oral tetracycline can be considered for severe or resistant cases, but it is not necessary for this patient. Oral doxycycline is a second-line treatment option for resistant cases, but it has potential adverse effects such as nausea, diarrhoea, oesophagitis, and increased photosensitivity. Oral isotretinoin and topical adapalene are not indicated for the management of rosacea symptoms and should be avoided. Topical hydrocortisone can even worsen rosacea symptoms and should not be used.
Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:
Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is the correct answer, which is a skin rash that is closely linked to coeliac disease. This is a persistent skin condition that causes blisters, but it is not caused by or related to the herpes virus. It is important to note that dapsone is an effective treatment for Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a common question in exams. Additionally, a gluten-free diet can also help alleviate symptoms.
Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.
It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a firm, round swelling over the angle of his jaw that has been growing for two years. The patient is having difficulty shaving his beard due to the size of the swelling. The GP suspects a sebaceous cyst and the patient is eager for treatment to alleviate his symptoms. What is the best course of action to prevent further discomfort?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical excision
Explanation:To prevent the sebaceous cyst from recurring, it is necessary to surgically remove the entire structure. This can be done by a general practitioner or a surgical team, but funding for the procedure may be limited due to its lower clinical priority. Patients may opt to have the surgery done privately. Incision and drainage or fine needle aspiration may provide temporary relief, but the cyst is likely to return. Intralesional steroids are not recommended in this case, as there is no infection present. Oral antibiotics are also unnecessary. Complete surgical excision offers the best chance for long-term resolution of the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Sebaceous Cysts
Sebaceous cysts refer to a group of cysts that include both epidermoid and pilar cysts. However, the term is not entirely accurate and should be avoided if possible. Epidermoid cysts occur when there is an overgrowth of epidermal cells in the dermis, while pilar cysts, also known as trichilemmal cysts or wen, originate from the outer root sheath of the hair follicle. These cysts can appear anywhere on the body, but are most commonly found on the scalp, ears, back, face, and upper arm, and will typically have a punctum.
To prevent recurrence, it is essential to remove the entire cyst wall during excision. While sebaceous cysts are generally harmless, they can become infected and cause discomfort or pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old office worker complains of widespread pruritus for the last 2 weeks. She has no particular history of note, though she is currently staying with her parents due to financial difficulties. She has noticed the itching is particularly bad at night. On examination, she has several circular erythematous lesions on her arms and legs.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin cream applied from neck down for 8-14 hours
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies Infestation
Scabies infestation is a common condition that can affect anyone, but those with poor personal hygiene, immunocompromisation, low socioeconomic status, and those working in industrial settings are at higher risk. The first-line treatment for scabies is the application of Permethrin 5% cream from the neck down for 8-14 hours, followed by washing it off. It is important to treat all household contacts simultaneously, even if they are symptom-free. Additionally, all affected linens should be washed and cleaned immediately.
While 5% Hydrocortisone cream can be applied twice daily to relieve itching, it will not treat the underlying infestation. Similarly, emollient cream can be applied regularly to moisturize the skin, but it will not treat the infestation.
If Permethrin is not effective, Malathion cream can be used as a second-line treatment. It should be applied from the neck down for 24 hours and then washed off.
Oral antihistamines can be used to treat the symptomatic itch, but they do not address the underlying infestation. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended treatment plan and seek medical advice if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish birthmark. The mother was informed that it may not disappear on its own and could be linked to other vascular issues. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Port wine stain
Explanation:Understanding Port Wine Stains
Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.
Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that requires multiple sessions. It’s important to note that while these treatments can help reduce the appearance of port wine stains, they may not completely eliminate them. Understanding the nature of port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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