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  • Question 1 - A 5-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her father. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her father. She has been feeling sick for the past 48 hours with a fever, sore throat, and fatigue. She has no appetite and her father has noticed blisters in her mouth, as well as a rash on her hands and feet. You suspect hand, foot and mouth disease. What recommendations do you provide for treatment?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 5-day course of oral acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Manage supportively, simple analgesia, no need to exclude from nursery

      Explanation:

      Children with hand, foot and mouth disease do not need to be excluded from childcare or school. Supportive management and simple pain relief are sufficient, and antibiotics are not necessary as the condition is caused by a virus. There is no evidence to support the use of antivirals or chlorhexidine mouthwash. Although the illness is contagious and often occurs in outbreaks at nurseries and schools, NICE guidelines suggest that children should only be kept off if they are too ill to attend.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

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  • Question 2 - A father brings his 9-month-old to the pediatrician with concerns about a rash....

    Correct

    • A father brings his 9-month-old to the pediatrician with concerns about a rash. The infant developed a fever and cold-like symptoms a few days ago, and the rash appeared yesterday evening. It's worth noting that the baby started daycare two weeks ago. During the examination, the child is alert and responsive with good muscle tone. The baby has no fever, and all vital signs are normal. There is some nasal congestion, and a papular rash is present on the trunk, which disappears when pressed.

      What is the probable cause of the rash?

      Your Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

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  • Question 3 - You see a 10-year-old child in afternoon surgery. He presents with pain over...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 10-year-old child in afternoon surgery. He presents with pain over his left tibia. Although he plays football with his friends regularly, there is no history of significant injury.

      Which one of the following would be a red-flag prompting early referral?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of a bruise over the site

      Explanation:

      Bone Tumours and Osteochondrosis: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Rest pain, back pain, and unexplained limp may indicate the presence of a bone tumour and require immediate attention from a paediatrician. In such cases, referral or x-ray may be necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms. Osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercles, previously known as Osgood-Schlatters syndrome, typically presents with bilateral tibial tuberosity pain that subsides with rest.

      Bone tumours are most commonly found in the limbs, particularly around the knee in the case of osteosarcoma. If persistent localised bone pain and/or swelling is present, an x-ray should be taken to rule out the possibility of a bone tumour. If a bone tumour is suspected, an urgent referral should be made.

      It is important to note that a history of injury should not be assumed to exclude the possibility of a bone sarcoma.

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  • Question 4 - In your morning clinic, a 5-year-old child comes in with her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • In your morning clinic, a 5-year-old child comes in with her mother. She has a rash that has been present for two days on her face and arms. She is otherwise healthy but has mild eczema. The mother reports that the child started with red 'sores' around her mouth, which turned into blisters and then burst. The child was finding the lesions very itchy. The rash then spread to the patches of eczema she had on the dorsal aspects of her wrists.

      Upon examination, the child appears well and her vital signs are normal. She has a red rash around her mouth with a few small blisters and a golden crust. The rash on the dorsal aspects of her hands looks similar.

      You diagnose impetigo and prescribe oral antibiotics. The mother asks if her child needs to stay away from school. What is your advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be excluded until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

      Explanation:

      To prevent the spread of impetigo, a child should not attend school until their lesions have crusted and healed or until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment. It is crucial to educate both the child and adults on the importance of hand hygiene, avoiding sharing towels, facecloths, or utensils, and ensuring that toys and play equipment are thoroughly cleaned.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

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  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old girl has started soiling her pants. She was apparently toilet-trained prior...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl has started soiling her pants. She was apparently toilet-trained prior to this happening.
      Which of these features is MOST COMMONLY found in children with faecal incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of painful defaecation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Functional Incontinence in Children

      Functional incontinence in children is often associated with a history of constipation or painful defecation. This may have been caused by an anal fissure, which can lead to ongoing issues with bowel movements. Children with functional incontinence may exhibit retentive posturing and withholding behavior, but any behavioral difficulties associated with soiling are likely a result of the incontinence rather than its cause.

      Symptoms of functional incontinence include frequent low-volume solid stools, which can be so large that they block the toilet. Children may also be aware of soiling but deny the urge to defecate associated with their episodes. In some cases, they may be unable to differentiate between passing gas and passing feces. On examination, stools may be palpable in the abdomen or rectum.

      Non-retentive fecal incontinence is a less common form of functional incontinence, typically seen in children over 4 years old with no evidence of constipation. In this form, stools are more likely to be passed in inappropriate places. There may be an associated oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and causes of functional incontinence in children can help parents and healthcare providers address the issue and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment. During the consultation, she is advised to visit her GP for vaccination but cannot recall which vaccines were recommended. She has received all her childhood and school immunizations but has not had any vaccinations since becoming pregnant.

      What vaccines should be offered to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pertussis and influenza vaccine

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should receive both influenza and pertussis vaccines. The pertussis vaccine is typically part of the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccination and is important for preventing severe illness and death in newborns. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

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  • Question 7 - At what age do children receive their initial pertussis immunization? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do children receive their initial pertussis immunization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At one year

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Immunisation for Infants and Pregnant Women

      Young infants are most vulnerable to serious complications from pertussis, which is why children receive multiple doses of the vaccine starting at two months of age. The vaccine is given as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine and again before starting school. However, pregnant women are now also being immunised against pertussis in the later stages of pregnancy. This is to enable them to transfer a high level of antibodies across the placenta to their unborn child, providing protection against pertussis until the first dose of immunisation. By vaccinating pregnant women, we can help protect the most vulnerable members of our population from this potentially deadly disease.

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  • Question 8 - You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the...

    Incorrect

    • You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the MMR vaccine when younger.

      The child's father has called the clinic to inquire about when his child can return to school because he needs to plan for childcare arrangements and it is affecting his work schedule.

      What is the recommended duration for a measles case to stay away from school or work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 days after the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Measles Exclusion Guidelines for Schools and Workplaces

      Measles is a highly infectious disease that spreads through airborne or droplet transmission. To prevent the spread of the disease, individuals who have contracted measles should be excluded from school or work for four days after the onset of the rash. This exclusion period is outlined in the infection control guidelines published by Public Health England for schools and other childcare settings.

      It is important to note that individuals are infectious from the beginning of the prodromal period, when the first symptoms appear, until four days after the onset of the rash. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the exclusion guidelines to prevent the spread of measles in schools and workplaces. By doing so, we can protect the health and well-being of everyone in the community.

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  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with Chickenpox. Her father wants...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with Chickenpox. Her father wants to know if she should stay home from school. What is the best advice to give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should be excluded until all lesions have crusted over

      Explanation:

      Students with Chickenpox must stay out of school until all their lesions have dried up and formed crusts, typically around 5 days after the rash first appears.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.

      One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

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  • Question 10 - As a GP in central London, you see a 10-year-old Polish boy with...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP in central London, you see a 10-year-old Polish boy with his mother. The mother reports that her son has been feeling unwell for the past four days with a runny nose and sticky eyes. Yesterday, he developed a fever of 39.1 ºC and a rash on his face. The rash has now spread all over his body, and he has lost his appetite but is drinking well. When asked about his immunization history, the mother is unsure of what he has had.

      During the examination, the patient appears coryzal and has small white spots on the inside of his cheeks. He also has a rash with flat red blotches on his face and brown blotches on his torso. All his observations are within normal limits. Based on these findings, you suspect that the patient has measles.

      The mother asks how long her son needs to stay off school.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 days from the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      If a child develops measles, they should not attend school for four days after the rash appears. Measles is a highly contagious viral disease that can be severe, especially for those with weakened immune systems, young infants, and pregnant women. The best way to prevent measles is through vaccination, but there have been recent outbreaks in unvaccinated individuals in London. While the UK has achieved elimination of measles, there are still small clusters of cases. Symptoms of measles include a runny nose, cough, fever, and rash. Cases are infectious for four days before and after the rash appears, so it’s important to keep them out of school during this time. Public health officials should be notified if there is a suspected case of measles to control outbreaks through testing, contact tracing, and immunization.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

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  • Question 11 - A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic with a three day history of noisy breathing, coryza, reduced feeding, and increased fussiness. What signs would prompt you to consider admitting the infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Feeding less than 50% of normal

      Explanation:

      If a child with bronchiolitis displays any high risk signs, it is important to admit them for support with feeding to prevent dehydration. The NICE CKS provides a comprehensive list of these signs, which include a respiratory rate exceeding 60 per minute, intermittent apnoea, grunting, moderate or severe chest in-drawing, cyanosis, pale, ashen, mottled or blue skin color, lack of response to social cues, inability to be roused or stay awake, and appearing ill. Reduced skin turgor is also a sign of dehydration to watch out for.

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

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  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been running a fever and has been refusing to eat. His mother has observed some spots on his hands and buttocks. Upon examination, the child has a mild vesicular rash on his hands, buttocks, face, and a few spots on his ankles. His temperature is 38.1ºC. According to your records, he had Chickenpox when he was 10 months old. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease

      Explanation:

      Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a viral infection that typically impacts children who are under the age of 10. The symptoms include fever, loss of appetite, coughing, stomach pain, and a sore throat. Following these symptoms, mouth ulcers often develop, along with a rash that typically affects the hands and feet, but can also appear on the face, buttocks, legs, and genitals. This condition is generally harmless and resolves on its own, with treatment consisting of basic pain relief.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

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  • Question 13 - A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having to strain to pass hard stools and is only going once a week. On reviewing the history, the child was born at full term with no perinatal complications. The baby passed meconium within 24 hours of birth and has had no previous issues with constipation. Examination shows a normal abdomen, perianal area, legs, and spine with no focal neurological signs. What is the best initial management approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start laxative treatment with a macrogol laxative (e.g. polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes)

      Explanation:

      Management of Constipation in a 12-Month-Old Child

      This 12-month-old child has presented with constipation. Referral for specialist assessment or further investigation is not necessary at this stage, as there are no red flags in the history or examination. Treatment should be initiated in primary care.

      A rectal examination is not necessary for the primary care assessment. A thorough history and examination, as discussed in the stem, is sufficient to make an accurate diagnosis and identify the presence of any impaction.

      The first-line treatment for constipation is laxative treatment. A good first-line agent is macrogol polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes (Movicol® Paediatric Plain). If there is a lack of effect, a stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the treatment. In addition to laxative use, the patient and carers should be advised on lifestyle factors such as diet, including adequate fluid intake.

      Behavioural interventions, such as scheduled toileting, encouragement, and reward systems, may be appropriate depending on the age of the patient. Advice on exercise in older children may also be helpful. However, dietary interventions should not be used alone as a first-line treatment. Early use of a laxative is indicated and is the most appropriate option.

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  • Question 14 - Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least commonly associated with rickets?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced serum alkaline phosphatase

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rickets

      Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition is called osteomalacia.

      There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and a lack of sunlight.

      Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as a rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, craniotabes (soft skull bones in early life), and Harrison’s sulcus.

      To diagnose rickets, doctors may check for low vitamin D levels, reduced serum calcium, and raised alkaline phosphatase. Treatment typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.

      Overall, understanding rickets and its causes can help individuals take steps to prevent this condition and ensure proper bone development and growth.

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  • Question 15 - A 7-month-old infant comes in with a one day history of fever (39°C),...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old infant comes in with a one day history of fever (39°C), and a generalised rash, which started on the legs and is now present on limbs and trunk virtually equally. The rash is purplish, non-palpable, and non-blanching. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Explanation:

      Meningococcal Septicaemia and Other Skin Conditions

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause a non-blanching purpuric eruption all over the body. This symptom is a key indicator of the disease and should be taken seriously. Other skin conditions, such as giant urticaria, measles rash, and haemophilia, do not typically present with this type of rash.

      Giant urticaria is characterised by recurrent attacks of oedema that appear suddenly in various areas of the body. The measles rash, on the other hand, appears as a macular eruption on the face and neck that spreads over three days. Haemophilia is not associated with any generalised rash.

      HSP, another skin condition, may present in a subacute manner and is not typically associated with a high fever in an acutely unwell child. It may occur following an upper respiratory tract infection.

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  • Question 16 - Select from the list the single patient who might benefit from receiving antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • Select from the list the single patient who might benefit from receiving antibiotics if they are 65 years old.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 4-year-old with otitis media associated with otorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Use in Children with Otitis Media and Sore Throat: NICE Guidelines and Cochrane Review

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend immediate antibiotic prescribing for children with otorrhoea and acute otitis media, as well as for children under 2 years with bilateral otitis media, those who are systemically unwell, have signs of complications, or have pre-existing co-morbidities. For children with acute sore throat and three or more Centor criteria, antibiotics may be considered due to the likelihood of a group A β-haemolytic streptococcus infection. However, a Cochrane review found that antibiotics provide only a small benefit for acute otitis media in children, and the possible adverse reactions must be weighed against this benefit. A pragmatic approach is to provide a prescription for antibiotics but advise parents to wait and see if it is necessary to have it dispensed based on worsening or prolonged symptoms.

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  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Upon taking a detailed medical history, it was revealed that the discharge started three weeks ago, after she returned from a trip to Sudan where she had a celebration to mark her transition into womanhood. Initially hesitant to undergo a vaginal examination, she eventually agreed after her sister's persuasion. During the examination, you observe indications that suggest female genital mutilation (FGM). You discover that she has a younger sister at home. What would be the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call the police to make a report, refer all children urgently to social services and treat the infection

      Explanation:

      If you come across a case of Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) in a female under the age of 18, it is important to report it to the police immediately. FGM is considered a form of child abuse and violence, and is illegal in England and Wales. This can be reported either by the child themselves or through physical examination.

      It is crucial to take action as doing nothing is not an option when it comes to child abuse and the safety of other children. A safeguarding alert alone is not sufficient, as there is a mandatory reporting duty for healthcare professionals who encounter a confirmed case of FGM.

      There is no need to contact the parents for further information as physical evidence has already been observed. It is also not appropriate to advise the child to call the police, as they are vulnerable and it is the duty of healthcare professionals to provide assistance.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

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  • Question 18 - Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: William's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The boy diagnosed with William’s syndrome, who is also short for his age and has learning difficulties, is known for his exceptionally outgoing and sociable personality.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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  • Question 19 - A toddler boy is now 2 years old, having been born at 34...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler boy is now 2 years old, having been born at 34 weeks’ gestation. You see his mother during a follow-up appointment and she expresses concerns about potential complications of prematurity during early childhood.
      Which of these problems is MOST LIKELY to be a complication of preterm (premature) birth during early childhood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blindness

      Explanation:

      Health Risks Associated with Premature Birth

      Premature birth, defined as birth before 37 weeks of gestation, can lead to a range of health problems for the newborn. These include cerebral palsy, blindness, deafness, learning disabilities, motor function problems, and speech and language problems. Premature infants are also at an increased risk of having special educational needs. The risk of these health problems is higher for infants born at earlier gestational ages and with lower birthweights.

      One specific visual problem that premature infants may experience is retinopathy of prematurity, a vascular disorder of the immature retina. Additionally, premature infants are at an increased risk of developing chronic kidney disease during adulthood, although the reason for this is not clear.

      However, not all health problems are associated with premature birth. Cystic fibrosis, for example, is caused by an autosomal-recessive gene and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Similarly, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is caused by several autosomal-recessive genes and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Developmental dysplasia of the hip, while more common in infants with neuromuscular disorders, is not commonly associated with prematurity.

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  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl has a history of intermittent constipation. Her mother says that her pants are now frequently soiled with loose, smelly stools and this is why she has brought her in. She is otherwise well and has a normal development history.
      What is the most appropriate initial management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyethylene glycol '3350' + electrolytes (Movicol©)

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence

      Idiopathic constipation with faecal impaction and overflow incontinence requires prompt and appropriate treatment. The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of macrogols (polyethylene glycol ‘3350’ + electrolytes; Movicol©) with an escalating dose regimen, adjusting the dose according to the response. Adequate fluid and fibre are necessary but should not be used alone as the only treatment. Rectal suppositories and sodium citrate enemas are suggested as options only if oral treatment fails. If this fails, phosphate enemas in hospital are recommended. A stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the macrogols if the latter do not lead to disimpaction after two weeks. A stimulant laxative singly or in combination with an osmotic laxative or a stool softener should be used if macrogols are not tolerated. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s condition and response to treatment.

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  • Question 21 - A 9-year-old girl has been diagnosed with ADHD. What dietary recommendations should be...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl has been diagnosed with ADHD. What dietary recommendations should be given to her parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eat a normal balanced diet

      Explanation:

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for the recognition and management of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. ADHD is defined by DSM-V as a persistent condition that includes features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. The threshold for diagnosis is six features for children up to 16 years old and five features for those aged 17 or over. ADHD has a prevalence of 2.4% in the UK, with a possible genetic component and a higher incidence in boys than girls.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should follow to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, usually to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants and how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. For patients with mild/moderate symptoms, parents attending education and training programmes can be beneficial. For those who fail to respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy can be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. Lisdexamfetamine can be used if there is an inadequate response, and dexamfetamine can be started in those who have benefited from lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate its side effects. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other.

      All of these drugs have the potential to be cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment. Referral to a cardiologist is necessary if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity. A thorough history and clinical examination are essential for accurate diagnosis, given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and physical conditions.

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  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old boy has a one-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has a one-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more difficult to stand from a sitting position and climb stairs. His maternal grandfather suffered from a similar condition but died in a motorboat accident at the age of 32. He has normal tone and reflexes in his limbs but weakness proximally in his arms and legs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Becker muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of muscular dystrophy

      Muscular dystrophies are a group of inherited disorders that cause progressive muscle wasting and weakness. There are several types of muscular dystrophy, each with its own unique characteristics. It is important to differentiate between these types in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

      Becker muscular dystrophy is a less severe form of the disorder, with a later onset and longer life expectancy. It mainly affects the proximal muscles of the limbs and is inherited in an X-linked-recessive pattern.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy, on the other hand, is a more severe form that presents in early childhood and leads to wheelchair dependence and early death. It is also inherited in an X-linked-recessive pattern and affects the proximal muscles of the limbs, as well as the heart and intellect.

      Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is an autosomal dominant or recessive disorder that affects the face and shoulder muscles in early adulthood, but doesn’t affect life expectancy.

      Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy is an autosomal dominant or recessive disorder that presents in the teenage years with weakness in the pelvic girdle and shoulders, but doesn’t affect life expectancy or intellect.

      Myasthenia gravis is an acquired, autoimmune disorder that causes fluctuating muscle weakness, particularly in the extraocular, bulbar, or proximal limb muscles. It typically occurs in adulthood.

      Understanding the differences between these types of muscular dystrophy can aid in diagnosis and management of the disorder.

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  • Question 23 - What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and...

    Incorrect

    • What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and 16?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza B

      Explanation:

      Recommended Vaccinations for Adolescents

      A booster vaccination for tetanus and diphtheria is required for adolescents between the ages of 14 and 16. It is recommended that these boosters be administered every 10 years thereafter. In some countries, a second dose of the MMR vaccine is given at age 12. The BCG vaccine is not routinely given, but is offered to individuals who are at risk. It is important for adolescents to stay up-to-date on their vaccinations to protect themselves and those around them from preventable diseases.

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  • Question 24 - A 14 week old bottle fed baby is brought in by Mum due...

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    • A 14 week old bottle fed baby is brought in by Mum due to concerns of unsettled behavior after feeds, vomiting, loose stools, and perianal redness. The baby has mild to moderate infantile eczema, but otherwise, the examination is normal. The baby's growth is following the 50th centile. Mum suspects Cow's milk protein allergy. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      If there is a suspicion of cow’s milk protein allergy mediated by IgE, it is recommended to refer the child to secondary care for skin prick or IgE specific antigen blood testing. However, non-IgE mediated cow’s milk protein allergy can be managed in primary care. To begin with, a trial of cow’s milk exclusion for 2-4 weeks should be attempted. In the case of exclusively breastfed babies, the mother should exclude cow’s milk from her diet. For bottle-fed babies, the first line of treatment is a trial of extensively hydrolysed formula.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The health visitor distraction test is the first screening test done on infants hearing

      Explanation:

      The primary screening test for infant hearing is now the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme, which is replacing distraction testing. Midwives rarely conduct visits beyond 4 weeks in their daily routine.

      Child Health Surveillance in the UK

      Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to Preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. After birth, a clinical examination is conducted, and the newborn hearing screening programme is carried out to detect any hearing problems. The mother is also given a Personal Child Health Record.

      Within the first month, a heel-prick test is conducted to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks. In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is conducted at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time.

      Preschool children are screened for vision problems through a national orthoptist-led programme. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention. Although midwife visits are supposed to occur up to four weeks after birth, in practice, health visitors usually take over at two weeks. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and support for their physical and developmental well-being.

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  • Question 26 - At what age do girls typically start showing the initial signs of puberty?...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do girls typically start showing the initial signs of puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 11.5 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

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  • Question 27 - A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on their legs. The infant is healthy and has received all recommended vaccinations. The caregiver is unsure how the bruising occurred and is worried about a possible bleeding disorder.

      What would be the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient for same day paediatric assessment and discuss with the paediatric consultant on-call

      Explanation:

      Any bruising observed in a non-mobile infant should be immediately referred for paediatric assessment on the same day. The urgency of the situation is the main concern.

      Delaying the assessment until later in the week, waiting for blood test results, or consulting with the safeguarding lead is not appropriate. It is also not necessary to contact emergency services at this point, unless the parents refuse to take the child for assessment.

      The appropriate action is to refer the infant for same-day paediatric assessment and inform the on-call consultant. If the child doesn’t attend the hospital on the same day, the paediatric team should escalate the situation.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.

      Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.

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  • Question 28 - You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected...

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    • You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected child abuse. The child in question is a 6-year-old boy., who you saw six months ago with burns on his arms. You are asked to give evidence related to the burns. Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse

      Explanation:
      • Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Infected burns can indeed be a sign of abuse. Neglect in treating burns can lead to infection, which may indicate a lack of proper care and potentially abusive behavior.
      • Burns from hot water where there are no splash marks are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Burns from hot water without splash marks are often a sign of abuse. These burns may indicate forced immersion, where the child is held in hot water intentionally, resulting in clear demarcation lines instead of splashes.
      • Burns on the back are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Burns on the back can be indicative of abuse, as accidental burns typically occur on accessible areas like the front of the body, arms, and legs. Unusual burn locations, such as the back, should raise suspicion for abuse.
      • There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse:
        • Correct: There is no single pathognomonic pattern of burns that definitively indicates child abuse. However, certain patterns, such as immersion burns, cigarette burns, and patterned burns (e.g., from an iron), are highly suspicious for abuse but not exclusively diagnostic. The absence of a single definitive pattern underscores the need for careful assessment and consideration of the context in which the burns occurred.
      • Burns with discrete edges are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Burns with discrete edges can be a sign of abuse, especially when they are from forced immersion in hot water or contact with a hot object. These burns typically show clear boundaries, unlike accidental burns, which often have irregular edges.

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  • Question 29 - Lila is a 4-year-old girl who presents with a high fever, sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • Lila is a 4-year-old girl who presents with a high fever, sore throat and sandpaper-like rash on her torso. You suspect scarlet fever. Her father inquires about the duration of time she should stay away from preschool.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keep out of nursery until 24 hours after starting antibiotics

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that children diagnosed with scarlet fever should not attend nursery or school until they have been on antibiotics for at least 24 hours.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 30 - A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped from the 75th centile weight at birth to the 9th. She was born abroad; the results of any neonatal screening are unavailable. Since her arrival in this country, she has been prescribed antibiotics for several chest infections. Between attacks, she is well. The mother worries that she might have asthma. There is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a child with faltering growth and respiratory symptoms

      Cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, asthma, and hypothyroidism are among the possible conditions that may cause faltering growth and respiratory symptoms in children. In the case of cystic fibrosis, dysfunction of the exocrine glands affects multiple organs, leading to chronic respiratory infection, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and related complications. The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is often made in infancy, but can vary in age and may involve meconium ileus or recurrent chest infections. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, typically develops after weaning onto cereals that contain gluten, and may cause faltering growth but not respiratory symptoms. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency, which can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease later in life, is less likely in a young child. Asthma, a common condition that affects the airways and causes wheeze or recurrent nocturnal cough, usually doesn’t affect growth. Hypothyroidism, a disorder of thyroid hormone deficiency, is screened for in newborns but doesn’t cause respiratory symptoms after birth. Therefore, based on the combination of faltering growth and respiratory symptoms, cystic fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

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