00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic woman who complains of numbness and tingling in some of her fingers in her right hand. During examination, you observe that she has reduced sensation in her thumb, index and middle fingers in this hand. She also has some weakness in these fingers when she tries to flex them and make a fist, and there is some thenar muscle wasting. Her pulse is 80 bpm with a normal volume, and otherwise her skin, joints and bones appear totally normal.
      What is the most likely condition that she is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hand and Wrist Conditions: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Possibilities

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve is compressed, leading to symptoms such as tingling, numbness, altered sensation, and pain in the thumb, index finger, and half of the middle finger. This condition can be caused by various risk factors, including obesity, overuse of hand and wrist, wrist trauma, and pregnancy. Diagnosis can be made through tests such as Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests, and treatment options range from conservative measures to surgical intervention.

      Other possible hand and wrist conditions include radial nerve palsy, peripheral neuropathy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop and an inability to extend the wrist, while peripheral neuropathy typically affects both upper and lower limbs in a glove and stocking distribution of anesthesia. Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of the ulnar nerve and affects the ring and fifth finger, while rheumatoid arthritis tends to be symmetrical and affects the small joints of the hand. Understanding these conditions and their unique features can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He complains of loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of his right forearm and hand for the last few days. His mother also states that he cannot extend his fingers and wrist after she pulled her son’s right hand gently while crossing a street 4 days ago. He had pain in his right elbow at that time but did not see a doctor immediately. On examination, there is loss of sensation and muscle weakness over the extensor surface of his right forearm and hand.
      Which of the following nerves is most likely to be injured in this patient?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Movement and Sensation

      Radial nerve: Nursemaid’s elbow is a common injury in children that can cause damage to the deep branch of the radial nerve. This can result in wrist drop due to paralysis of the extensors of the forearm and hand.

      Long thoracic nerve: The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, which is used in all reaching and pushing movements. Injury to this nerve causes winging of the scapula.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve causes a loss of elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and sensation loss on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Axillary nerve: The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid muscle and teres minor. Injury to this nerve presents with flattening of the deltoid muscle after injury, loss of lateral rotation, abduction of the affected shoulder due to deltoid muscle weakness, and loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      Middle subscapular nerve: The middle subscapular nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi, which adducts and extends the humerus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever and headache accompanied by a change in personality. During fundal examination, papilloedema is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe abscess

      Explanation:

      Sinusitis and Brain Abscess

      A previous occurrence of sinusitis can increase the likelihood of developing a brain abscess. Symptoms of a brain abscess include headache and fever, with papilloedema being present in most cases. Additionally, frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant past medical history or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.

      In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.

      The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.

      On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.

      Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.

      A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:

      Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)

      CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)

      CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -

      CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.

      What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What are the reasons for having dilated pupils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the reasons for having dilated pupils?

      Your Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dilated and Small Pupils

      Dilated pupils can be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, and drugs or poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. On the other hand, small pupils can be caused by Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates.

      Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil and third nerve palsy are conditions that affect the muscles that control the size of the pupil. Meanwhile, drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can cause dilation of the pupils as a side effect. On the other hand, Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause the pupils to become smaller.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which nerve is most commonly injured in conjunction with shoulder dislocation? ...

    Correct

    • Which nerve is most commonly injured in conjunction with shoulder dislocation?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The Vulnerability of the Shoulder Joint

      The shoulder joint is the most mobile joint in the body, but this comes at a cost of vulnerability. It is prone to dislocation more than any other joint due to its unrestricted movement. The shoulder stability is maintained by the glenohumeral joint capsule, the cartilaginous glenoid labrum, and the muscles of the rotator cuff. Anterior dislocations are the most common, accounting for over 95% of dislocations, while posterior and inferior dislocations are less frequent. Superior and intrathoracic dislocations are extremely rare.

      Injuries to the axillary nerve occur in 5% to 18% of dislocations. The nerve may heal on its own or require surgical exploration and nerve grafting. The shoulder joint vulnerability highlights the importance of proper care and attention to prevent dislocations and other injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman complains of numbness and ‘pins and needles’ in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of numbness and ‘pins and needles’ in her left leg that has been present for 48 h after a long flight. On examination, there is reduced sensation to light touch at the lateral aspect of her left thigh, extending from the iliac crest to the knee. There is no distal sensory loss. There is preserved motor function through all muscle groups of the affected limb. There is no weakness or sensory change in the opposite limb.
      What is the most likely anatomical source for this woman’s presentation?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Symptoms

      Nerve injuries can cause a variety of symptoms depending on the affected nerve. Here are some common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:

      Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve: A mononeuropathy of this nerve causes numbness in a narrow strip of the lateral thigh. It is often associated with rapid weight gain, such as in pregnancy.

      Sciatic Nerve: A sciatic neuropathy can cause weakness in hip extension, knee flexion, ankle plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, and toe plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, as well as inversion and eversion of the foot. It is commonly caused by pelvic trauma, neoplasia, or surgery.

      Femoral Nerve: A femoral neuropathy can cause numbness in the medial thigh, medial leg, and medial aspect of the ankle, as well as weakness in hip flexion and knee extension. It is often caused by motor compression, such as in femoral fracture or childbirth.

      Obturator Nerve: An obturator neuropathy can cause weakness in internal rotation and adduction at the hip, as well as sensory disturbance over the medial thigh.

      L5 Nerve Root: Involvement of the L5 nerve root can cause weakness in ankle and toe dorsiflexion (causing a foot drop) and weakness in ankle inversion. There is also sensory disturbance along the lateral aspect of the leg (below the knee). It can be similar to an anterior tibial neuropathy, but can be distinguished by the weakness in ankle eversion instead of inversion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is a true statement about the femoral nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer: Divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves

      Correct Answer: Has a deep branch which becomes the saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      The Nerves of the Thigh

      The thigh is innervated by several nerves, including the femoral nerve, sciatic nerve, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The femoral nerve is formed within the psoas major muscle and emerges from its lateral border to lie between the psoas and iliacus muscles in the iliac fossa. It then travels beneath the inguinal ligament and lies lateral to the femoral artery in the femoral triangle before entering the thigh.

      As it enters the thigh, the femoral nerve divides into a posterior division, which becomes the saphenous nerve as it enters the adductor canal. The saphenous nerve supplies the skin over the medial aspect of the leg and foot. The anterior division of the femoral nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior thigh, including the quadriceps femoris muscle.

      The sciatic nerve, which is the largest nerve in the body, divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves in the popliteal fossa. The tibial nerve supplies the muscles of the posterior thigh and leg, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the muscles of the lateral leg.

      Finally, the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve supplies the skin over the lateral thigh. This nerve arises from the lumbar plexus and travels through the pelvis before entering the thigh. It supplies the skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh but does not supply any muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight are only mildly to moderately impaired. He also has prominent depression and a butterfly pattern in the caudate nucleus on computed tomography (CT) scan.
      Which is the most likely form of dementia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Dementia due to Huntington’s disease

      Explanation:

      Types of Dementia and their Characteristics

      Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that affects daily activities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own unique characteristics.

      Dementia due to Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant triplet repeat disease affecting chromosome 4. It usually presents in middle-aged patients with movement disorders (chorea) and progresses to seizures, dementia and death.

      Vascular dementia occurs in a stepwise fashion, with occlusive events leading to sudden new losses of function. Patients develop frontal release and localising neurologic signs relatively early.

      Dementia due to Parkinson’s disease is characterised by loss of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigra. It also presents with bradykinesia, rigidity, cogwheeling and shuffling gait.

      Alzheimer’s disease has an insidious onset with gradual, continuous progression. Cognitive and language dysfunction occur early, with motor dysfunction and cortical release signs only appearing after diffuse cortical damage has occurred.

      Dementia due to normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterised by the classical triad of dementia, shuffling gait and incontinence. This condition results from blockage of the normal drainage of the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Early recognition and aggressive treatment for cardiovascular disease may slow progression of vascular dementia. Although the changes of vascular dementia are irreversible, the other types of dementia have no cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent...

    Correct

    • What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent migraine episodes?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Agents for Migraine Treatment

      Migraine is a neurological condition that causes severe headaches, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. While Sumatriptan is an effective treatment for acute migraine attacks, it does not prevent them from occurring. Therefore, prophylactic agents are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.

      First-line prophylactic agents include beta-blockers without partial agonism and Topiramate. Beta-blockers are used if there are no contraindications, while Topiramate is a medication that is specifically approved for migraine prevention. Second-line prophylactic agents include Sodium valproate and Amitriptyline, which is used when migraine coexists with tension-type headache, disturbed sleep, or depression. Clinical experience in migraine treatment is currently greater with valproate.

      Third-line prophylactic agents include Gabapentin, Methysergide, Pizotifen, and Verapamil. These medications are used when first and second-line treatments have failed or are not tolerated. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that has been shown to be effective in reducing the frequency of migraine attacks. Methysergide is a serotonin receptor antagonist that is used for chronic migraine prevention. Pizotifen is a serotonin antagonist that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks.

      In conclusion, prophylactic agents are an important part of migraine treatment. The choice of medication depends on the patient’s medical history, the severity and frequency of migraine attacks, and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective prophylactic agent for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During a Neurology rotation, a Foundation Year 1 (FY1) witnessed a physical examination...

    Correct

    • During a Neurology rotation, a Foundation Year 1 (FY1) witnessed a physical examination where the neurologist conducted palpation on the pterion of the skull to check for a pulse. What is the name of the blood vessel that the neurologist was palpating for?

      Your Answer: Superficial temporal artery

      Explanation:

      Palpable and Non-Palpable Blood Vessels in the Head and Neck Region

      The head and neck region contains several blood vessels that can be palpated or felt through the skin, while others are located intracranially and cannot be palpated. Here are some of the blood vessels in the head and neck region and their characteristics:

      Superficial Temporal Artery
      The superficial temporal artery is located superficially to the pterion, which is the bony area of the skull where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet. Loss of pulsation in this area may indicate giant cell arthritis, an inflammatory condition of large arteries that can cause temple pain, jaw claudication, and sudden-onset blindness. Diagnosis is done through a biopsy of the temporal artery, and treatment involves high-dose steroids and biologics.

      Facial Artery
      The facial artery can be felt as it crosses the inferior border of the mandible near the anterior margin of the masseter muscle.

      Middle Meningeal Artery
      The anterior division of the middle meningeal artery is located under the pterion, but it cannot be palpated because of its intracranial position.

      Common Carotid Artery
      The common carotid artery is located in the neck and can be felt in the anterior triangle of the neck, along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

      Middle Meningeal Vein
      The middle meningeal vein accompanies the middle meningeal artery, but it cannot be palpated because it is located intracranially.

      In summary, some blood vessels in the head and neck region can be palpated, while others are located intracranially and cannot be felt through the skin. Understanding the location and characteristics of these blood vessels is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports experiencing episodes of confusion and amnesia that typically last for a few minutes. His brother has observed him suddenly stopping what he is doing and staring into space on several occasions. The patient presents a video of one such episode, which shows lip-smacking and chewing. He has no recollection of these incidents, but he has noticed the smell of burning and a strange sense of déjà vu on multiple occasions. There is no indication of tongue biting or limb jerking. The patient is in good health, but he admits to regularly using cannabis. What is the most probable cause of these occurrences?

      Your Answer: Absence seizures

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Temporal Lobe Epilepsy from Other Seizure Disorders and Cannabis Usage

      Temporal lobe epilepsy is a neurological disorder that can manifest in various ways, including somatosensory or special sensory aura, visual hallucinations, déjà vu, manual automatisms, postictal confusion, or amnesia. The underlying causes can be diverse, such as previous infections or head trauma, and require investigation through electroencephalogram (EEG) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Narcolepsy, on the other hand, is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, or cataplexy, and is not associated with the seizure activity typical of temporal lobe epilepsy. Absence seizures, which involve staring into space, do not feature the sensory aura or postictal confusion of temporal lobe epilepsy. Cannabis overuse may cause seizures and psychosis, but not the specific seizures described in this scenario. Non-epileptic seizures, which can have organic or psychogenic causes, may be a differential diagnosis, but the presence of classic symptoms such as sensory aura, lip-smacking, and déjà vu suggest that temporal lobe epilepsy is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      65.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An action potential reaches the presynaptic membrane of a central neurone's axon. What...

    Incorrect

    • An action potential reaches the presynaptic membrane of a central neurone's axon. What is the primary effect it produces?

      Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels

      Correct Answer: Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      The Role of Voltage-Gated Calcium Channels in Neurotransmitter Release

      When an action potential occurs in a presynaptic neuron, it triggers the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. This allows calcium ions to enter the neuron, initiating a series of events that lead to the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. These neurotransmitters can then bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, transmitting the signal across the synapse.

      It is important to note that other types of ion channels, such as voltage-gated chloride, potassium, and sodium channels, are not typically found in the synaptic membrane of central neurons. Therefore, the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels is the key event that triggers neurotransmitter release.

      the role of voltage-gated calcium channels in neurotransmitter release is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other. By studying these processes, researchers can gain insights into the mechanisms underlying normal brain function as well as neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the type of cell that utilizes its Ciliary to assist in...

    Correct

    • What is the type of cell that utilizes its Ciliary to assist in the movement of cerebrospinal fluid throughout the central nervous system of vertebrates?

      Your Answer: Ependymal cells

      Explanation:

      The Functions of Cerebrospinal Fluid and the Roles of Different Types of Nervous System Cells

      The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear and colourless fluid that circulates in the subarachnoid space, ventricular system of the brain, and central canal of the spinal cord. It provides the brain and spinal cord with mechanical and immunological buoyancy, chemical/temperature protection, and intracranial pressure control. The circulation of CSF within the central nervous system is facilitated by the beating of the Ciliary of ependymal cells, which line the brain ventricles and walls of the central canal. Therefore, ependymal cells are responsible for this function.

      Different types of nervous system cells have distinct roles in supporting the nervous system. Astrocytes provide biochemical support to blood-brain barrier endothelial cells, supply nutrients to nervous tissue, maintain extracellular ion balance, and aid in repairing traumatic injuries. Microglial cells are involved in immune defence of the central nervous system. Oligodendrocytes generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the central nervous system, while Schwann cells generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the peripheral nervous system.

      In summary, the CSF plays crucial roles in protecting and supporting the central nervous system, and ependymal cells are responsible for its circulation. Different types of nervous system cells have distinct functions in supporting the nervous system, including biochemical support, immune defence, and myelin sheath generation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied by lacrimation, ptosis, and miosis on the same side. The duration of each episode is less than two hours. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that affects the neurovascular system. These headaches are characterized by severe pain that is usually felt on one side of the head, specifically in the temple and periorbital region. Along with the pain, individuals may experience ipsilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion, conjunctival injection, miosis, ptosis, and lid oedema. The duration of each headache is brief, lasting only a few moments to two hours. The term cluster refers to the grouping of headaches that occur over a period of several weeks.

      In summary, cluster headaches are a debilitating type of headache that can cause significant discomfort and disruption to daily life. the symptoms and duration of these headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with...

    Correct

    • The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with jaundice yesterday. They discovered him in the linen cupboard, disoriented and searching for his luggage so he could check-out before midday. Upon your arrival, he is still confused and unsteady, with a tachycardia of 120 bpm and nystagmus. However, he poses no immediate danger to himself or others. Which medication would be suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thiamine IV and chlordiazepoxide orally (PO)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. The triad of ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia characterizes it. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff syndrome with lasting memory impairment. The following treatment plan is recommended:

      Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal

      1. Thiamine IV: Parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex®) is required and should be given in a setting where resuscitation facilities are available due to the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine is also given prophylactically in alcohol withdrawal.

      2. Chlordiazepoxide PO: Given orally as required (PRN) to control the symptoms of delirium tremens. The dosage should be adjusted according to symptom severity.

      3. Haloperidol IM: Antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or IM benzodiazepines are not required in this instance where the patient is not at risk to himself or others.

      4. N-acetylcysteine IV: N-Acetylcysteine is used commonly for the treatment of paracetamol overdose. There is no evidence that this patient has a liver impairment as a result of paracetamol overdose.

      5. Propranolol PO: Propranolol is used for the treatment of portal hypertension and although likely, there is no evidence this patient has portal hypertension.

      6. Thiamine IM and midazolam IM: Thiamine is not given IM. There is no indication for IM benzodiazepines as this patient is co-operating with treatment. A chlordiazepoxide withdrawal regime would be better suited to this patient’s needs. This can be given orally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.

      She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.

      What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?

      Your Answer: NG tube feeding

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old farm worker presents with a two-day history of progressive weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old farm worker presents with a two-day history of progressive weakness and tingling in all limbs. He had a recent episode of respiratory symptoms that resolved without treatment. On examination, he has decreased muscle strength in all extremities and absent deep tendon reflexes in the legs. Laboratory results show normal blood counts and electrolytes, as well as elevated CSF protein and normal glucose. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral encephalitis

      Correct Answer: Post-infectious polyradiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome and Peripheral Neuropathy Diagnosis

      A history of progressive weakness and loss of tendon reflexes, especially after a recent infection, may indicate Guillain-Barré syndrome, also known as post-infectious polyradiculopathy. It is important to monitor respiratory function regularly, and the best way to do this is by measuring the vital capacity. When diagnosing peripheral neuropathy, a focused clinical assessment that addresses several key issues can significantly narrow down the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right eye. He has a regular heart rate of 88 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable test to diagnose the condition?

      Your Answer: Carotid duplex ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis

      Carotid duplex ultrasonography is an investigation used to identify significant stenosis or occlusive lesions in the internal carotid artery caused by atherosclerosis. This condition can lead to amaurosis fugax, temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. Although carotid duplex is not arranged directly from primary care, healthcare professionals should have an of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and be able to discuss this with patients in more general terms, including indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes symmetrical muscle weakness and notes that the child has only recently learned to walk. The girl requires assistance from her hands to stand up. The Paediatrician suspects that she may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and orders additional tests.
      What is the protein that is missing in DMD?

      Your Answer: Dystrophin

      Explanation:

      Proteins and Genetic Disorders

      Dystrophin, Collagen, Creatine Kinase, Fibrillin, and Sarcoglycan are all proteins that play important roles in the body. However, defects or mutations in these proteins can lead to various genetic disorders.

      Dystrophin is a structural protein in skeletal and cardiac muscle that protects the muscle membrane against the forces of muscular contraction. Lack of dystrophin leads to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a debilitating and life-limiting condition.

      Collagen is a protein found in connective tissue and defects in its structure, synthesis, or processing can lead to Ehlers Danlos syndrome, a genetic connective-tissue disorder.

      Creatine kinase is an enzyme released from damaged muscle tissue and elevated levels of it are seen in children with DMD.

      Fibrillin is a protein involved in connective tissue formation and mutations in the genes that code for it are found in Marfan syndrome, a connective tissue disorder.

      Sarcoglycans are transmembrane proteins and mutations in the genes that code for them are involved in limb-girdle muscular dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man is referred to the Elderly Medicine Clinic with a 6-month history of changed behaviour. He has been hoarding newspapers and magazines around the house and refuses to change his clothes for weeks on end. His wife has noticed that he tells the same stories repeatedly, often just minutes apart. He has a new taste for potato crisps and has gained 4 kg in weight. On examination, his mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is 27/30.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Dementia and Their Characteristics

      Dementia is a term used to describe a group of symptoms that affect memory, thinking, and social abilities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of characteristics. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their features:

      1. Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)
      FTD is characterized by a lack of attention to personal hygiene, repetitive behavior, hoarding/criminal behavior, and new eating habits. Patients with FTD tend to perform well on cognitive tests, but may experience loss of fluency, lack of empathy, ignoring social etiquette, and loss of abstraction.

      2. Diogenes syndrome
      Diogenes syndrome, also known as senile squalor syndrome, is characterized by self-neglect, apathy, social withdrawal, and compulsive hoarding.

      3. Lewy body dementia
      Lewy body dementia is characterized by parkinsonism and visual hallucinations.

      4. Alzheimer’s dementia
      Alzheimer’s dementia shows progressive cognitive decline, including memory loss, difficulty with language, disorientation, and mood swings.

      5. Vascular dementia
      Vascular dementia is characterized by stepwise cognitive decline, usually with a history of vascular disease.

      Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristics can help with early detection and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks after onset of symptoms

      Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.

      For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.

      However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.

      For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.

      Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident that occurred earlier in the day. He vaguely describes experiencing epigastric discomfort, followed by a tingling sensation down his arms and the scent of cooking bacon. Additionally, he reports feeling generally unwell. He did not lose consciousness during the episode. Upon further questioning, he mentions having experienced similar symptoms before. You observe that he has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and had a stroke four months ago.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Focal aware seizure

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Focal Aware Seizures

      Focal aware seizures, also known as simple focal seizures or auras, are a type of seizure that do not result in loss of awareness. Patients may experience vague discomfort, unusual smells or tastes, tingling, or twitching in an arm or leg. It is important to note that these seizures can be a sign of another type of seizure to come. Risk factors include head trauma and previous stroke.

      Malingering, or feigning symptoms for secondary gain, should be considered but is a diagnosis of exclusion. It is important to thoroughly investigate the patient’s symptoms before making this diagnosis.

      Focal impaired awareness seizures, previously known as complex focal seizures, result in memory loss, loss of awareness, and automatic bodily movements. This is not the case for a patient with focal aware seizures.

      Gastritis may be a differential due to the patient’s epigastric pain, but it does not fit with the other neurological symptoms.

      Psychotic hallucinations should be considered but are less likely given the patient’s coherent description of events and lack of history or risk factors for mental illness.

      In summary, when presented with a patient experiencing focal aware seizures, it is important to consider other neurological conditions before making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      110.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and fever. During the examination, you observe that she is wearing sunglasses due to the bright lights worsening her headache. Kernig's sign is positive, and you suspect meningitis. Which of the following statements regarding the cranial meninges is accurate?

      Your Answer: A subdural haematoma lies in the plane between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Layers of the Meninges and Intracranial Hemorrhage

      The meninges are the three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The outermost layer is the dura mater, followed by the arachnoid mater, and the innermost layer is the pia mater. Each layer serves a specific function in protecting the central nervous system.

      Subdural hematomas occur between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, often as a result of venous bleeding. The pia mater is the outermost layer closest to the skull, while the dura mater consists of two layers and is richly innervated, causing pain when stretched. Extradural hematomas occur between the endosteal layer of the dura mater and the skull, often due to trauma and bleeding from the middle meningeal artery.

      Subarachnoid hematomas form on the outside of the dura mater and are caused by arterial bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Intracerebral bleeds occur within the brain parenchyma itself and are unrelated to the meninges.

      Understanding the various meningeal layers is crucial in identifying and treating different types of intracranial hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer: Passive stretch of affected muscles exacerbates pain

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome

      Compartment syndrome is a condition that occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases to a level that exceeds arterial blood pressure. This can happen even without a fracture, such as in cases of crush injuries. The earliest and most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is pain, which can be exacerbated by passive stretching of the muscles in the affected area. As the condition progresses, loss of peripheral pulses may occur, indicating that the pressure has reached a critical level.

      Treatment for compartment syndrome involves decompression of the affected compartment(s), including the skin. It is important to recognize the symptoms of compartment syndrome early on in order to prevent further damage and potential loss of function. By the signs and symptoms of this condition, individuals can seek prompt medical attention and receive the appropriate treatment to alleviate the pressure and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      88.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as hesitancy and incomplete emptying. He lives independently and has primary progressive multiple sclerosis. He recently recovered from a UTI and upon investigation, it was found that he has heavy colonisation of Proteus. An ultrasound bladder scan reveals 400 ml of residual volume. What is the most suitable long-term management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation

      Explanation:

      Management of Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis often leads to a neurogenic bladder, causing urinary retention and associated symptoms such as incomplete bladder emptying, urgency, discomfort, and recurrent UTIs. The following are some management options for urinary symptoms in multiple sclerosis:

      1. Intermittent self-catheterisation: This is the preferred method for ambulant and independent patients. After training, the patient self-catheterises a few times a day to ensure complete bladder emptying, relieving symptoms and reducing the risk of recurrent UTIs. A muscarinic receptor antagonist, such as oxybutynin, can also be used.

      2. Suprapubic catheterisation: This is only indicated when transurethral catheterisation is contraindicated or technically difficult, such as in urethral injury or obstruction, severe benign prostatic hypertrophy or prostatic carcinoma.

      3. Continuous low-dose trimethoprim: There is no current guidance for the use of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent UTIs in multiple sclerosis. The aim is to primarily relieve the retention.

      4. Long-term urethral catheterisation: If symptoms progress and become bothersome for the patient, despite behavioural methods, medication and/or intermittent self-catheterisation, then a long-term catheter can be the next best option. Additionally, in cases where patients are not ambulant or have a disability that would prevent them from being able to self-catheterise, a long-term catheter may be a more desirable choice of management of urinary symptoms.

      5. Muscle relaxant baclofen: Baclofen is not used in the treatment of urinary retention. It is an antispasmodic used in multiple sclerosis to relieve contractures and spasticity.

      Management Options for Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 51-year-old woman sustained a deep posterolateral laceration in her right neck during...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman sustained a deep posterolateral laceration in her right neck during a car crash. Her right shoulder is now lower than the left and she is unable to lift it against resistance. When attempting to shrug her shoulders, there is no rise in muscle tone under the medial upper border of the right shoulder. Which nerve was affected by the injury?

      Your Answer: Spinal accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Shoulder: Functions and Injuries

      The shoulder is a complex joint that relies on several nerves for proper function. Injuries to these nerves can result in a range of deficits, from isolated muscle weakness to more widespread impairments. Here are some of the key nerves involved in shoulder movement:

      Spinal Accessory Nerve: This nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can result in trapezius palsy, which can cause difficulty with shoulder elevation.

      Dorsal Scapular Nerve: The dorsal scapular nerve innervates the rhomboid muscles and the levator scapulae. Injury to this nerve can lead to weakness in these muscles, which can affect shoulder blade movement.

      Suprascapular Nerve: The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle, which is part of the rotator cuff. Damage to this nerve can result in weakness or pain during shoulder abduction.

      Axillary Nerve: The axillary nerve has both anterior and posterior branches that innervate the deltoid muscle and skin over part of the deltoid. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness or numbness in the shoulder.

      Upper Trunk of the Brachial Plexus: The upper trunk of the brachial plexus is a collection of nerves that supply a wider variety of muscles and cutaneous structures. Damage to this area can result in more widespread deficits.

      Understanding the functions and potential injuries of these nerves can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat shoulder problems more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old man reports experiencing fatigue that worsens towards the end of the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man reports experiencing fatigue that worsens towards the end of the day. He has also been struggling with swallowing and finds repetitive movements challenging. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition characterized by autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors of the post-synaptic neuronal membranes of skeletal muscle. This inhibits the binding of acetylcholine, blocking neuronal transmission and resulting in muscle weakness. Diagnosis is made through serum testing for antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, and treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunomodulating drugs.

      In Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, autoantibodies to presynaptic calcium channel blockers are found, often in association with small cell lung cancer. Demyelinating diseases such as multiple sclerosis are caused by the destruction of the myelin sheath surrounding neuronal axons.

      Understanding Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
      In which dermatome was the stab wound located?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen

      The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.

      T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.

      T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.

      It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 3-year history of postural...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 3-year history of postural instability, frequent falls and cognitive decline. He exhibits hypomania, bradykinesia of the right upper limb, brisk reflexes, especially on the right-hand side, occasional myoclonus and a shuffling gait. He is unable to imitate basic hand gestures with his right hand. During the examination, the patient displays some sensory loss and apraxia.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corticobasal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders and Their Characteristics

      Corticobasal Syndrome: This rare progressive neurological disorder is characterized by asymmetrical cortical syndrome, gait unsteadiness, falls, parkinsonism, apraxia, and alien limb syndrome. Unfortunately, there is no known treatment for this disorder, and the prognosis is poor, with a life expectancy of 6-8 years from diagnosis.

      Supranuclear Gaze Palsy: This Parkinson’s plus syndrome presents with symmetrical parkinsonism, slow saccades (especially vertical), and a limitation of eye movements.

      Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease: While this disease may present as asymmetrical at onset, it tends to involve both sides after 6 years. The presence of cortical signs such as hyperreflexia, apraxia, and myoclonus would be atypical.

      Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common pathology in patients with cognitive decline, but it presents with prominent cognitive decline, and basal ganglia features are atypical.

      Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD): This rapidly progressive disorder leads to akinetic mutism and death within a year, with a median of 6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      164.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old homeless individual is brought to the emergency department after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old homeless individual is brought to the emergency department after being found vomiting. Upon examination, the patient appears confused and disoriented, with unkempt appearance and slurred speech. However, the patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14. Vital signs include a pulse of 108 bpm, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, and blood pressure of 124/78 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory exams are normal, with mild epigastric tenderness on abdominal exam. The patient has a broad-based gait and bilateral nystagmus with weakness of abduction of the eyes. Reflexes, power, and tone are generally normal with flexor plantar responses. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delirium tremens

      Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition caused by thiamine deficiency, which can be life-threatening if not treated urgently. This condition is often seen in alcoholics or malnourished individuals and can even occur during pregnancy due to hyperemesis gravidarum. The classic triad of symptoms includes ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia.

      It is crucial to differentiate Wernicke’s encephalopathy from alcohol intoxication as the former requires immediate thiamine replacement. The recommended treatment is either oral thiamine 300 mg/24h or, preferably, intravenous Pabrinex. If left untreated, the condition can rapidly progress to irreversible Korsakoff’s psychosis due to haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent irreversible neurological damage. It is essential to be aware of the classic triad of symptoms and to differentiate it from alcohol intoxication to ensure appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher raised concerns that the child sometimes appears to ‘stare into space’. The parents brought him to the General Practitioner reporting that they have also noticed that he would look blank for a minute and then looks confused. After these episodes, the boy becomes his normal self and does not remember what happened. The boy says that he sometimes has headaches, which usually occur at home and for which he takes paracetamol. There is no significant past medical or family history.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Absence seizure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Seizures: Symptoms and Characteristics

      One of the most common types of seizures is the absence seizure, which is characterized by brief periods of decreased consciousness. In this type of seizure, the child may stop talking or what they were doing for about 10-15 seconds before returning to their normal self. Absence seizures are a form of generalized seizure and require electroencephalography (EEG) for diagnosis.

      Another type of seizure is the focal seizure, which originates within networks limited to one hemisphere. It can be discretely localized or more widely distributed, and it replaces the terms partial seizure and localization-related seizure.

      Primary generalized seizures usually present with a combination of limb stiffening and limb jerking, known as a tonic-clonic seizure. Patients may also experience tongue biting and incontinence. After the seizure, patients often feel tired and drowsy and do not remember what happened.

      Atonic seizures are a form of primary generalized seizure where there is no muscle tone, causing the patient to drop to the floor. Unlike other forms of seizures, there is no loss of consciousness.

      While migraines can cause neurological symptoms, they do not typically cause an episode such as the one described. Migraines often present with an aura and do not result in loss of consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 5 years ago and has been in good health otherwise. He has noticed over the past week that he is unable to raise his right hand at the wrist without any pain. Upon examination, a right-sided wrist drop is observed. Which nerve is being affected?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Wrist drop is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is injured, resulting in the inability to extend the wrist. In addition to this, there is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the hand. Another nerve injury that affects the shoulder muscles is axillary nerve palsy. This condition can cause weakness in the shoulder and difficulty lifting the arm.

      Long thoracic nerve injury is another common nerve injury that causes winging of the scapula. This condition occurs when the nerve that controls the muscles of the scapula is damaged, resulting in the shoulder blade protruding from the back. Median nerve palsy affects the sensation to the lateral palmar three and a half fingers and involves the muscles of the thenar eminence. This condition can cause weakness in the hand and difficulty with fine motor skills.

      Finally, ulnar nerve palsy causes a claw hand, which is characterized by the inability to extend the fingers and a claw-like appearance of the hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has been gradually increasing over the past six months. Upon examination, his cranial nerves and higher mental function appear normal, as do his bulk, tone, power, light touch and pinprick sensation, co-ordination, and reflexes in both his upper and lower limbs. What condition could these clinical findings be indicative of?

      Your Answer: Small fibre sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Neuropathy and its Different Types

      Neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves and can cause a burning sensation. This sensation is typical of a neuropathy that affects the small unmyelinated and thinly myelinated nerve fibres. However, a general neurological examination and reflexes are usually normal in this type of neuropathy unless there is coexisting large (myelinated) fibre involvement. On the other hand, neuropathy that affects the large myelinated sensory fibres generally causes glove and stocking sensory loss and loss of reflexes.

      There are different types of neuropathy, and conditions in which the small fibres are preferentially affected in the early stages include diabetes and amyloidosis. In the later stages, however, the neuropathy in these conditions also affects large fibres. Another type of neuropathy is associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is a pure sensory neuropathy (ganglionopathy). the different types of neuropathy and their symptoms can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving...

    Correct

    • A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?

      Your Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his left forearm and hand that is relieved by changing the position of his arm. During examination, there is a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of his hand, and a cervical rib is suspected. To confirm involvement of the C8 and T1 roots of the brachial plexus rather than a palsy of the ulnar nerve, which motor test should be used?

      Your Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger

      Correct Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger

      Explanation:

      Assessing Nerve Lesions: Differentiating Between C8/T1 and Ulnar Nerve Lesions

      When assessing for nerve lesions, it is important to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. One way to do this is by testing specific actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves.

      Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is controlled by the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by both the ulnar nerve and the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve) via C8/T1 nerve roots. Weakness in this action would make an ulnar nerve injury unlikely.

      Abduction and adduction of the fingers are controlled by the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, respectively. These muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots, making testing these actions unable to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.

      Adduction of the thumb is controlled by the adductor pollicis muscle, which is also innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.

      Similarly, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger is controlled by the medial aspect of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.

      In summary, assessing for weakness in flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger can help differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. Testing other actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves would not provide this differentiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision, drooping eyelids, and difficulty with speaking, chewing, and swallowing. He reports feeling well in the morning without weakness, but as the day progresses, he experiences increasing fatigue and weakness. Additionally, he notes muscle weakness after exercise that improves with rest. On physical examination, there is no muscle fasciculation, atrophy, or spasticity, and all reflexes are normal. Sensation is intact, and his pupils are equal and reactive to light. What autoantibodies are responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases and Associated Antibodies

      Myasthenia gravis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Becker and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, and Lambert-Eaton syndrome are all autoimmune diseases that involve the production of specific antibodies. Myasthenia gravis is characterised by the presence of acetylcholine receptor antibodies, while SLE is associated with antibodies to double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith antibodies. Antibodies to dystrophin are linked to muscular dystrophy, and those to myelin are involved in multiple sclerosis. Finally, antibodies to the presynaptic calcium receptor are associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Understanding the specific antibodies involved in these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      118.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What is the result of a lesion in the occipital lobe? ...

    Correct

    • What is the result of a lesion in the occipital lobe?

      Your Answer: Cortical blindness

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Brain Lesions on Different Lobes

      Brain lesions can have varying effects depending on which lobe of the brain is affected. Lesions in the frontal lobe can result in difficulties with task sequencing and executive skills, as well as expressive aphasia, primitive reflexes, perseveration, anosmia, and changes in personality. On the other hand, lesions in the parietal lobe can cause apraxias, neglect, astereognosis, visual field defects, and acalculia.

      Temporal lobe lesions, on the other hand, can lead to visual field defects, Wernicke’s aphasia, auditory agnosia, and memory impairment. Lastly, occipital lobe lesions can result in cortical blindness, homonymous hemianopia, and visual agnosia.

      It is important to note that some of these effects may overlap or be present in multiple lobes. However, the specific effects of brain lesions on different lobes can aid in diagnosis and treatment planning for individuals with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What do muscarinic receptors refer to? ...

    Correct

    • What do muscarinic receptors refer to?

      Your Answer: Cholinergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Muscarinic Receptors: A Subclass of Cholinergic Receptors

      Muscarinic receptors are a type of cholinergic receptors that are responsible for a variety of functions in the body. They are divided into five subclasses based on their location, namely M1-5. M1, M4, and M5 are found in the central nervous system and are involved in complex functions such as memory, analgesia, and arousal. M2 is located on cardiac muscle and helps reduce conduction velocity at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes, thereby lowering heart rate. M3, on the other hand, is found on smooth muscle, including bronchial tissue, bladder, and exocrine glands, and is responsible for a variety of responses.

      It is important to note that muscarinic receptors are a subclass of cholinergic receptors, with the other subclass being nicotinic receptors. Adrenergic receptors, on the other hand, bind to adrenaline, while dopaminergic receptors bind to dopamine. Glutamatergic receptors bind to glutamate, and histamine receptors bind to histamine. the different types of receptors and their functions is crucial in the development of drugs and treatments for various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 16-year-old boy spends the night out with his buddies, drinking 7 pints...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy spends the night out with his buddies, drinking 7 pints of beer and a few shots of whiskey. He dozes off in his friend's kitchen with his arm hanging over the back of a chair. The next morning, he experiences tenderness in his right armpit area and is unable to straighten his fingers. What other symptom is he likely to exhibit with this injury?

      Your Answer: Weakness of the adductor pollicis

      Correct Answer: Numbness over the dorsal aspect of the right hand between the thumb and index finger

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hand Numbness and Weakness: A Guide to Nerve Supply

      Hand numbness and weakness can be caused by nerve injuries in various locations. The radial nerve, a branch of the brachial plexus, can be injured in the axillary region, humerus, or forearm, resulting in numbness over the dorsal aspect of the hand between the thumb and index finger. The ulnar nerve supplies the little finger and adductor pollicis, while the median nerve innervates the palm and radial lumbricals. Understanding the nerve supply can aid in diagnosing and treating hand numbness and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the...

    Correct

    • A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the outpatient clinic. She has no facial weakness, and examination of the eyes reveals a full range of movement. She reports no difficulties with vision, smell, taste, hearing or balance, and facial and pharyngeal sensation is normal. Her gag reflex is present and normal, and she can shrug her shoulders equally on both sides. Her speech is slurred and indistinct, and on protruding her tongue, it deviates to the right side and there is notable fasciculation and atrophy of the musculature on the right.
      With what are these findings most likely to be associated?

      Your Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right cranial nerve XII

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lesions of Cranial Nerves Involved in Tongue Movement and Sensation

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      Fasciculation and atrophy indicate a lower motor neurone lesion. In this case, the tongue deviates to the side of the damage due to unopposed action of the genioglossus of the opposite side. The cranial nerve involved in motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is the hypoglossal cranial nerve (XII).

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage, in this case to the left.

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage. Even though the tongue does deviate to the right in this case, the presence of atrophy is seen in LMN and not in UMN.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      This would cause lower motor neurone symptoms (weakness and flaccidity) on the left side.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Glossopharyngeal Nerve:
      The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides the posterior third of the tongue with taste and somatic sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is seen in a specialist clinic with his mother. She asks the doctor if there is a treatment to slow the progression of the disease.

      Which treatment slows the progression of muscle weakness in DMD?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin therapy

      Correct Answer: Steroids

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic condition that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting due to the lack of the dystrophin protein. While there is currently no cure for DMD, there are several treatment options available to manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

      Steroids are the mainstay of pharmacological treatment for DMD. They can slow the decline in muscle strength and motor function if started before substantial physical decline and if the side-effects of long-term steroid use are effectively managed.

      Ataluren is a medication that restores the synthesis of dystrophin in patients with nonsense mutations. It is used in patients aged less than five years with nonsense mutations who are able to walk and slows the decline in physical function.

      Immunoglobulin therapy is sometimes used for autoimmune myositis, but has no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Gene therapy seeks to manipulate the expression of a gene for therapeutic use in genetic conditions. Although there are currently clinical trials underway, gene therapy is not currently available for use in DMD.

      Methotrexate and other disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs may be used in the treatment of myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Biological therapies such as rituximab are often used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis, as well as myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Managing Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old woman is experiencing a difficult separation from her spouse. She presents...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is experiencing a difficult separation from her spouse. She presents with a 2-week history of increasing headaches that are affecting her entire head. The headaches worsen when she strains. She is also experiencing more frequent nausea. Although she is neurologically intact, there is slight papilloedema noted on fundoscopy. Other than that, her examination is unremarkable. In her medical history, she had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her calf when she was in her 30s, for which she received 6 months of treatment. She has not taken any significant medications recently. A non-contrast CT scan of her brain is performed and comes back normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Venous Sinus Thrombosis from Other Headache Causes

      Venous sinus thrombosis is a condition where one or more dural venous sinuses in the brain become blocked by a blood clot. This can cause a subacute headache with nausea and vomiting, along with signs of increased intracranial pressure. Diagnosis requires a high level of suspicion and imaging with contrast-enhanced CT venogram or MRI with MR venography. Treatment with heparin can improve outcomes, but specialist input is necessary if there has been haemorrhagic infarction. Other conditions that can cause headaches, such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, tension headache, and encephalitis, have different presentations and require different diagnostic approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is a lower motor neurone lesion associated with? ...

    Correct

    • What is a lower motor neurone lesion associated with?

      Your Answer: Flaccid paralysis

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Lower Motor Neurone Lesions

      Lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations. These lesions result in the inability to elicit reflex contractions and slow muscle atrophy. In contrast, upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.

      Flaccid paralysis is a key feature of lower motor neurone lesions, which refers to the loss of muscle tone and strength. Downward plantar response is another characteristic, where the toes point downwards instead of upwards when the sole of the foot is stimulated. Fasciculations, or involuntary muscle twitches, are also commonly observed in lower motor neurone lesions.

      Furthermore, reflex contractions cannot be elicited in lower motor neurone lesions, leading to muscle atrophy over time. This is in contrast to upper motor neurone lesions, where a positive Babinski sign is observed. A positive Babinski sign refers to the extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stimulated, indicating an upper motor neurone lesion.

      In summary, lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations, while upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A middle-aged student is performing a dissection of the intracranial contents. She removes...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged student is performing a dissection of the intracranial contents. She removes the cranial cap and meninges, mobilises the brain and cuts the spinal cord just below the foramen magnum to remove the brain from the cranial cavity. On inspection of the brainstem, she notes that there are a number of nerves emerging from the brainstem.
      Which of the following is true of the emergence of the cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: The trigeminal nerve emerges from the pons close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Emergence Points in the Brainstem

      The brainstem is a crucial part of the central nervous system that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It is responsible for controlling many vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The brainstem also serves as the origin for many of the cranial nerves, which are responsible for controlling various sensory and motor functions of the head and neck. Here are the emergence points of some of the cranial nerves in the brainstem:

      – Trigeminal nerve (V): Emerges from the lateral aspect of the pons, close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle.
      – Abducens nerve (VI): Emerges anteriorly at the junction of the pons and the medulla.
      – Trochlear nerve (IV): Emerges from the dorsal aspect of the midbrain, between the crura cerebri. It has the longest intracranial course of any cranial nerve.
      – Hypoglossal nerve (XII): Emerges from the brainstem lateral to the pyramids of the medulla, anteromedial to the olive.
      – Vagus nerve (X): Rootlets emerge posterior to the olive, between the pyramid and the olive of the medulla.

      Knowing the emergence points of these cranial nerves is important for understanding their functions and for diagnosing any potential issues or disorders that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 78-year-old retired pharmacist is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease after being investigated for...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old retired pharmacist is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease after being investigated for worsening memory problems and getting lost on his way home from the shops. What is associated with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan = dilation of the sulci and ventricles

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Their Relevance in Alzheimer’s Disease

      Computed tomography (CT) brain scan can be used to exclude vascular disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and space-occupying lesions in patients with cognitive decline. In pure Alzheimer’s disease, changes consistent with cerebral atrophy, such as dilated sulci and ventricles, are observed.

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein levels of 0.5-1.0 g/l are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate bacterial or viral meningitis.

      An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 100 mm/hour is not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may be significant in multiple myeloma or vasculitis.

      Hemoglobin levels of 85 g/l and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 112 fl suggest macrocytic anemia, which requires further investigation and is most likely due to B12 or folate deficiency.

      CSF white cells of 100-150 neutrophils/mm3 are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate meningitis.

      Understanding the Relevance of Diagnostic Tests in Alzheimer’s Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol,...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol, but after two weeks, he was discovered to be confused and drowsy. Upon examination, he was found to have a fever of 40.7°C, rigid muscles, and a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg. What treatment would you recommend in this situation?

      Your Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious medical condition that is commonly caused by potent neuroleptics. Its major features include rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, fever, and high creatinine kinase. The condition can lead to potential complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure.

      The treatment of choice for NMS is dantrolene and bromocriptine. However, withdrawal of neuroleptic treatment is mandatory to prevent further complications. It is important to note that NMS can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize the symptoms and seek medical help as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (36/50) 72%
Passmed