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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
      What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Placement of a nasogastric tube, intravenous fluids and observation

      Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery

      When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.

      While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.

      In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 2 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)

      Explanation:

      Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 3 - A 78-year-old man presents with weight loss and blood in his stool. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with weight loss and blood in his stool. During rectal examination, a suspicious lesion is found below the pectinate line, raising concern for malignancy. You proceed to palpate for lymphadenopathy.
      Where might you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region

      The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. Understanding the different lymph nodes and their drainage patterns can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.

      Inguinal lymph nodes are responsible for draining the anal canal below the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes. The external iliac nodes are responsible for draining the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder. On the other hand, the internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the anal canal above the pectinate line.

      The superior mesenteric nodes are responsible for draining parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum. Lastly, the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.

      In conclusion, understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history of painless rectal bleeding. She reports seeing blood on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl after defecation. The blood is not mixed with the stool, and there is no associated weight loss or change in bowel habit. She gave birth to twin boys after an uncomplicated pregnancy and normal vaginal delivery. She has no past medical or family history of note.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can affect individuals of all ages, but pregnancy is a known risk factor. Contrary to previous beliefs, haemorrhoids are not simply varicose veins, but rather enlarged vascular cushions with a complex anatomy. The main function of these cushions is to help maintain continence, but when they become enlarged or prolapsed, they can cause a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptom of haemorrhoids is rectal bleeding, which may be visible on toilet paper or in the toilet bowl. Other symptoms may include mucous discharge, pruritus, and soiling episodes due to incomplete closure of the anal sphincter. However, pain is not a typical feature of first-degree haemorrhoids, unless they become thrombosed.

      To confirm the diagnosis of haemorrhoids, a thorough examination is necessary, including an abdominal assessment and proctoscopy. It is important to rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as fissure-in-ano, perianal haematoma, anorectal abscess, or colorectal carcinoma (especially in older patients).

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of haemorrhoids can help healthcare providers provide appropriate management and improve patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa. Upon examination, local peritonitis is observed. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count. He has no prior history of abdominal disease, but he does have a history of atrial fibrillation. Pain worsens after eating and is alleviated by defecation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Localised Peritonitis and Left Iliac Fossa Pain

      Diverticular Disease:
      Diverticular disease is a common cause of localised peritonitis and left iliac fossa pain, especially in the elderly. It occurs due to the herniation of the intestinal mucosa through the muscle, forming an outpouching. Patients with diverticulitis present with slow-onset, constant pain, usually in the left iliac fossa, exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation. Acute diverticulitis can cause severe sepsis by rupture of a diverticulum and abscess formation or obstruction of the bowel. Diverticular disease can also cause bleeding per rectum. Conservative management includes increasing fluid intake, fibre in the diet, bulk-forming laxatives, and paracetamol to ease the pain.

      Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm:
      A ruptured aortic aneurysm presents with central abdominal pain, a pulsatile abdominal mass, and shock due to the volume of blood loss. It is associated with 100% mortality if not treated promptly.

      Splenic Infarct:
      A splenic infarct presents with acute pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, referred to the shoulder, and is more commonly seen in patients with haematological conditions such as sickle-cell disease.

      Ureteric Colic:
      Ureteric colic presents with characteristic loin-to-groin pain that has an intermittent colicky nature, with acute exacerbations. It can present in either iliac fossa, but it would not cause localised peritonitis.

      Acute Small Bowel Ischaemia:
      Acute small bowel ischaemia presents with an acute central or right-sided abdominal pain that is increasingly worsening, has no localising signs, and presents as generalised abdominal tenderness or distension. The patient is very unwell, with varying symptoms, including vomiting, diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, sepsis, and confusion. A highly raised serum/blood gas lactate level that does not drop following initial resuscitation attempts is a clue. It requires prompt treatment due to its high mortality risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed with mesenteric vascular occlusion. The small bowel becomes gangrenous and requires resection. What is a potential complication of this surgical procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Short Bowel Syndrome

      Short bowel syndrome refers to clinical problems that arise from the removal of varying lengths of the small bowel. One common complication is nephrolithiasis, which is caused by enteric hyperoxaluria resulting from increased absorption of oxalate in the large intestine. Bile acids and fatty acids increase colonic mucosal permeability, leading to increased oxalate absorption. Steatorrhoea is also common due to fat malabsorption in the small bowel. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a complication of this syndrome. Diarrhoea is a severe complication, especially after ileal resection, which results in malabsorption of bile acid and stimulates fluid secretion in the intestinal lumen. Nutritional deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, K, folate, and B12 are also seen. Gastric hypersecretion is common, but achlorhydria is not a complication of small bowel resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 7 - A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate for an extended left hemicolectomy. The tumour is located in the descending colon and the surgery will involve ligating the blood vessel that supplies it. What is the name of the artery that provides the primary blood supply to the descending colon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Abdomen: Supplying the Digestive System

      The digestive system is supplied by several arteries in the abdomen. The inferior mesenteric artery provides blood to the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum. On the other hand, the superior mesenteric artery branches into several arteries, including the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, and right and middle colic arteries. It supplies up to the splenic flexure. The cystic artery, as its name suggests, supplies the gallbladder. Lastly, the ileocolic artery supplies the caecum, ileum, and appendix, while the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon up to the splenic flexure. These arteries play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
      To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics

      Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.

      Direct Inguinal Hernia

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.

      Aponeurosis of External Oblique

      In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.

      Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique

      A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.

      Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis

      Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.

      Superficial Inguinal Ring

      An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.

      Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his doctor complaining of worsening abdominal pain that has been present for two days. He also reports feeling nauseous and experiencing loose bowel movements. During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 37.9 °C, and he has a heart rate of 90 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. The doctor notes that the patient's abdomen is tender to the touch and that he has a positive Rovsing sign. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Physical Signs and Symptoms of Abdominal Conditions

      Abdominal conditions can present with a variety of physical signs and symptoms that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some common signs and symptoms associated with different abdominal conditions:

      Appendicitis: A positive Rovsing sign, psoas sign, and obturator sign are less commonly found symptoms of appendicitis. More common signs include rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Splenic rupture: A positive Kehr’s sign, which is acute shoulder tip pain due to irritation of the peritoneum by blood, is associated with a diagnosis of splenic rupture.

      Pyelonephritis: Positive costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as the Murphy’s punch sign, may indicate pyelonephritis.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm: A large abdominal aortic aneurysm may present with a pulsatile abdominal mass on palpation of the abdomen. However, the Rovsing sign is associated with appendicitis, not an abdominal aneurysm.

      Pancreatitis: A positive Grey Turner’s sign, which is bruising/discoloration to the flanks, is most commonly associated with severe acute pancreatitis. Other physical findings include fever, abdominal tenderness, guarding, Cullen’s sign, jaundice, and hypotension.

      Knowing these physical signs and symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 10 - You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation,...

    Incorrect

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation, and the consultant has asked you to scrub in to help assist. He informs you that it will be a fantastic learning opportunity and will ask you questions throughout. He goes to commence the operation and the questions begin.
      When making a midline abdominal incision, what would be the correct order of layers through the abdominal wall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Abdominal Incisions and Their Layers

      Abdominal incisions are commonly used in surgical procedures. There are different types of abdominal incisions, each with its own set of layers. Here are some of the most common types of abdominal incisions and their layers:

      1. Midline Incision: This incision is made in the middle of the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. This incision is versatile and can be used for most abdominal procedures.

      2. Transverse Incision: This incision is made horizontally across the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus muscle, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      3. Paramedian Incision above the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline above the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      4. Paramedian Incision below the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline below the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      Knowing the different types of abdominal incisions and their layers can help surgeons choose the best approach for a particular procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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