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  • Question 1 - An elderly man complains that his urine appears milky white, on further questioning...

    Correct

    • An elderly man complains that his urine appears milky white, on further questioning you ascertain that he believes he is passing semen in his urine. Which condition is he most likely to be suffering with?

      Your Answer: Dhat

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 2 - How can you differentiate between an obsession and a compulsion? ...

    Correct

    • How can you differentiate between an obsession and a compulsion?

      Your Answer: Repeatedly imagining violent scenes

      Explanation:

      The question implies that obsessions are characterized by urges, images, of thoughts, while compulsions involve acts, either motor of mental. However, it is important to note that in order to be classified as an obsession of compulsion according to DSM-5 and ICD-11 criteria, the behavior must be time-consuming (taking more than 1 hour per day) of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 3 - What is a known factor that can cause hypospadias when taken during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that can cause hypospadias when taken during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Valproic acid

      Explanation:

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 4 - What is the duration required for olanzapine to achieve a stable state? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the duration required for olanzapine to achieve a stable state?

      Your Answer: 3 weeks

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following carries a specific licence for nocturnal enuresis in adolescents?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following carries a specific licence for nocturnal enuresis in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for duloxetine?

      Your Answer: Desensitises serotonin 1A receptors and beta adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Blocks 5HT2A, 5HT2C and 5HT3 serotonin receptors

      Explanation:

      Duloxetine boosts serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine levels by functioning as a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). On the other hand, Mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and specific serotonergic agent (NaSSA) that acts as an alpha 2 antagonist, increasing serotonin and norepinephrine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.1
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  • Question 7 - What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.3
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  • Question 8 - What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test? ...

    Correct

    • What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test?

      Your Answer: Personality

      Explanation:

      The TAT is a psychological test that uses ambiguous pictures of people to elicit narratives from subjects. These narratives provide insight into the subjects’ underlying motives, concerns, and social perspectives.

      Neuropsychological Tests

      Neuropsychological tests are used to assess cognitive function and behavior in individuals with neurological of psychiatric conditions. These tests are designed to evaluate specific domains of cognitive function, such as attention, language, memory, visuospatial skills, executive function, and intelligence. They can also be used to assess personality traits and emotional functioning.

      Attention: The digit span test measures an individual’s ability to remember and repeat a series of numbers. The Trails A test assesses visual attention and processing speed.

      Language: The Boston Naming Test evaluates an individual’s ability to name objects. Verbal fluency tests assess an individual’s ability to generate words within a specific category.

      Memory: The Wechsler Memory Scale assesses different aspects of memory, including immediate and delayed recall. The Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test measures an individual’s ability to remember a list of words.

      Visuospatial skills: The Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure test assesses an individual’s ability to copy and recall a complex figure.

      Executive function: The Wisconsin Card Sort Test measures an individual’s ability to shift cognitive strategies. The Stroop test assesses an individual’s ability to inhibit automatic responses. The Trails B test evaluates an individual’s ability to switch between tasks.

      Intelligence: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test assesses an individual’s overall intellectual functioning. The National Adult Reading Test measures an individual’s premorbid intelligence. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale assesses intellectual functioning in children and adults.

      Personality (Projective Tests): The Rorschach Inkblot test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of inkblots. The Thematic Apperception Test evaluates an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of ambiguous pictures. The Draw-A-Person test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their drawing of a person. Sentence completion tests assess an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to incomplete sentences.

      Personality (Objective Tests): The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to a standardized questionnaire. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) evaluates an individual’s personality based on 16 different traits. The NEO Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality based on five different dimensions. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ) measures an individual’s personality based on three different dimensions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 9 - What is the term used to describe a child who shows distress when...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a child who shows distress when their mother leaves the room but avoids contact with her upon her return?

      Your Answer: Anxious-avoidant attachment

      Correct Answer: Anxious-resistant attachment

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 10 - What is the correct statement regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs)?

      Your Answer: Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ARDs

      Correct Answer: An ADR is a harmful outcome of a medication when used at a high dose

      Explanation:

      ADRs only occur when medications are used at ABNORMAL doses. (FALSE)

      Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.

      Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.1
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  • Question 11 - Which frontal lobe function is evaluated by the Luria test? ...

    Correct

    • Which frontal lobe function is evaluated by the Luria test?

      Your Answer: Set shifting

      Explanation:

      Frontal Lobe Tests

      The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.

      Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.

      Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.

      Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.

      Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.

      Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 12 - A teenager with a borderline personality disorder begins to skip school and spend...

    Correct

    • A teenager with a borderline personality disorder begins to skip school and spend more time alone. They also start engaging in increased substance use. The school counselor notes that this occurs at a time when the academic work has become very challenging.
      Which of the following defense mechanisms is suggested?

      Your Answer: Acting out

      Explanation:

      Common examples of acting out include avoiding therapy sessions and using alcohol as a means of avoiding the challenging work of therapy.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.2
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  • Question 13 - Which adverse drug reaction is correctly paired with its corresponding Gell and Coombs...

    Correct

    • Which adverse drug reaction is correctly paired with its corresponding Gell and Coombs classification system?

      Your Answer: Type II - cytotoxic

      Explanation:

      Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.

      Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 20 month old child would be expected to be in which of...

    Correct

    • A 20 month old child would be expected to be in which of the following stages of psychosexual development?

      Your Answer: Anal

      Explanation:

      Psychosexual Development

      The psychosexual theory of development, developed by Freud, outlines a number of stages that individuals go through in their development. These stages are quite complex, but tend to come up in exams. The stages include the oral stage, which occurs from birth to 18 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through sucking, swallowing, and biting. The anal stage occurs from 18 to 36 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through bowel and bladder elimination and retention. The phallic stage occurs from 3 to 5 years, where boys pass through the Oedipal complex and girls the Electra complex. Girls are also said to develop penis envy in this stage. The latency stage occurs from 5 to puberty, where the sexual drive remains latent. Finally, the genital stage occurs from puberty to adulthood, where a person achieves independence from their parents and forms intimate relationships with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 15 - What is the initial stage in Mahler's model of child development that aligns...

    Correct

    • What is the initial stage in Mahler's model of child development that aligns with the first four weeks of a newborn's life?

      Your Answer: Autistic

      Explanation:

      Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 16 - Who authored the book 'The Myth of Mental Illness'? ...

    Correct

    • Who authored the book 'The Myth of Mental Illness'?

      Your Answer: Szasz

      Explanation:

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old woman presents with cognitive impairment, perseveration, and disinhibition. What neurological signs...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with cognitive impairment, perseveration, and disinhibition. What neurological signs are likely to be observed during her examination?

      Your Answer: Palmomental reflex

      Explanation:

      Frontal lobe pathology can result in the elicitation of frontal release signs, such as palmomental reflexes. Ataxia may be present in conditions like normal pressure hydrocephalus, while cogwheel rigidity is commonly found in extrapyramidal syndromes. Contralateral hemisphere dysfunction can lead to postural arm drift. These signs occur when the frontal lobe’s normal inhibition of these responses is released. For more information, see Kipps and Hodges’ article Cognitive assessment for clinicians.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 18 - The initial stage of moral development, as per Lawrence Kohlberg, is: ...

    Correct

    • The initial stage of moral development, as per Lawrence Kohlberg, is:

      Your Answer: Obedience and punishment orientation

      Explanation:

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 19 - QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes? ...

    Correct

    • QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 20 - Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention? ...

    Correct

    • Who proposed the Attenuation Theory as an explanation for selective attention?

      Your Answer: Treisman

      Explanation:

      Selective attention involves filtering external stimuli and assigning meaning to things that should get our attention. Three main models have been proposed: Broadbent’s Filter model, Treisman’s Attenuation Theory, and Deutsch and Deutsch’s Late stage model. Broadbent’s model is an early selection model that filters input based on physical characteristics, while Treisman’s model is an intermediate selection model that uses a leaky filter to weaken some stimuli but allow them through. Deutsch and Deutsch’s model is a late selection model that analyzes input for meaning before filtering occurs. Treisman’s model includes a dictionary unit that emphasizes certain words have lower thresholds for getting our attention, such as our own name.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 21 - Which feature is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which feature is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dysgraphia

      Correct Answer: Anosognosia

      Explanation:

      Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction is indicated by the presence of anosognosia.

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 22 - How can the phenomenon of anticipation be observed in certain conditions? ...

    Correct

    • How can the phenomenon of anticipation be observed in certain conditions?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Anticipation refers to the tendency for symptoms of a genetic disorder to manifest at an earlier age in successive generations as the disorder is passed down. This phenomenon is frequently observed in trinucleotide repeat disorders like myotonic dystrophy and Huntington’s disease.

      Trinucleotide Repeat Disorders: Understanding the Genetic Basis

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that arise due to the abnormal presence of an expanded sequence of trinucleotide repeats. These disorders are characterized by the phenomenon of anticipation, which refers to the amplification of the number of repeats over successive generations. This leads to an earlier onset and often a more severe form of the disease.

      The table below lists the trinucleotide repeat disorders and the specific repeat sequences involved in each condition:

      Condition Repeat Sequence Involved
      Fragile X Syndrome CGG
      Myotonic Dystrophy CTG
      Huntington’s Disease CAG
      Friedreich’s Ataxia GAA
      Spinocerebellar Ataxia CAG

      The mutations responsible for trinucleotide repeat disorders are referred to as ‘dynamic’ mutations. This is because the number of repeats can change over time, leading to a range of clinical presentations. Understanding the genetic basis of these disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis, genetic counseling, and the development of effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 23 - You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred by his primary care physician due to symptoms of increased appetite, weight gain, excessive sleepiness, feeling physically heavy, and sensitivity to rejection. He asks you about the most effective treatments for his condition. What would be the best response to his question?

      Your Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to a classic case of atypical depression, which is best treated with phenelzine, a MAOI. While imipramine and other TCAs have some evidence for treating atypical depression, they are not as effective as MAOIs. Nowadays, SSRIs are commonly used as a first-line treatment, but they have a weaker evidence base compared to MAOIs and TCAs. Vortioxetine is a new antidepressant that has complex effects on the 5HT system, but it has not been studied for its efficacy in treating atypical depression. Similarly, venlafaxine has not been studied for this indication either.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 24 - What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'? ...

    Correct

    • What is a crucial component of the brain's 'reward pathway'?

      Your Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Brain Regions and Functions

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions that perform different functions. One of the key regions involved in the reward system is the nucleus accumbens (NA). This region receives input from the ventral tegmental area, which uses dopamine as a neurotransmitter. The NA is responsible for processing reward-related information and is often referred to as the pleasure center of the brain.

      The limbic cortex, on the other hand, is not part of the reward circuit. It is involved in emotion, memory, and motivation.

      Another important gland in the brain is the pituitary gland. This endocrine gland secretes nine hormones that are involved in maintaining homeostasis in the body.

      The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia and is involved in movement, learning, and addiction. Although it has a role in reward-seeking, it is not considered to be part of the classic reward pathway.

      Finally, the tegmentum is a region of the brainstem that contains several cranial nerve nuclei. It is involved in various functions such as movement, sensation, and autonomic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man was at a concert when a firework exploded nearby. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man was at a concert when a firework exploded nearby. He was standing at the time and the force of the blast threw him to the ground. He suffered a broken arm and multiple cuts. Several people were killed and many others were injured.
      After four months, he experiences nightmares about the incident, struggles to sleep, has avoided going to concerts since, and jumps at sudden sounds. He often finds himself unable to stop thinking about what happened.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that develops in response to an exceptionally threatening of catastrophic event of situation, such as the one described above. It is only diagnosed if symptoms arise within six months of the traumatic event. The symptoms of PTSD can be categorized into three groups: re-experiencing the traumatic event (such as through nightmares of vivid thoughts), persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, and persistent symptoms of increased arousal (such as difficulty sleeping of concentrating).

      Agoraphobia is a fear of being in situations of places from which escape is difficult, leading to avoidance of many situations and confinement to the home. This fear is typically triggered by situations such as crowds, public places, of traveling alone of away from home.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent anxiety that is not limited to any specific environmental circumstance. To receive this diagnosis, a patient must experience symptoms of anxiety on most days for several weeks of months, with evidence of impairment in important areas of functioning. However, this diagnosis is not appropriate for the scenario described above, as the anxiety is related to a specific event of trigger.

      Panic disorder involves sudden onset of severe anxiety, with at least three panic attacks experienced over a three-week period. Symptoms may include sweating, palpitations, shortness of breath, nausea, trembling, chest pain of discomfort, dizziness of lightheadedness, chills of hot flushes, fear of losing control of dying, paraesthesia, feeling of choking, and derealization or depersonalization.

      Social phobia is characterized by a marked fear of social situations in which embarrassment may occur, leading to avoidance of these situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which artery is likely to be affected if a patient is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • Which artery is likely to be affected if a patient is unable to read but can still write after experiencing a stroke?

      Your Answer: Right anterior cerebral

      Correct Answer: Left posterior cerebral

      Explanation:

      An infarction to the left posterior cerebral artery typically results in pure alexia, also known as alexia without agraphia, which is characterized by the inability to read but the ability to write.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Your consultant calls you into his room to show you an interesting case....

    Correct

    • Your consultant calls you into his room to show you an interesting case. When you enter you see a middle-aged female sat in a chair. The consultant places a hairbrush next to her which she immediately picks up and starts brushing her hair with. Which of the following terms best describes this observation?:

      Your Answer: Utilization behaviour

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Motor Behaviours Associated with Utilization Behaviour

      Utilization behaviour (UB) is a condition where patients exhibit exaggerated and inappropriate motor responses to environmental cues and objects. This behaviour is automatic and instrumentally correct, but not contextually appropriate. For instance, a patient may start brushing their teeth when presented with a toothbrush, even in a setting where it is not expected. UB is caused by frontal lobe lesions that result in a loss of inhibitory control.

      Other motor abnormalities associated with UB include imitation behaviour, where patients tend to imitate the examiner’s behaviour, and the alien hand sign, where patients experience bizarre hand movements that they cannot control. Manual groping behaviour is also observed, where patients automatically manipulate objects placed in front of them. The grasp reflex, which is normal in infants, should not be present in children and adults. It is an automatic tendency to grip objects of stimuli, such as the examiner’s hand.

      Environmental Dependency Syndrome is another condition associated with UB. It describes deficits in personal control of action and an overreliance on social and physical environmental stimuli to guide behaviour in a social context. For example, a patient may start commenting on pictures in an examiner’s office, believing it to be an art gallery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the accuracy of psychiatric diagnosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accuracy of psychiatric diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Is increased by semi-structured interviews

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric diagnosis reliability can be measured through observer and interview methods. With skilled practitioners, psychiatric diagnoses are now as reliable as clinical judgments in other medical fields, and sometimes even more so. To increase reliability and reduce disagreement, structured of standardized interviews can be used, along with definitions for all psychopathology items covered by the interview and operational definitions to ensure consistent diagnoses. The WHO conducted field trials in 1986, which showed almost global acceptability, coverage, and inter-rater reliability of psychiatric diagnostic categories. While reliability and validity are independent, reliability sets a limit on validity. Diagnostic criteria and standardized interview schedules have been proven to increase psychiatric diagnosis reliability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which ethical principle in medicine was upheld by the case of Cruzan v....

    Incorrect

    • Which ethical principle in medicine was upheld by the case of Cruzan v. Director, Missouri Department of Health?

      Your Answer: Right to refuse treatment if of sound mind

      Correct Answer: Confidentiality can be breached where another's life is under threat

      Explanation:

      Legal Principles in Healthcare

      In the case of Tarasoff vs. the Regents of the University of California, it was established that patient confidentiality can be breached if there is a threat of harm to another person. Practitioners have a duty to take reasonable steps to protect the threatened individual, which may include notifying the police of warning the intended victim.

      Another important legal principle in healthcare is the Bolam test. This principle states that a practitioner’s care is not considered negligent if a responsible body of similar professionals supports the practice, even if it is not the standard care. These legal principles help to ensure that healthcare professionals are held accountable for their actions and that patients receive appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which component is included in the Papez circuit? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which component is included in the Papez circuit?

      Your Answer: Caudate nucleus

      Correct Answer: Hippocampus

      Explanation:

      The Papez Circuit: A Neural Pathway for Emotion

      James Papez was the first to describe a neural pathway in the brain that mediates the process of emotion. This pathway is known as the ‘Papez circuit’ and is located on the medial surface of the brain. It is bilateral, symmetrical, and links the cortex to the hypothalamus.

      According to Papez, information about emotion passes through several structures in the brain, including the hippocampus, the Mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus, the anterior nucleus of the thalamus, the cingulate cortex, and the entorhinal cortex. Finally, the information passes through the hippocampus again, completing the circuit.

      The Papez circuit was one of the first descriptions of the limbic system, which is responsible for regulating emotions, motivation, and memory. Understanding the Papez circuit and the limbic system has important implications for understanding and treating emotional disorders such as anxiety and depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The Wisconsin Card sorting test is used to assess which of the following?...

    Incorrect

    • The Wisconsin Card sorting test is used to assess which of the following?

      Your Answer: Parietal lobe

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Frontal Lobe Tests

      The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.

      Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.

      Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.

      Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.

      Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.

      Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.9
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  • Question 32 - Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence,...

    Correct

    • Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice?

      Your Answer: Principlism

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the estimated number of words a 30-month-old child typically knows? ...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated number of words a 30-month-old child typically knows?

      Your Answer: 100-200 words

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is another name for the lateral sulcus? ...

    Correct

    • What is another name for the lateral sulcus?

      Your Answer: Sylvian fissure

      Explanation:

      The regions associated with language are located in the vicinity of the sylvian fissure of lateral sulcus.

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following symptoms in the PANSS scale for schizophrenia is classified...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms in the PANSS scale for schizophrenia is classified as a positive symptom?

      Your Answer: Disturbance of volition

      Correct Answer: Conceptual disorganisation

      Explanation:

      The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is a tool used to measure the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. The scale is divided into three categories: positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and general psychopathology symptoms. Each category has several items that are scored on a seven-point severity scale. The positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and hyperactivity, while the negative symptoms include blunted affect and lack of spontaneity. The general psychopathology symptoms include anxiety, depression, and poor impulse control. The PANSS is a valuable tool for clinicians to assess the severity of symptoms in patients with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - In Piaget's theory, what is the term used to describe the process by...

    Incorrect

    • In Piaget's theory, what is the term used to describe the process by which individuals try to make sense of new experiences by relating them to their existing knowledge structures?

      Your Answer: Accommodation

      Correct Answer: Assimilation

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s cognitive theory involves the use of existing patterns of knowledge and behavior, known as schemas, through the process of assimilation. However, when faced with new situations, these schemas may need to be modified, which is known as accommodation. The theory is comprised of three main components: schemas, processes that facilitate the transition between stages (equilibrium, assimilation, and accommodation), and four stages of development: sensorimotor (0-2 years), preoperational (2-7 years), concrete operational (7-11 years), and formal operational (11+ years).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid...

    Correct

    • What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid potential complications?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Pseudocholinesterase Deficiency

      Pseudocholinesterase deficiency, also known as butyrylcholinesterase deficiency, is a medical condition that can lead to increased sensitivity to certain drugs. This condition affects approximately 1 in 3200 to 1 in 5000 people, with higher prevalence in certain populations such as the Persian Jewish community and Alaska Natives. Interestingly, this condition does not cause any noticeable symptoms until an abnormal drug reaction occurs.

      It is important for individuals with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid certain drugs, including donepezil, galantamine, procaine, succinylcholine, and pilocarpine. By avoiding these drugs, individuals with this condition can reduce their risk of experiencing adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which interview method was utilized in the NEMESIS study conducted in the Netherlands...

    Correct

    • Which interview method was utilized in the NEMESIS study conducted in the Netherlands to assess mental health and incidence?

      Your Answer: Composite international diagnostic interview (CIDI)

      Explanation:

      Several structured interviews have been used in various studies to assess mental disorders. The Clinical Interview Schedule-Revised (CIS-R) was used in the ONS 2000 psychiatric morbidity survey, while the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used in the Epidemiological Catchment Area study. The Psychosis Screening Questionnaire (PSQ) was used in the ONS 2000 psychiatric morbidity survey, and the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV (SCID) was used in the European Study of Epidemiology of Mental Disorders (ESEMeD). Additionally, the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) is a structured interview used by the World Health Organization (WHO) to assess mental disorders according to ICD-10 and DSM-IV criteria. The NEMESIS study in the Netherlands used CIDI to determine the prevalence of mental disorders in adults aged 18-64 years. The study began in 1996 and involved 7076 participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Who created the strange situation procedure, a test used to assess attachment? ...

    Correct

    • Who created the strange situation procedure, a test used to assess attachment?

      Your Answer: Ainsworth

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the options below is the least probable cause of a notable...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is the least probable cause of a notable increase in a patient's prolactin levels?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinemia is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medication, but it is rare with antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, so dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, can increase prolactin levels. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related, and some antipsychotics cause more significant increases than others. Hyperprolactinemia can cause symptoms such as galactorrhea, menstrual difficulties, gynecomastia, hypogonadism, and sexual dysfunction. Long-standing hyperprolactinemia in psychiatric patients can increase the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer, although there is no conclusive evidence that antipsychotic medication increases the risk of breast malignancy and mortality. Some antipsychotics, such as clozapine and aripiprazole, have a low risk of causing hyperprolactinemia, while typical antipsychotics and risperidone have a high risk. Monitoring of prolactin levels is recommended before starting antipsychotic therapy and at three months and annually thereafter. Antidepressants rarely cause hyperprolactinemia, and routine monitoring is not recommended. Symptomatic hyperprolactinemia has been reported with most antidepressants, except for a few, such as mirtazapine, agomelatine, bupropion, and vortioxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A recommended approach for managing hyponatremia induced by antidepressants is: ...

    Correct

    • A recommended approach for managing hyponatremia induced by antidepressants is:

      Your Answer: Demeclocycline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of...

    Correct

    • Out of the options provided, which one is the least probable cause of delirium?

      Your Answer: Lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - How can primary process thinking be described? ...

    Correct

    • How can primary process thinking be described?

      Your Answer: Id

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is a frequently observed side-effect of lisdexamfetamine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a frequently observed side-effect of lisdexamfetamine?

      Your Answer: Decreased appetite

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What percentage of children who exhibit symptoms of gender dysphoria before puberty are...

    Correct

    • What percentage of children who exhibit symptoms of gender dysphoria before puberty are likely to continue experiencing these symptoms during adolescence?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Gender Development

      Gender identity is the sense of oneself as male of female, which is different from a person’s assigned sex at birth. Gender dysphoria occurs when a person’s gender does not match their sex. Infants as young as 10 months old can form stereotypic associations between faces of women and men and gender-typed objects. By 18-24 months, most children can label gender groups and use gender labels in their speech. Children typically develop gender awareness of their own self around 18 months and declare a gender identity of male of female by age 5-6. It is normal for children to experiment with gender expression and roles. For the majority of pre-pubertal children, gender dysphoria does not persist into adolescence, with only a minority (15%) experiencing persistent gender dysphoria. (Levy, 1994; Martin, 2010; Steensma, 2011).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 70-year-old patient presents with gait instability, urinary incontinence, and memory impairment. What...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient presents with gait instability, urinary incontinence, and memory impairment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the number of centromeres present in a cell containing 20 chromatids?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the number of centromeres present in a cell containing 20 chromatids?

      Your Answer: 40

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division

      Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.

      During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.

      In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.

      Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 60-year-old male with a history of depression and anxiety is prescribed selegiline....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male with a history of depression and anxiety is prescribed selegiline. What is the mode of action of selegiline?

      Your Answer: MAO-B inhibition

      Explanation:

      Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase B inhibitor that increases dopamine levels and is used in combination with levodopa to treat Parkinson’s disease. While it has been tested for use in Parkinson’s dementia due to its presumed ability to boost dopamine and potential neuroprotective effects, the results have been modest at best. It is not effective as an antidepressant as it does not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - What street drug inhibits the monoamine transporter SERT? ...

    Incorrect

    • What street drug inhibits the monoamine transporter SERT?

      Your Answer: GHB

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine

      Explanation:

      Cannabis attaches to cannabinoid receptors, while heroin acts as an opioid agonist and alters the function of dopamine.

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - What type of antidepressant medication did Carlsson create in the late 1960s? ...

    Correct

    • What type of antidepressant medication did Carlsson create in the late 1960s?

      Your Answer: SSRI

      Explanation:

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - What is the rate of schizophrenia concordance among dizygotic twins according to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rate of schizophrenia concordance among dizygotic twins according to the Gottesman data?

      Your Answer: 23%

      Correct Answer: 17%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia: A Genetic Disorder

      Adoption studies have consistently shown that biological relatives of patients with schizophrenia have an increased risk of developing the disorder. Schizophrenia is a complex disorder with incomplete penetrance, as evidenced by the fact that monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of approximately 50%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate of 17%. This indicates a significant genetic contribution to the disorder, with an estimated heritability of 80%. Segregation analysis suggests that schizophrenia follows a multifactorial model.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest impact on the QTc interval? ...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - How would you describe the condition of a patient who, after experiencing a...

    Correct

    • How would you describe the condition of a patient who, after experiencing a stroke, is unable to identify familiar objects despite having no sensory impairment?

      Your Answer: Visual agnosia

      Explanation:

      Visual Agnosia: Inability to Recognize Familiar Objects

      Visual agnosia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to recognize familiar objects, even though their sensory apparatus is functioning normally. This disorder can be further classified into different subtypes, with two of the most important being prosopagnosia and simultanagnosia.

      Prosopagnosia is the inability to identify faces, which can make it difficult for individuals to recognize family members, friends, of even themselves in a mirror. Simultanagnosia, on the other hand, is the inability to recognize a whole image, even though individual details may be recognized. This can make it challenging for individuals to understand complex scenes of navigate their environment.

      Visual agnosia can be caused by various factors, including brain damage from injury of disease. Treatment options for this condition are limited, but some individuals may benefit from visual aids of cognitive therapy to improve their ability to recognize objects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is the entity responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system?...

    Correct

    • What is the entity responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Oligodendrocyte

      Explanation:

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - What is the accuracy of the dopamine hypothesis in explaining schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accuracy of the dopamine hypothesis in explaining schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Elevated presynaptic dopamine synthesis has not been demonstrated

      Correct Answer: Cannabinoid agonists have been shown in animals to increase striatal dopamine release

      Explanation:

      The Dopamine Hypothesis is a theory that suggests that dopamine and dopaminergic mechanisms are central to schizophrenia. This hypothesis was developed based on observations that antipsychotic drugs provide at least some degree of D2-type dopamine receptor blockade and that it is possible to induce a psychotic episode in healthy subjects with pharmacological dopamine agonists. The hypothesis was further strengthened by the finding that antipsychotic drugs’ clinical effectiveness was directly related to their affinity for dopamine receptors. Initially, the belief was that the problem related to an excess of dopamine in the brain. However, later studies showed that the relationship between hypofrontality and low cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dopamine metabolite levels indicates low frontal dopamine levels. Thus, there was a move from a one-sided dopamine hypothesis explaining all facets of schizophrenia to a regionally specific prefrontal hypodopaminergia and a subcortical hyperdopaminergia. In summary, psychosis appears to result from excessive dopamine activity in the striatum, while the negative symptoms seen in schizophrenia appear to result from too little dopamine activity in the frontal lobe. Antipsychotic medications appear to help by countering the effects of increased dopamine by blocking postsynaptic D2 receptors in the striatum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which one...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate term to describe the process by which one gene can generate multiple variations of proteins?

      Your Answer: Translation

      Correct Answer: Alternative splicing

      Explanation:

      Alternative splicing is a crucial process in post-transcriptional processing that has significant implications. It allows a single gene to produce multiple mRNAs that encode different polypeptides by modifying the splicing pattern. However, mutations in the gene sequence can lead to either a lack of splicing of excessive splicing, resulting in diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What indicators would suggest the existence of a lower motor neuron lesion rather...

    Correct

    • What indicators would suggest the existence of a lower motor neuron lesion rather than an upper motor neuron lesion?

      Your Answer: Fasciculations

      Explanation:

      Motor Neuron Lesions

      Signs of an upper motor neuron lesion include weakness, increased reflexes, increased tone (spasticity), mild atrophy, an upgoing plantar response (Babinski reflex), and clonus. On the other hand, signs of a lower motor neuron lesion include atrophy, weakness, fasciculations, decreased reflexes, and decreased tone. It is important to differentiate between the two types of lesions as they have different underlying causes and require different treatment approaches. A thorough neurological examination can help identify the location and extent of the lesion, which can guide further diagnostic testing and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 25-year-old female who has a past of opioid addiction has successfully maintained...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female who has a past of opioid addiction has successfully maintained sobriety and is seeking support in controlling her urges.
      What would be the most suitable medication intervention for managing her cravings?

      Your Answer: Acamprosate calcium

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Treatments for Alcohol Dependence

      Acamprosate, when used in conjunction with counselling, has been found to be effective in helping alcohol-dependent patients with strong cravings maintain abstinence. Bupropion hydrochloride, which is primarily used as an antidepressant, has also been shown to be effective in maintaining smoking cessation. Disulfiram, on the other hand, causes an unpleasant systemic reaction when alcohol is consumed due to the buildup of acetaldehyde. Nalmefene has recently been licensed for the reduction of alcohol consumption in alcohol-dependent patients with a high drinking risk level who do not have physical withdrawal symptoms and do not require immediate detoxification. Finally, naltrexone, an opioid-receptor antagonist, may be used in the treatment of alcohol dependence after successful withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following is categorized as a projection tract in relation to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is categorized as a projection tract in relation to white matter?

      Your Answer: Cingulum

      Correct Answer: Geniculocalcarine tract

      Explanation:

      White matter is the cabling that links different parts of the CNS together. There are three types of white matter cables: projection tracts, commissural tracts, and association tracts. Projection tracts connect higher centers of the brain with lower centers, commissural tracts connect the two hemispheres together, and association tracts connect regions of the same hemisphere. Some common tracts include the corticospinal tract, which connects the motor cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord, and the corpus callosum, which is the largest white matter fiber bundle connecting corresponding areas of cortex between the hemispheres. Other tracts include the cingulum, superior and inferior occipitofrontal fasciculi, and the superior and inferior longitudinal fasciculi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - An EEG analysis indicates the presence of a mass in the brain. What...

    Correct

    • An EEG analysis indicates the presence of a mass in the brain. What were the observed wave patterns?

      Your Answer: Delta activity (δ)

      Explanation:

      While alpha (α) and beta (β) activity are typical in adults who are awake and at rest, delta activity (δ) may suggest the presence of a brain tumor. Mu (μ) activity is linked to movement, and theta activity (θ) is uncommon in the waking adult population, occurring briefly in only 15% of individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult...

    Correct

    • What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult male?

      Your Answer: 440

      Explanation:

      While the upper limit technically reaches 439, it is evident that 440 is the optimal choice among the options provided.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely...

    Correct

    • In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely to build up in their body?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Patients with renal impairment should avoid taking amisulpride and sulpiride. This is because amisulpride is eliminated through the kidneys, and in cases of renal insufficiency, the dosage should be reduced, and intermittent treatment should be considered.

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?...

    Correct

    • What percentage of Caucasians have a deficiency in the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6?

      Your Answer: 6%

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What receptors does asenapine have low affinity for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What receptors does asenapine have low affinity for?

      Your Answer: 5HT2C

      Correct Answer: H1

      Explanation:

      Asenapine exhibits affinity towards D2, 5HT2A, 5HT2C, and α1/α2 adrenergic receptors, while having relatively low affinity for H1 and ACh receptors. This makes it a second generation antipsychotic that is approved for the treatment of moderate to severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. Its low affinity for H1 receptors is believed to contribute to its metabolically-neutral profile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - You are requested to conduct a liaison psychiatry evaluation on a 78-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • You are requested to conduct a liaison psychiatry evaluation on a 78-year-old woman admitted to a medical ward with a COPD flare-up and suspected depression.
      What are some characteristics of depression in the elderly?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriacal symptoms may be more frequently reported than sadness of low mood

      Explanation:

      There is a lower likelihood of elderly patients reporting feelings of sadness compared to younger patients with depression, and they may instead present with physical complaints. Depression rates in the elderly are often linked to physical health issues rather than just aging. There is no evidence to suggest that elderly depressed patients have a higher risk of developing dementia. The prognosis for depression in the elderly is similar to that of younger patients, and venlafaxine is safe to use in this population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset familial Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: PSEN1

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which theorist introduced the concept of the hierarchy of needs? ...

    Correct

    • Which theorist introduced the concept of the hierarchy of needs?

      Your Answer: Maslow

      Explanation:

      Maslow proposed a hierarchy of needs that must be met for an individual to achieve self-actualization, starting with basic physiological needs such as hunger and thirst. Allport and Odbert focused on studying individuals and their unique traits, rather than groups. Kelly developed the phenomenological approach and personal construct theory. Rogers believed in the inherent self-knowledge and rationality of all humans and is known for his work in client-centered therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the...

    Correct

    • What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the paternal chromosome 15q?

      Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-dominant parietal lesions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-dominant parietal lesions?

      Your Answer: Anosognosia

      Correct Answer: Agraphia

      Explanation:

      Non-Dominant Parietal Lobe Dysfunction

      The non-dominant parietal lobe is typically the right lobe in most individuals. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, including the inability to recognize one’s own illness (anosognosia), neglect of half the body (hemiasomatognosia), difficulty dressing (dressing apraxia), trouble with spatial awareness and construction (constructional dyspraxia), difficulty recognizing familiar places (geographical agnosia), and altered perception of sensory stimuli (allesthesia). It’s important to note that agraphia, a symptom seen in Gerstmann’s syndrome, is caused by dysfunction in the dominant parietal lobe, not the non-dominant lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - When does babbling typically appear during the process of language acquisition? ...

    Correct

    • When does babbling typically appear during the process of language acquisition?

      Your Answer: 6-12 months

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Can you tell me which cranial nerve is responsible for receiving taste sensations...

    Correct

    • Can you tell me which cranial nerve is responsible for receiving taste sensations from the front two-thirds of the tongue?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the front two-thirds of the tongue, as well as innervating facial muscles and certain glands. The glossopharyngeal nerve receives taste signals from the back third of the tongue. The hypoglossal nerve controls the muscles of the tongue. The olfactory nerve is responsible for detecting smells. Finally, the trigeminal nerve receives sensory input from the face and controls the muscles used for chewing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which drug experiences the most substantial first-pass metabolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug experiences the most substantial first-pass metabolism?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs

      The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.

      Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What is the term used to describe the situation where diagnostic categories align...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the situation where diagnostic categories align with clinical experience?

      Your Answer: Face validity

      Explanation:

      For diagnostic categories to be useful, they must be related to the disorders encountered in practice. Face validity refers to the degree to which diagnostic categories align with clinical experience. Validity is distinct from diagnosis reliability. Concurrent validity measures how well a test corresponds with other measures of the same thing. Construct validity involves diagnostic categories indicating connections between disorders and independent variables, such as biochemical measures. Content validity involves test items representing the full range of possible items the test could cover. Predictive validity involves diagnostic categories being able to anticipate the outcome of disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - As an examining physician, have you ever encountered a situation where you can...

    Incorrect

    • As an examining physician, have you ever encountered a situation where you can easily move a patient's arm upwards with minimal pressure, despite their attempts to resist? And once you stop applying pressure, the arm returns to its original position? If so, what is this sign called?

      Your Answer: Mitmachen

      Correct Answer: Mitgehen

      Explanation:

      Mitgehen is a type of extreme cooperation that is observed in catatonia, where the patient moves their body in the direction of even the slightest pressure. It is crucial that the patient has been instructed to resist manipulation. This phenomenon is also referred to as the ‘angle poise lamp sign’ and is a form of automatic obedience. Catalepsy is another sign seen in catatonia, where patients maintain unusual postures for extended periods of time. In contrast, cataplexy is a sudden loss of muscle tone that leads to collapse and is commonly observed in narcolepsy. Gegenhalten is an involuntary resistance to passive movements. Mitmachen is a milder form of automatic obedience, where the patient’s body can be moved into any position without resistance when instructed to resist manipulation. Mitmachen is less severe than mitgehen, as the pressure required to elicit movements in mitgehen is very minimal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy? ...

    Correct

    • Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy?

      Your Answer: Minuchin

      Explanation:

      Family therapy has been shaped by various influential figures, each with their own unique approach. Salvador Minuchin is known for his structural model, which emphasizes the importance of family hierarchy, rules, and boundaries. Gregory Bateson, on the other hand, is associated with paradoxical therapy. Murray Bowen is linked to the family systems approach, while Jay Haley is known for his strategic systemic therapy. Finally, the Milan systemic approach is associated with Mara Selvini Palazzoli. Each of these figures has contributed to the development of family therapy, and their approaches continue to be used and adapted by therapists today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - How can the effectiveness of executive function be tested, and which test is...

    Incorrect

    • How can the effectiveness of executive function be tested, and which test is the least effective?

      Your Answer: Cognitive estimates

      Correct Answer: Digit span

      Explanation:

      While digit span is primarily used to assess working memory, it also involves executive attention, which is a component shared by tests of working memory capacity and executive function. Therefore, digit span cannot be considered solely a test of working memory.

      The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - What is a true statement about dystonia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about dystonia?

      Your Answer: It can occur on withdrawal of an antipsychotic

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines: Dystonia

      Dystonia is a type of adverse reaction that can occur in patients taking typical antipsychotics. It is characterized by symptoms such as torticollis and oculogyric spasm. About 10% of patients who are exposed to these medications may develop acute dystonia. This reaction is more likely to occur in the early stages of treatment of after a dose increase. Additionally, it can also happen when the patient stops taking the drug. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients closely for signs of dystonia and adjust the medication as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which psychotropic medication is known to have a notable impact on the QTc...

    Correct

    • Which psychotropic medication is known to have a notable impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Haloperidol causes a significant prolongation of the QTc interval, resulting in a ‘high effect’. This effect is observed even at normal doses, with a prolongation of more than 20 msec. In contrast, aripiprazole, Mirtazapine, and paliperidone do not affect the QTc interval. Additionally, most SSRIs do not have an impact on the QTc interval, except for citalopram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - During a session of cognitive analytic therapy, a young adult client shared that...

    Correct

    • During a session of cognitive analytic therapy, a young adult client shared that whenever they enter a new romantic relationship, they tend to intentionally create conflict of engage in infidelity. This behavior is likely influenced by their complex and enmeshed relationship with their father, who frequently left the family home during their childhood. Additionally, the client exhibits traits of narcissism. What type of procedure is the client describing?

      Your Answer: Snag

      Explanation:

      Traps refer to circular patterns of interaction that create ‘vicious circles’. For instance, when we feel uncertain, we may try to please others, but this can result in others taking advantage of us, which reinforces our uncertainty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      30.7
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  • Question 81 - A 32-year-old woman is being readmitted to the hospital due to a relapse...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is being readmitted to the hospital due to a relapse of her schizophrenia. She reports difficulty remembering to take her oral antipsychotic medication, even when she is feeling well. What long-acting injection (LAI) antipsychotic could be prescribed to improve adherence after she is discharged from the hospital?

      Your Answer: Paliperidone

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medications and Their Forms of Administration

      Antipsychotic medications are available in various forms of administration, including oral and long-acting injectable (LAI) forms. Paliperidone, a medication closely related to risperidone, is available in both oral form (Invega) and as a monthly LAI (Xeplion). Amisulpride and zotepine are currently only available in oral form, while asenapine, released in 2012 in the UK, is only available in oral (sublingual/buccal) form. Sertindole, an oral antipsychotic, was withdrawn from the European market for several years in the late 1990s due to concerns about QTc interval prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of memory is semantic memory responsible for?

      Your Answer: Autobiographical events

      Correct Answer: Language and knowledge

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure?

      Your Answer: It is done on children aged 12 to 18 months

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome when administering antipsychotics?

      Your Answer: Younger age of patient

      Correct Answer: Being female

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - What medication would be most strongly recommended for a patient with schizophrenia and...

    Correct

    • What medication would be most strongly recommended for a patient with schizophrenia and olanzapine induced weight gain who did not respond well to aripiprazole and continues to experience distressing auditory hallucinations?

      Your Answer: Lurasidone

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines? ...

    Correct

    • What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines?

      Your Answer: Gillick

      Explanation:

      Gillick Competency and Fraser Guidelines

      Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines refer to a legal case which looked specifically at whether doctors should be able to give contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent. But since then, they have been more widely used to help assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and to understand the implications of those decisions.

      In 1982, Mrs Victoria Gillick took her local health authority (West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority) and the Department of Health and Social Security to court in an attempt to stop doctors from giving contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent.

      The case went to the High Court where Mr Justice Woolf dismissed Mrs Gillick’s claims. The Court of Appeal reversed this decision, but in 1985 it went to the House of Lords and the Law Lords (Lord Scarman, Lord Fraser and Lord Bridge) ruled in favour of the original judgement delivered by Mr Justice Woolf.

      The Fraser Guidelines were laid down by Lord Fraser in the House of Lords’ case and state that it is lawful for doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent providing that they are satisfied that:

      – The young person will understand the professional’s advice
      – The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
      – The young person is likely to begin, of to continue having, sexual intercourse with of without contraceptive treatment
      – Unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical of mental health, of both, are likely to suffer
      – The young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice of treatment with of without parental consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium? ...

    Correct

    • Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium?

      Your Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics and potassium sparing diuretics have been found to have no significant impact on lithium levels, unlike other diuretics. While acetazolamide can decrease lithium levels by increasing excretion, loop diuretics may initially increase excretion followed by a rebound phase of enhanced reabsorption, resulting in no significant effect on lithium levels over a 24-hour period.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.2
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  • Question 88 - Which neurochemical pathway is responsible for causing extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) due to...

    Correct

    • Which neurochemical pathway is responsible for causing extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) due to dopamine blockade?

      Your Answer: Nigrostriatal

      Explanation:

      The Four Dopamine Pathways in the Brain

      The brain has four main dopamine pathways that play crucial roles in regulating various functions. The nigrostriatal pathway is responsible for motor movement and runs from the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia. However, blocking D2 receptors in this pathway can lead to extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs).

      The tuberoinfundibular pathway, on the other hand, runs from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary and is responsible for regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine inhibits prolactin secretion, which is why D2 selective antipsychotics can cause hyperprolactinemia.

      The mesocortical pathway originates from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and runs to the prefrontal cortex. This pathway plays a crucial role in regulating cognition, executive functioning, and affect.

      Finally, the mesolimbic pathway also originates from the VTA and runs to the nucleus accumbens. This pathway is responsible for mediating positive psychotic symptoms, and dopamine hyperactivity in this pathway can lead to the development of these symptoms.

      Overall, understanding the different dopamine pathways in the brain is crucial for developing effective treatments for various psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - What was the outcome of the war crimes tribunals that dealt with human...

    Correct

    • What was the outcome of the war crimes tribunals that dealt with human experimentation at the conclusion of World War II?

      Your Answer: Nuremberg Code

      Explanation:

      The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical principles for human experimentation that emerged from the Nuremberg trials after World War II. It includes guidelines such as obtaining informed consent, avoiding harm to participants, and not conducting experiments that may result in death.

      The Helsinki Declaration, established by the World Medical Association, is another set of ethical principles for human research. It has been amended several times since its adoption in 1964 and provides guidelines for conducting research with human subjects.

      The Declaration of Geneva is a statement of a physician’s commitment to the humanitarian goals of medicine. It was created as a revision of the Hippocratic oath and has been amended and revised over time.

      The Nightingale Pledge is a statement of ethical principles for the nursing profession. It outlines the responsibilities and commitments of nurses to their patients and the healthcare system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam?

      Your Answer: It is a useful tool for detecting dementia

      Explanation:

      The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia

      The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.

      The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to...

    Correct

    • Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to the heart?

      Your Answer: Lofepramine

      Explanation:

      Among the tricyclic antidepressants, Lofepramine has the lowest potential for causing cardiotoxicity.

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
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  • Question 92 - In addition to alcohol, what other substance is metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase? ...

    Correct

    • In addition to alcohol, what other substance is metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?

      Your Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - What is the most efficient screening tool for identifying harmful alcohol consumption and...

    Correct

    • What is the most efficient screening tool for identifying harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol addiction?

      Your Answer: AUDIT questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is a substance that activates GABA-B receptors called? ...

    Correct

    • What is a substance that activates GABA-B receptors called?

      Your Answer: Baclofen

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - An important function of hepatic metabolism is to make a drug: ...

    Correct

    • An important function of hepatic metabolism is to make a drug:

      Your Answer: More water soluble

      Explanation:

      Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion

      Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.

      Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.

      Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What factors during pregnancy can cause fingernail hypoplasia? ...

    Correct

    • What factors during pregnancy can cause fingernail hypoplasia?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Teratogens and Their Associated Defects

      Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What is the closest estimate of heritability in schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the closest estimate of heritability in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: 55%

      Explanation:

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - What is the definition of Othello syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of Othello syndrome?

      Your Answer: Delusional belief that the one's partner is unfaithful

      Explanation:

      Morbid jealousy of delusions of jealousy are also known as Othello syndrome, named after the Shakespearean character who murdered his wife due to false beliefs of her infidelity. This condition poses a significant risk to the partner, similar to the original story. It can affect individuals of any gender and occur in relationships of any status of gender combination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 35-year-old woman with a three month history of 'strange actions' reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a three month history of 'strange actions' reports experiencing her thoughts being spoken out loud simultaneously as they happen. What term describes this symptom?

      Your Answer: Gedankenlautwerden

      Explanation:

      Gedankenlautwerden is a symptom of schizophrenia where one hears their own thoughts spoken just before of at the same time as they occur. It is different from écho de la pensée, which refers to hearing one’s own thoughts spoken aloud after they have occurred. Functional hallucinations are triggered by an external stimulus in the same modality, while thought broadcasting involves the belief that someone of something has access to the patient’s thoughts. Extracampine hallucinations are those perceived as coming from outside the sensory field, such as hearing astronauts speaking on the moon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - What is the term used to describe the process of recalling information from...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of recalling information from long-term memory triggered by a cue, such as a particular scent of sound?

      Your Answer: Recall

      Correct Answer: Redintegration

      Explanation:

      Redintegration pertains to the recollection of information from long term memory triggered by a cue, like a scent of noise. Recall entails actively searching memory stores for information. Recognition refers to the ability to identify an answer to a question from a list of options, without spontaneously recalling it. Reconstructive memory is the process of transferring information from one person to another. Relearning involves learning something again that was previously learned and forgotten, with faster learning occurring on subsequent attempts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes

      Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.

      It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - What is the commonly used scale in research studies to assess symptoms of...

    Correct

    • What is the commonly used scale in research studies to assess symptoms of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: PANSS

      Explanation:

      The PANSS scale is a commonly utilized tool in schizophrenia research to assess both positive and negative symptoms. The BDI measures depression using the Beck inventory, while the Calgary scale is specifically designed to rate depression in individuals with schizophrenia. CIWA is a scale used to evaluate the severity of alcohol withdrawal, and LUNSER is a rating scale for neuroleptic side effects developed by Liverpool University.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the arrhythmogenic potential of tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 105 - What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a...

    Correct

    • What is the heuristic that best explains a junior psychiatrist's misdiagnosis of a simple case of depression as a rare mental health condition they recently read about?

      Your Answer: Availability

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 106 - What is a true statement about benzodiazepines? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: They cause anterograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines have been found to suppress REM sleep and can lead to intense dreams and severe nightmares when discontinued due to a rebound effect. Additionally, they can cause anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to create new memories. While benzodiazepines do not directly induce of inhibit liver enzymes, they are metabolized by CYP3A4, which can be inhibited by certain medications such as SSRIs, erythromycin, and ketoconazole. Flumazenil, a medication used to manage benzodiazepine overdose, has a short half-life and may require repeated doses. However, benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of depression of panic disorder.

      Benzodiazepines: Effective but Addictive

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are commonly used to treat anxiety. They are divided into two categories: hypnotics, which have a short half-life, and anxiolytics, which have a long half-life. While they can be effective in reducing anxiety symptoms, they are also highly addictive and should not be prescribed for more than one month at a time.

      Benzodiazepines are particularly effective as hypnotics, but they do have some negative effects on sleep. They suppress REM sleep, and when they are discontinued, a rebound effect is often seen. This means that people may experience more vivid dreams and nightmares when they stop taking the medication. It is important for doctors to carefully monitor patients who are taking benzodiazepines to ensure that they are not becoming addicted and that they are not experiencing any negative side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.7
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  • Question 107 - What diagnostic tool is utilized to determine the underlying reason for ataxia? ...

    Correct

    • What diagnostic tool is utilized to determine the underlying reason for ataxia?

      Your Answer: Romberg's test

      Explanation:

      A positive Romberg test suggests the presence of sensory ataxia.

      Romberg’s Test for Investigating Ataxia

      Romberg’s test is a diagnostic tool used to determine the cause of ataxia. A positive result indicates that the cause is sensory in nature. The test involves asking the patient to stand upright with their feet together and eyes closed. If the patient begins to sway of fall over, the test is considered positive. In cases where there is a cerebellar problem, the patient will exhibit ataxia even when their eyes are open. Romberg’s test is an important tool in diagnosing ataxia and determining the underlying cause of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.3
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  • Question 108 - Which cultural-specific illness is implied by the belief of a Haitian man that...

    Incorrect

    • Which cultural-specific illness is implied by the belief of a Haitian man that his depression was caused by an envious neighbor who sent him an evil spirit due to his business achievements?

      Your Answer: Khyâl cap

      Correct Answer: Maladi moun

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 109 - What is a true statement about amnesia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about amnesia?

      Your Answer: Situation specific amnesia is seen in cases of child sexual abuse

      Explanation:

      Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by a disruption of personal identity, which is not observed in transient global amnesia. In individuals with psychogenic amnesia, there is typically a loss of past memories (retrograde amnesia) while the ability to form new memories (anterograde amnesia) is relatively preserved.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman who is on methadone treatment for opioid addiction needs to take antipsychotic medication for a new episode of psychosis. She has had a positive response to haloperidol in the past. What is the most crucial test to monitor potential side effects of this medication combination?

      Your Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      When using methadone and haloperidol together, it is important to closely monitor the QTc interval due to their significant effect on it. EEG and electrolyte screening are not necessary. While liver function tests may be useful to perform periodically, they are not the primary concern with this combination. It is important to be cautious of respiratory depression when using high doses of methadone in combination with other sedative medications, but respiratory function tests are unlikely to provide helpful information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Who conducted the experiment On being sane in insane places where eight individuals...

    Correct

    • Who conducted the experiment On being sane in insane places where eight individuals feigned psychiatric illness to gain admission to a mental hospital and then had difficulty being released of having their diagnosis removed?

      Your Answer: DL Rosenhan

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson is associated with transactional analysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      9.7
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  • Question 112 - What is the lowest daily amount of citalopram that is effective for treating...

    Correct

    • What is the lowest daily amount of citalopram that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer: 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A teenager feels frustrated after a difficult day at school. They go for...

    Correct

    • A teenager feels frustrated after a difficult day at school. They go for a long bike ride after school and as a result, no longer feel frustrated.

      What is the term for this coping mechanism?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      The behavior described is an example of sublimation, where unconscious impulses are redirected into socially acceptable outlets for immediate gratification. The other options listed are all examples of mature defense mechanisms, including altruism, which involves finding satisfaction in helping others; anticipation, which involves mentally preparing for potential threats; humor, which allows for the expression of difficult emotions without personal discomfort; and suppression, which involves consciously delaying the processing of uncomfortable issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - What is a true statement about the drugs prescribed for individuals with dementia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the drugs prescribed for individuals with dementia?

      Your Answer: Memantine is an NMDA agonist

      Correct Answer: Donepezil is metabolised by CYP2D6, and CYP3A4

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of donepezil can be inhibited by CYP3A4 inhibitors like erythromycin and CYP2D6 inhibitors like fluoxetine. Conversely, enzyme inducers of these can decrease donepezil levels.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.5
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  • Question 115 - What brain structure is involved in the reward system and receives dopaminergic input...

    Correct

    • What brain structure is involved in the reward system and receives dopaminergic input from the ventral tegmental area through the mesolimbic dopamine pathway?

      Your Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Brain Anatomy

      The brain is a complex organ with various regions responsible for different functions. The major areas of the cerebrum (telencephalon) include the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe, insula, corpus callosum, fornix, anterior commissure, and striatum. The cerebrum is responsible for complex learning, language acquisition, visual and auditory processing, memory, and emotion processing.

      The diencephalon includes the thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary, pineal gland, and mammillary body. The thalamus is a major relay point and processing center for all sensory impulses (excluding olfaction). The hypothalamus and pituitary are involved in homeostasis and hormone release. The pineal gland secretes melatonin to regulate circadian rhythms. The mammillary body is a relay point involved in memory.

      The cerebellum is primarily concerned with movement and has two major hemispheres with an outer cortex made up of gray matter and an inner region of white matter. The cerebellum provides precise timing and appropriate patterns of skeletal muscle contraction for smooth, coordinated movements and agility needed for daily life.

      The brainstem includes the substantia nigra, which is involved in controlling and regulating activities of the motor and premotor cortical areas for smooth voluntary movements, eye movement, reward seeking, the pleasurable effects of substance misuse, and learning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Which of the following is an example of a closed question? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a closed question?

      Your Answer: Do you mind seeing all my patients today?

      Explanation:

      Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions

      When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 117 - What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of...

    Correct

    • What is meant by 'double agentry' and which parties may experience conflicts of interests as a result?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Double Agentry in Psychiatry

      Double agentry is a term used to describe a situation where a psychiatrist’s conflict of interest interferes with their ability to act in the best interests of their patient. Psychiatrists often have to balance the interests of multiple parties, such as the patient, family, society, and hospital commissioners, which is known as multiagency.

      The Tarasoff case is a prime example of double agentry in psychiatry. Two therapists failed to warn a woman that their patient had expressed an intention to kill her. They chose not to do so to respect the patient’s confidentiality, but failed to recognize their duty of care to both the patient and the potential victim. Unfortunately, the woman was eventually murdered by the patient.

      This case, which occurred in California, led to a change in the law that now requires therapists to have a legal duty to both their patients and potential victims. It highlights the importance of psychiatrists being aware of their responsibilities to all parties involved and ensuring that they act in the best interests of their patients while also fulfilling their duty of care to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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      Seconds
  • Question 118 - What is the term used to describe issues with intentional movements and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe issues with intentional movements and the occurrence of unintentional movements?

      Your Answer: Dystonia

      Correct Answer: Dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - What is a true statement regarding the risks of developing schizophrenia based on...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement regarding the risks of developing schizophrenia based on the Gottesman data?

      Your Answer: A parent has a 6% chance of developing schizophrenia is their child is affected

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Risk According to Gottesman

      Irving I. Gottesman conducted family and twin studies in European populations between 1920 and 1987 to determine the risk of developing schizophrenia for relatives of those with the disorder. The following table displays Gottesman’s findings, which show the average lifetime risk for each relationship:

      General population: 1%
      First cousin: 2%
      Uncle/aunt: 2%
      Nephew/niece: 4%
      Grandchildren: 5%
      Parents: 6%
      Half sibling: 6%
      Full sibling: 9%
      Children: 13%
      Fraternal twins: 17%
      Offspring of dual matings (both parents had schizophrenia): 46%
      Identical twins: 48%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A 40-year-old male is experiencing difficulty walking of standing normally. He presents to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male is experiencing difficulty walking of standing normally. He presents to the Emergency department and is observed swaying from side to side, almost falling before recovering. What is the specific name for this condition?

      Your Answer: Blocq's disease

      Explanation:

      Blocq’s disease, also known as astasia-abasia, is a conversion symptom characterized by an abnormal gait that is not indicative of any organic lesion. Hypochondriasis is excessive worry about having a serious illness despite the absence of a medical condition. Malingering involves fabricating symptoms for secondary gain, while somatization is a chronic condition with multiple physical complaints for which no physical cause can be found and is associated with frequent medical contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 121 - Which condition is characterized by microcephaly? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is characterized by microcephaly?

      Your Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Microcephaly is a characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome, while macrocephaly is associated with all the other options except for Asperger’s, which is not typically linked to any abnormality in head size.

      Microcephaly: A Condition of Small Head Size

      Microcephaly is a condition characterized by a small head size. It can be a feature of various conditions, including fetal alcohol syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Patau syndrome, Angelman syndrome, De Lange syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Cri-du-chat syndrome. Each of these conditions has its own unique set of symptoms and causes, but they all share the common feature of microcephaly. This condition can have a range of effects on a person’s development, including intellectual disability, seizures, and motor problems. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms and improve outcomes for individuals with microcephaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - What is the definition of copropraxia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of copropraxia?

      Your Answer: Use of obscene gestures

      Explanation:

      Copropraxia is a neurological condition characterized by the involuntary expression of socially unacceptable gestures. It is similar to coprolalia, which is the involuntary expression of socially unacceptable words. Other related conditions include echolalia, which involves copying others’ words, and echopraxia, which involves copying others’ actions. Coprophagia, on the other hand, refers to the act of eating faeces, while palilialia involves repeating one’s own sounds. These conditions can be distressing for those who experience them and can have a significant impact on their daily lives. Treatment options may include medication, therapy, and support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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      Seconds
  • Question 123 - What is a specific negative outcome that is commonly linked to the use...

    Correct

    • What is a specific negative outcome that is commonly linked to the use of lamotrigine?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that can be caused by medication use of infection. Anticonvulsants, particularly lamotrigine, are often the cause. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, fatigue, and the appearance of ulcers and lesions in the mucous membranes. A rash of round lesions also appears on the face, trunk, arms, legs, and soles of the feet. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - What is the enzyme that breaks down APP into harmless protein fragments? ...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme that breaks down APP into harmless protein fragments?

      Your Answer: Alpha-secretase

      Explanation:

      Alpha-Secretase: A Potential Treatment for Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alpha-secretase is a promising avenue for preventing and treating Alzheimer’s disease. When amyloid precursor protein (APP) crosses the cell membrane, it can be cleaved by various enzymes. Alpha-secretase cleaves APP in a way that produces non-toxic protein fragments. However, beta and gamma-secretase are two other enzymes that can cleave APP, resulting in shorter, stickier fragments called beta-amyloid. These fragments can join together to form insoluble amyloid plaques. Researchers are developing drugs that can either stimulate alpha-secretase of block beta- and gamma-secretase, with the hope of preventing or treating Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Which BMI classification is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which BMI classification is accurate?

      Your Answer: BMI 34 = obesity class II

      Correct Answer: BMI 32 = obesity class I

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of Obesity

      Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.

      Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.

      Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - Which statement is false regarding autosomal dominant conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false regarding autosomal dominant conditions?

      Your Answer: Huntington's is an example of an autosomal dominant condition

      Correct Answer: Show horizontal transmission

      Explanation:

      X-linked transmission is characterized by a Knight’s move pattern.

      Modes of Inheritance

      Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance

      Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.

      Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.

      X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance

      In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.

      Multifactorial Inheritance

      Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.4
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  • Question 127 - What statement accurately describes the Volume of Distribution (Vd)? ...

    Correct

    • What statement accurately describes the Volume of Distribution (Vd)?

      Your Answer: It can be greater than the total body water content of the body

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology

      The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.

      The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.

      The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 128 - Which aspect is not assessed through the Clock Drawing Test? ...

    Correct

    • Which aspect is not assessed through the Clock Drawing Test?

      Your Answer: Orientation to time

      Explanation:

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A teacher is concerned that one of their students is delirious. Which of...

    Correct

    • A teacher is concerned that one of their students is delirious. Which of the following would indicate that the student is oriented?

      Your Answer: Patient correctly states the date and time

      Explanation:

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A woman comes to the clinic with a sudden loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A woman comes to the clinic with a sudden loss of vision in both eyes. There are no abnormalities in the front part of the eye of the back part of the eye, and her pupils react normally to light. What is the most probable location of the blockage in the artery?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      Bilateral infarction in the territory supplied by the distal posterior cerebral arteries can lead to cortical blindness with preserved pupillary reflex. This condition is often accompanied by Anton’s syndrome, where patients are unaware of their blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - Which symptom of serotonin syndrome poses the highest risk for causing a life-threatening...

    Correct

    • Which symptom of serotonin syndrome poses the highest risk for causing a life-threatening situation?

      Your Answer: Muscle rigidity

      Explanation:

      While myoclonus can be scary for patients, it is typically not a danger to their lives. On the other hand, the muscle stiffness that occurs in serotonin syndrome is extremely severe and can result in the failure of multiple organs (Ahuja 2009).

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - You are asked to speak to a teenager about a medical procedure with...

    Correct

    • You are asked to speak to a teenager about a medical procedure with a view to gaining their informed consent. Which ethical principle underlies the significance of informed consent?

      Your Answer: Respect for autonomy

      Explanation:

      Beauchamp and Childress have identified four fundamental moral principles that form the basis of clinical ethics: respect for autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence, and justice. Respecting a patient’s autonomy involves acknowledging their right to make decisions, even if those decisions may not seem wise. To obtain informed consent, patients must be fully informed about the treatment and its potential outcomes, and they must have the capacity to understand and weigh the information before making a decision. Non-maleficence requires healthcare providers to avoid causing harm, while beneficence involves balancing the potential benefits of a treatment against its risks. Finally, justice requires that healthcare providers act fairly and equitably. When a patient lacks the capacity to make decisions about their care, healthcare providers must act in the patient’s best interests, taking into account their previous views and consulting with relevant parties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A client in their senior years has recently been prescribed an SSRI. What...

    Correct

    • A client in their senior years has recently been prescribed an SSRI. What signs of symptoms would be most indicative of hyponatremia?

      Your Answer: Muscle cramps

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - Which of the following is not a description of a dopamine pathway in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a description of a dopamine pathway in the brain that is relevant to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Median raphe nucleus to VTA

      Explanation:

      The median raphe nucleus is a group of neurons located in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in regulating mood, anxiety, and stress. It is connected to various brain regions, including the ventral tegmental area (VTA), which is a key component of the brain’s reward system.

      The connection between the median raphe nucleus and the VTA is important because it allows for the modulation of reward-related behaviors and emotions. The median raphe nucleus sends serotonergic projections to the VTA, which can influence the release of dopamine, a neurotransmitter that is associated with pleasure and reward.

      Studies have shown that disruptions in the communication between the median raphe nucleus and the VTA can lead to various psychiatric disorders, such as depression and addiction. Therefore, understanding the mechanisms underlying this connection is crucial for developing effective treatments for these conditions.

      In summary, the connection between the median raphe nucleus and the VTA is an important pathway for regulating reward-related behaviors and emotions, and disruptions in this pathway can lead to psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - What is one of the components that is evaluated directly in the SF-36?...

    Correct

    • What is one of the components that is evaluated directly in the SF-36?

      Your Answer: Bodily pain

      Explanation:

      SF-36: A Patient-Reported Survey for Measuring Functioning and Well-Being

      The SF-36, also known as the Short-form 36, is a survey consisting of 36 items that patients can complete to rate their functioning and well-being. The survey is designed to measure eight different scales, with four pertaining to physical health and four to mental health. The physical health scales include physical functioning, role limitations due to physical health problems, bodily pain, and general health. The mental health scales include vitality (energy/fatigue), social functioning, role limitations due to emotional problems, and mental health (psychological distress and psychological well-being). Patients can complete the survey on their own, and it typically takes around eight minutes to finish.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led...

    Correct

    • A student attends a disciplinary hearing. When asked about the behavior that led to their suspension, they argue that it was due to external factors and that they were not entirely responsible for their actions. However, the disciplinary panel disagrees and places more emphasis on the student's personal traits, such as their lack of self-control and tendency towards defiance.

      What is suggested by the perspective of the disciplinary panel?

      Your Answer: Fundamental attribution error

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate explanation for this scenario is the fundamental attribution error. It is important to note that this is distinct from the actor-observer bias, which requires evidence of a difference in how situational factors are considered for others versus ourselves. The actor-observer bias typically involves overemphasizing personality traits for others’ behaviors and situational factors for our own behaviors.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Whenever a certain student receives a good grade from a teacher, they believe...

    Incorrect

    • Whenever a certain student receives a good grade from a teacher, they believe it is because they did well and met high standards. But when the same student receives a bad grade, they assume the teacher must be in a bad mood of doesn't like them. What is this reaction an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Self-serving bias

      Explanation:

      A fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to overemphasize dispositional factors and underestimate situational factors when explaining other people’s behavior. The correct term for making false assumptions about other people’s behavior is actually the fundamental attribution error.

      Attribution Theory: Understanding How We Explain Events

      Attribution theory provides a framework for understanding how individuals explain events in their environment. It examines how people use information to arrive at causal explanations for events and what factors influence their judgments. Fritz Heider first proposed a theory of attribution in 1958.

      However, attribution is prone to biases such as the Fundamental Attribution Error (FAE), which overemphasizes dispositional factors over situational causes when making attributions about others’ behavior. The Actor-Observer Bias, on the other hand, undervalues dispositional explanations and overvalued situational explanations of our own behavior. Correspondence bias is the tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviors that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur. Self-serving bias refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external factors. Hostile Attribution Bias (HAB) is an interpretive bias where individuals interpret ambiguous behavior as hostile, leading to aggression. Finally, the False Consensus Effect is the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto others, assuming that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

      Overall, attribution theory helps us understand how people make sense of events in their environment, but it is important to be aware of the biases that can influence our judgments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - What is a true statement about the planum temporale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the planum temporale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Planum temporale asymmetry is more prominent in males than in females

      Explanation:

      Cerebral Asymmetry in Planum Temporale and its Implications in Language and Auditory Processing

      The planum temporale, a triangular region in the posterior superior temporal gyrus, is a highly lateralized brain structure involved in language and music processing. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is up to ten times larger in the left cerebral hemisphere than the right, with this asymmetry being more prominent in men. This asymmetry can be observed in gestation and is present in up to 70% of right-handed individuals.

      Recent research suggests that the planum temporale also plays an important role in auditory processing, specifically in representing the location of sounds in space. However, reduced planum temporale asymmetry has been observed in individuals with dyslexia, stuttering, and schizophrenia. These findings highlight the importance of cerebral asymmetry in the planum temporale and its implications in language and auditory processing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Some additional risk factors for QTc prolongation include being female and having a slow heart rate (bradycardia).

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Which of the following factors has not been found to offer protection against...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors has not been found to offer protection against suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having siblings

      Explanation:

      Marital status, having both parents alive and in a stable relationship, and having young offspring have all been found to be protective factors against suicide. However, while being a twin has been linked to a lower risk of suicide, having siblings does not appear to have the same effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - An examiner asks a child to subtract 3 from 50 and then subtract...

    Incorrect

    • An examiner asks a child to subtract 3 from 50 and then subtract 3 again from the product of that calculation. What is being assessed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your...

    Incorrect

    • During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your elderly client. They do eventually provide an answer, but only after an extended conversation about the intricacies of the topic, including precise and detailed information about each aspect. What is this occurrence referred to as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Different types of thought disorders are associated with specific personality traits of mental illnesses. Circumstantiality involves taking a long and detailed route to get to the initial point. Loosening of association makes it difficult to follow how one idea connects to the previous one, resulting in derailment. Overinclusive thinking blurs the boundaries between words and concepts, causing unrelated ideas to be associated with each other. Tangentiality involves answers that are related to the question but do not directly answer it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It worsens when a patient is distracted

      Explanation:

      Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management

      Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.

      Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - What factor increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      The use of dopaminergic drugs in individuals with Parkinson’s disease increases their susceptibility to NMS. NMS is more likely to develop when there is a modification in the dosage of dopaminergic and antipsychotic medications. While it is possible, NMS does not typically arise without the administration of dopamine-affecting drugs.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into...

    Incorrect

    • Which study examined the concepts of obedience and authority and provided insight into the behavior of individuals in Nazi Germany?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Milgram's' experiment

      Explanation:

      Controversial studies in psychiatry have been a popular topic in exams. One such study was the Willowbrook School Study, where healthy children with learning difficulties were inoculated with hepatitis to assess the potential of gamma globulin to treat the disorder. Beecher’s study listed over 20 cases of mainstream research where subjects were experimented on without being fully informed of the risks. The Tuskegee syphilis experiment followed impoverished African-American sharecroppers with syphilis, and a significant proportion did not receive available treatment. Stanford’s prison experiment created a simulated prison environment where participants became their assigned roles, with guards becoming harsh and cruel to prisoners. The Tearooms Study involved Humphreys pretending to be a ‘watch queen’ to study men who have sex in public toilets, raising the issue of informed consent. Milgram’s Study investigated authority and obedience, where participants administered fake shocks to a confederate, with 30 participants continuing to administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. The Rosenhan experiment involved pseudopatients presenting themselves at institutions with the same symptoms and being admitted and diagnosed with serious mental disorders, leading to deinstitutionalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - How would you describe a group of DNA variations that are commonly passed...

    Incorrect

    • How would you describe a group of DNA variations that are commonly passed down together?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haplotype

      Explanation:

      Inheritance: Phenotype and Genotype

      Phenotype refers to the observable traits of an individual, such as height, eye colour, and blood type. These traits are a result of the interaction between an individual’s genotype and the environment. The term ‘pheno’ comes from the same root as ‘phenomenon’ and simply means ‘observe’.

      On the other hand, genotype refers to an individual’s collection of genes. These genes determine the traits that an individual will inherit from their parents. A haplotype, on the other hand, is a set of DNA variations of polymorphisms that tend to be inherited together.

      Finally, a karyotype refers to an individual’s collection of chromosomes. These chromosomes contain the genetic information that determines an individual’s traits. By examining an individual’s karyotype, scientists can determine if there are any genetic abnormalities of disorders present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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      Seconds
  • Question 147 - Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is also seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axonal damage

      Explanation:

      Axonal damage is present in the brains of both individuals with early HIV infection and those who do not have HIV but use drugs. Pre-symptomatic HIV infection has been linked to various neurological changes, including lymphocytic leptomeningitis, perivascular lymphocytic cuffing, and infiltration of T and B lymphocytes in brain tissue, as well as subtle gliosis and microglial activation. While axonal damage has been observed in early HIV infection, it may also be caused by factors such as inflammation, trauma, and hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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      Seconds
  • Question 148 - In what category of antipsychotics does haloperidol fall under? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what category of antipsychotics does haloperidol fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Butyrophenone

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in various ways, including by chemical structure. One common classification is into typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) antipsychotics. Haloperidol is a butyrophenone, while other antipsychotics fall into categories such as benzoxazoles (risperidone), dibenzodiazapines (clozapine), dibenzothiazapines (quetiapine), and Thienobenzodiazepine (olanzapine). Phenothiazines are another structural classification, with three groups: aliphatic compounds (chlorpromazine, promazine, methotrimeprazine), piperazines (trifluoperazine, fluphenazine, perphenazine), and piperidines (thioridazine, pipothiazine). Other structural categories include thioxanthenes (flupentixol, zuclopenthixol), diphenylbutylpiperidine (pimozide), substituted benzamides (sulpiride, amisulpride), and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone) such as aripiprazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - Which of these medications used to treat depression has the most extended duration...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these medications used to treat depression has the most extended duration of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants have varying half lives, with fluoxetine having one of the longest at four to six days. Agomelatine, on the other hand, has a much shorter half life of approximately one to two hours. Citalopram has a half life of approximately 36 hours, while duloxetine has a half life of approximately 12 hours. Paroxetine falls in the middle with a half life of approximately 24 hours. For more information on antidepressant discontinuation syndrome, refer to the article by Warner et al. (2006).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
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  • Question 150 - In 1908, Bleuler coined the term schizophrenia. What is the exact definition of...

    Incorrect

    • In 1908, Bleuler coined the term schizophrenia. What is the exact definition of the term schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Split mind

      Explanation:

      In 1908, during the yearly gathering of the German Psychiatric Association in Berlin, Bleuler proposed the term schizophrenia as a more suitable replacement for Kraepelin dementia praecox. Bleuler’s reasoning was that the term schizophrenia better captured the idea of a division of fragmentation in mental functioning. Additionally, he believed that the term could be more effectively used as an adjective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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      Seconds
  • Question 151 - What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Memantine is an NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Due to its extended half-life, Donepezil is administered once daily and functions as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 152 - What is a true statement about varenicline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about varenicline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Champix is a medication that contains varenicline, which acts as a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors.

      Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy

      Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 153 - What is the most effective tool to use when suspecting a brain hemorrhage...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective tool to use when suspecting a brain hemorrhage in an emergency situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
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  • Question 154 - A cohort study aimed to determine the likelihood of postoperative bleeding in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study aimed to determine the likelihood of postoperative bleeding in elderly patients undergoing surgery while taking anticoagulant medication.
      Anticoagulants were categorized into direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and vitamin K antagonists (VKAs).
      What were the results of the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of bleeding with all antidepressants

      Explanation:

      The use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can lead to a decrease in platelet aggregation, potentially increasing the risk of bleeding. However, the discovery that other types of antidepressants may also increase the risk of bleeding was unexpected and requires further investigation.

      A recent cohort study followed women who were currently using antidepressants, had used them within the past month, had used them within the past 1-5 months, of had never used them. The study found that women who had any current of recent exposure to antidepressants were at a slightly increased risk of experiencing postpartum hemorrhage (with a relative risk of 1.4-1.9).

      The study was conducted in the United States and focused on women who received Medicaid, which represents approximately 40% of the US population and includes a higher proportion of economically disadvantaged and minority populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 155 - Mirror neurons provide a biological framework for comprehending what concept? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mirror neurons provide a biological framework for comprehending what concept?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imitation learning

      Explanation:

      Mirror Neurons: A Model for Imitation Learning

      Mirror neurons are a unique type of visuomotor neurons that were first identified in the premotor cortex of monkeys in area F5. These neurons fire not only when the monkey performs a specific action but also when it observes another individual, whether it is a monkey of a human, performing a similar action. This discovery has led to the development of a model for understanding imitation learning.

      Mirror neurons offer a fascinating insight into how humans and animals learn by imitation. They provide a neural mechanism that allows individuals to understand the actions of others and to replicate those actions themselves. This process is essential for social learning, as it enables individuals to learn from others and to adapt to their environment.

      The discovery of mirror neurons has also led to new research in the field of neuroscience, as scientists seek to understand how these neurons work and how they can be used to improve our understanding of human behavior. As we continue to learn more about mirror neurons, we may be able to develop new therapies for individuals with social and communication disorders, such as autism.

      Overall, mirror neurons are a fascinating area of research that has the potential to revolutionize our understanding of human behavior and learning. By studying these neurons, we may be able to unlock new insights into how we learn, communicate, and interact with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 156 - Which brain function is thought to be enhanced by lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which brain function is thought to be enhanced by lithium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      The college’s question is unjust as the precise workings of lithium are not fully comprehended. However, it is believed that lithium elevates serotonin levels and can lead to serotonin syndrome. Additionally, lithium has been associated with the norepinephrine system.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 157 - What brain structures are responsible for regulating breathing and heart rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What brain structures are responsible for regulating breathing and heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medulla

      Explanation:

      The medulla governs the rhythm of the heart and respiration. The amygdala regulates emotional reactions and the ability to perceive the emotions of others. The midbrain is linked to vision, hearing, motor coordination, sleep patterns, alertness, and temperature regulation. The cerebellum manages voluntary movement and balance. The thalamus transmits sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 158 - What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been...

    Incorrect

    • What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been observed over time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flynn effect

      Explanation:

      The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to a phenomenon where individuals with lower levels of skill of knowledge tend to overestimate their abilities, leading them to believe they are more competent than they actually are.

      The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 159 - What did Bleuler identify as a core symptom of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What did Bleuler identify as a core symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loosening of associations

      Explanation:

      Historical Classification of Schizophrenia

      The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.

      In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’

      Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.

      In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 160 - A 60-year-old man presents with difficulty walking, muscle weakness, tremors, difficulty speaking, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with difficulty walking, muscle weakness, tremors, difficulty speaking, difficulty swallowing, and visual hallucinations. After evaluation and testing, he was diagnosed with Fahr's syndrome. Which area is most likely to be affected on his CT scan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      Fahr’s syndrome is a rare condition where calcium deposits accumulate in the brain’s basal ganglia, which control movement. This can lead to neuropsychiatric symptoms such as dementia, psychosis, and behavioral changes. The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, produces hormones that affect various parts of the body. The occipital lobe is responsible for vision, while the cerebellum controls motor coordination, balance, and muscle tone. The hippocampus, located in the medial temporal lobe, is involved in spatial navigation and memory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
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  • Question 161 - What is the pathway for cerebrospinal fluid to return from the subarachnoid space...

    Incorrect

    • What is the pathway for cerebrospinal fluid to return from the subarachnoid space to the vascular system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid villi

      Explanation:

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Formation, Circulation, and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles. It is constantly reabsorbed, so only a small amount is present at any given time. CSF occupies the space between the arachnoid and pia mater and passes through various foramina and aqueducts to reach the subarachnoid space and spinal cord. It is then reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi and enters the dural venous sinuses.

      The normal intracerebral pressure (ICP) is 5 to 15 mmHg, and the rate of formation of CSF is constant. The composition of CSF is similar to that of brain extracellular fluid (ECF) but different from plasma. CSF has a higher pCO2, lower pH, lower protein content, lower glucose concentration, higher chloride and magnesium concentration, and very low cholesterol content. The concentration of calcium and potassium is lower, while the concentration of sodium is unchanged.

      CSF fulfills the role of returning interstitial fluid and protein to the circulation since there are no lymphatic channels in the brain. The blood-brain barrier separates CSF from blood, and only lipid-soluble substances can easily cross this barrier, maintaining the compositional differences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 162 - What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in dizygotic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in dizygotic twins (for pairs of the same sex)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 35%

      Explanation:

      Autism and Genetics

      Research has shown that there is a strong genetic component to autism. In fact, siblings of individuals with autism are significantly more likely to develop the disorder than someone in the general population. Twin studies have also demonstrated the high heritability of autism, but have also highlighted the genetic complexity of the disorder. Monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of 60-90%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate closer to 30%. Despite this, the molecular genetics of autism is still not well understood. Copy number variations (CNVs) have been implicated, along with a number of candidate genes. Further research is needed to fully understand the genetic basis of autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 163 - In which region of the CNS do serotonergic neurons have the highest concentration...

    Incorrect

    • In which region of the CNS do serotonergic neurons have the highest concentration of cell bodies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raphe nuclei

      Explanation:

      The raphe nuclei in the brainstem are the primary location of serotonergic neuronal cell bodies in the central nervous system (CNS), which project to the brain and spinal cord. Noradrenaline is synthesised by the locus coeruleus, located in the pons. Dopamine is produced in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area in the midbrain. While the majority of serotonin is found in enterochromaffin cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, this is not considered part of the CNS. These neurotransmitters play important roles in various physiological and psychological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 164 - What is the drug that primarily acts through the GABA system? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the drug that primarily acts through the GABA system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 165 - Which drug was discovered by Nathan Kline and how is it utilized in...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug was discovered by Nathan Kline and how is it utilized in treating depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iproniazid

      Explanation:

      Initially used to treat tuberculosis, iproniazid was found to have a positive impact on patients’ moods. Kline’s publication provided the first evidence supporting its effectiveness in treating depression.

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 166 - What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in monozygotic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate approximation for the concordance of autism in monozygotic twins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 65%

      Explanation:

      Autism and Genetics

      Research has shown that there is a strong genetic component to autism. In fact, siblings of individuals with autism are significantly more likely to develop the disorder than someone in the general population. Twin studies have also demonstrated the high heritability of autism, but have also highlighted the genetic complexity of the disorder. Monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of 60-90%, while dizygotic twins have a concordance rate closer to 30%. Despite this, the molecular genetics of autism is still not well understood. Copy number variations (CNVs) have been implicated, along with a number of candidate genes. Further research is needed to fully understand the genetic basis of autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 167 - Which drug is accurately paired with its corresponding half-life? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is accurately paired with its corresponding half-life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam - 10-20 hours

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the half-lives of certain benzodiazepines, including diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and zolpidem with a half-life of 2-6 hours.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 168 - A boy describes how he can see a lion's face in the patterns...

    Incorrect

    • A boy describes how he can see a lion's face in the patterns on his bedroom curtains. He acknowledges that it is just his imagination and the image disappears when he loses focus. What is the nature of this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pareidolic illusion

      Explanation:

      The perception of an image is created from the stimulus of dirt, which is known as a pareidolic illusion. These illusions tend to fade as concentration decreases.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 169 - Which statement is false regarding microglia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false regarding microglia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are neuronal cells

      Explanation:

      Microglia serve as the immune cells of the central nervous system and perform functions similar to macrophages. When a microglial cell engulfs infectious material, it is referred to as a Gitter cell.

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 170 - Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: George Brown

      Explanation:

      The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 171 - Which serotonin receptor is associated with regulating circadian rhythms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which serotonin receptor is associated with regulating circadian rhythms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5HT-7

      Explanation:

      Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) receptors are primarily G protein receptors, except for 5-HT3, which is a ligand-gated receptor. It is important to remember that 5-HT3 is most commonly associated with nausea. Additionally, 5-HT7 is linked to circadian rhythms. The stimulation of 5-HT2 receptors is believed to be responsible for the side effects of insomnia, agitation, and sexual dysfunction that are associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 172 - What is a D need according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a D need according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Esteem

      Explanation:

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a theory of motivation introduced by Abraham Maslow. The hierarchy consists of five levels, with the most basic needs at the bottom and the most advanced needs at the top. Maslow proposed that a person would only become concerned with the needs of a particular level when all the needs of the lower levels had been satisfied. The levels include physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs. Maslow also made a distinction between D-needs (deficiency needs) and B-needs (being needs), with B-needs allowing us to reach our full potential but only after D-needs have been satisfied. Later in life, Maslow expanded upon the model and included cognitive, aesthetic, and transcendence needs, resulting in an eight-staged model. The cognitive needs include knowledge and understanding, while aesthetic needs involve appreciation and search for beauty. Transcendence needs are motivated by values that transcend beyond the personal self.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 173 - Who is credited with coining the term 'dementia praecox'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is credited with coining the term 'dementia praecox'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      Dementia Praecox: An Old Term for Schizophrenia

      Dementia praecox, also known as premature dementia, was a term created by Emil Kraepelin to describe a mental disorder that we now know as schizophrenia. This term is no longer used in modern psychiatric diagnosis, but it was once a widely recognized term for the condition. Kraepelin used the term to describe a group of symptoms that included delusions, hallucinations, disordered thinking, and emotional flatness.

      Today, we understand schizophrenia to be a complex and chronic mental illness that affects approximately 1% of the population worldwide. While the term dementia praecox is no longer used, it is important to recognize its historical significance in the development of our understanding of schizophrenia. By studying the evolution of psychiatric terminology, we can gain insight into the changing perceptions of mental illness over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 174 - What factor has been demonstrated to have a notable impact on the QTc...

    Incorrect

    • What factor has been demonstrated to have a notable impact on the QTc interval?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 175 - A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of feeling excessively sleepy during the day and experiencing auditory hallucinations upon waking up. She also reports instances of feeling paralyzed even after awakening. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario are indicative of narcolepsy, specifically hypnopompic hallucinations and sleep paralysis. Narcolepsy is characterized by a set of symptoms including sleep attacks, cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations. Primary hypersomnia is excessive daytime sleepiness without the associated features of other sleep disorders of narcolepsy. REM sleep behavioral disorder (RBD) is characterized by complex behaviors during sleep, typically occurring during the longest periods of REM sleep and accompanied by vivid dream recall. Sleep terror disorder, also known as night terror, occurs during partial arousal from delta sleep and is typically amnestic. In contrast, the patient in the scenario was able to recall the episode of sleep paralysis. Schizophrenia cannot be diagnosed based on the symptoms described, as the criteria for hallucinations and an additional symptom from criterion A must be present for a significant portion of the time, and the symptoms can be attributed to narcolepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 176 - A teenager from West Africa is showing signs of anxiety, including vague physical...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager from West Africa is showing signs of anxiety, including vague physical symptoms, as they prepare for their exams. What would be the most suitable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain fag

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 177 - In 1848, an accident caused a severe brain injury to Phineas Gage in...

    Incorrect

    • In 1848, an accident caused a severe brain injury to Phineas Gage in the USA. Despite the injury, he managed to survive and became a renowned case in the history of psychiatry. Can you identify the primary brain region that was affected by his injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The tamping rod caused a severe injury by piercing through his skull, damaging a significant portion of his left frontal lobe and leading to a drastic alteration in his personality. Sadly, he passed away at the age of 36, 12 years after the incident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 178 - What is the most prevalent type of attachment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent type of attachment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secure

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 179 - A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several weeks whilst she has been on vacation. Upon her return, she finds him confused and unclothed on the couch in his apartment. He is unsteady on his feet and unable to recall how long he has been there, suggesting that he has also just returned from vacation. He points to rats on the floor of his apartment, which his daughter cannot see. He is taken to the hospital, where he is diagnosed with ataxia and ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following conditions would make this man more susceptible to the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is alcohol dependence, which can lead to a depletion of B1 stores and result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While hypertension and type 2 diabetes are risk factors for vascular disease, they typically present with focal neurological signs rather than confusion. The patient’s triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, along with visual hallucinations and confabulation, suggest a Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result from a thiamine deficiency. While anorexia nervosa can also cause B1 deficiency, it is an unlikely condition in an elderly gentleman, and other conditions causing malabsorption can also trigger Wernicke’s. While diabetics can experience delirium from low blood sugars and infections, the specific symptoms described here are not typical of these causes. While people with learning difficulties may be more prone to delirium with concurrent illness, it is not likely to cause the specific triad of symptoms seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 180 - What is the typical number of autosomes found in a human somatic cell?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical number of autosomes found in a human somatic cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 44

      Explanation:

      Aneuploidy: Abnormal Chromosome Numbers

      Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result from errors during meiosis. Typically, human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but aneuploidy can lead to extra of missing chromosomes. Trisomies, which involve the presence of an additional chromosome, are the most common aneuploidies in humans. However, most trisomies are not compatible with life, and only trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) survive to birth. Aneuploidy can result in imbalances in gene expression, which can lead to a range of symptoms and developmental issues.

      Compared to autosomal trisomies, humans are more able to tolerate extra sex chromosomes. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, is the most common sex chromosome aneuploidy. Individuals with Klinefelter’s and XYY often remain undiagnosed, but they may experience reduced sexual development and fertility. Monosomies, which involve the loss of a chromosome, are rare in humans. The only viable human monosomy involves the X chromosome and results in Turner’s syndrome. Turner’s females display a wide range of symptoms, including infertility and impaired sexual development.

      The frequency and severity of aneuploidies vary widely. Down’s syndrome is the most common viable autosomal trisomy, affecting 1 in 800 births. Klinefelter’s syndrome affects 1-2 in 1000 male births, while XYY syndrome affects 1 in 1000 male births and Triple X syndrome affects 1 in 1000 births. Turner syndrome is less common, affecting 1 in 5000 female births. Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are rare, affecting 1 in 6000 and 1 in 10,000 births, respectively. Understanding the genetic basis and consequences of aneuploidy is important for diagnosis, treatment, and genetic counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 181 - What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Theory of mind

      Explanation:

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 182 - What is the typical age when males begin to experience puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical age when males begin to experience puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age 12

      Explanation:

      Boys typically begin puberty around the age of 12, while girls typically begin around the age of 11.

      Puberty

      Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 183 - During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your...

    Incorrect

    • During an evaluation, it appears difficult to obtain a straightforward response from your elderly client. They do eventually provide an answer, but only after an extended conversation about the intricacies of the topic, including precise and detailed information about each aspect. What is this occurrence referred to as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Different types of thought disorders are associated with specific personality traits of mental illnesses. Circumstantiality involves taking a long and detailed route to get to the initial point. Loosening of association makes it difficult to follow how one idea connects to the previous one, resulting in derailment. Overinclusive thinking blurs the boundaries between words and concepts, causing unrelated ideas to be associated with each other. Tangentiality involves answers that are related to the question but do not directly answer it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
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  • Question 184 - A child who has recently been commenced on antipsychotics is found in bed...

    Incorrect

    • A child who has recently been commenced on antipsychotics is found in bed adopting a strange posture, what would you suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dystonia

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced dystonias typically manifest within a few days of initiating antipsychotic medication (of following a significant dosage increase). While they can affect any muscle group, they most frequently occur in the head and neck region.

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 185 - Which one of these is not classified as a biogenic amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these is not classified as a biogenic amine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Biogenic Amines: Understanding the Neurotransmitters

      Biogenic amines are a class of compounds that are derived from amino acids. These compounds play a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline, and dopamine), serotonin, and histamine. A useful mnemonic to remember these neurotransmitters is HANDS (Histamine, Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, Dopamine, Serotonin).

      Catecholamines are involved in the body’s response to stress and are responsible for the fight or flight response. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are catecholamines that are released by the adrenal glands in response to stress. Dopamine is involved in the reward system of the brain and is associated with pleasure and motivation.

      Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in mood regulation, appetite, and sleep. It is also involved in the regulation of pain and the perception of pain.

      Histamine is involved in the immune response and is responsible for the symptoms of allergies. It is also involved in the regulation of sleep and wakefulness.

      Understanding the role of biogenic amines in the nervous system is crucial for the development of treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 186 - When treating a 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia who has a history of epilepsy,...

    Incorrect

    • When treating a 30-year-old patient with schizophrenia who has a history of epilepsy, which antipsychotic medication should be avoided due to its potential to induce seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications have been associated with an increased risk of seizures, with second generation antipsychotics (SGAs) being more likely to cause seizures than first generation antipsychotics (FGAs). Among SGAs, clozapine has the highest risk of inducing seizures, while olanzapine and quetiapine also carry a relatively high risk. On the other hand, risperidone, haloperidol, and aripiprazole are considered to be relatively low risk in terms of inducing seizures. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risks and monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 187 - In which region of the brain is Broca's area located? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which region of the brain is Broca's area located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brodmann areas 44 and 45

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 188 - A 65-year-old patient is referred by their GP to the psychiatric out-patient clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is referred by their GP to the psychiatric out-patient clinic. The GP feels that they have depression, and reports that they smoke 50 per day. When you see them you notice that their left eyelid is drooping, and that the drooping becomes more pronounced on sustained upgaze. The pupils appear normal. On further questioning the patient reports intermittent double vision. Which of the following do you most suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fluctuating double vision and ptosis are characteristic symptoms of extraocular muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. The Simpson test, which involves observing fatigue during sustained lid and eye elevation, is also indicative of myasthenia. Unlike myotonic dystrophy, ptosis in myasthenia gravis worsens with sustained upgaze and is typically unilateral. Additionally, the absence of abnormal pupil size suggests that conditions such as Horner’s syndrome, diabetes-related III nerve palsy, and Pancoast tumor are not present.

      Myasthenia Gravis and Psychiatric Disorders

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that results from the binding of circulating antibodies to acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. This condition is characterized by weakness and fatigue, which typically starts in the extraocular muscles, leading to ptosis and diplopia. However, in addition to these physical symptoms, psychiatric disorders are also common in patients with myasthenia gravis.

      Depressive and anxiety disorders are the most frequently reported psychiatric conditions in individuals with myasthenia gravis. These disorders can significantly impact the quality of life of patients, and may even worsen the physical symptoms of the disease. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for psychiatric comorbidities in patients with myasthenia gravis and to provide appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 189 - Out of the given conditions, which one is an example of aneuploidy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the given conditions, which one is an example of aneuploidy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aneuploidy: Abnormal Chromosome Numbers

      Aneuploidy refers to the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result from errors during meiosis. Typically, human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but aneuploidy can lead to extra of missing chromosomes. Trisomies, which involve the presence of an additional chromosome, are the most common aneuploidies in humans. However, most trisomies are not compatible with life, and only trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) survive to birth. Aneuploidy can result in imbalances in gene expression, which can lead to a range of symptoms and developmental issues.

      Compared to autosomal trisomies, humans are more able to tolerate extra sex chromosomes. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, is the most common sex chromosome aneuploidy. Individuals with Klinefelter’s and XYY often remain undiagnosed, but they may experience reduced sexual development and fertility. Monosomies, which involve the loss of a chromosome, are rare in humans. The only viable human monosomy involves the X chromosome and results in Turner’s syndrome. Turner’s females display a wide range of symptoms, including infertility and impaired sexual development.

      The frequency and severity of aneuploidies vary widely. Down’s syndrome is the most common viable autosomal trisomy, affecting 1 in 800 births. Klinefelter’s syndrome affects 1-2 in 1000 male births, while XYY syndrome affects 1 in 1000 male births and Triple X syndrome affects 1 in 1000 births. Turner syndrome is less common, affecting 1 in 5000 female births. Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are rare, affecting 1 in 6000 and 1 in 10,000 births, respectively. Understanding the genetic basis and consequences of aneuploidy is important for diagnosis, treatment, and genetic counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 190 - A teenager who is texting while driving almost hits a group of pedestrians....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager who is texting while driving almost hits a group of pedestrians. When he stops the car, one of the pedestrians approaches him and yells. The teenager feels ashamed of his behavior and is reminded to be more cautious when driving. What type of operant conditioning is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive punishment

      Explanation:

      The women’s shouting, which is an unpleasant stimulus, serves as a positive punisher that reduces the likelihood of the behavior (speeding) occurring again. This is distinct from reinforcement, which involves the introduction of a positive stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 191 - Among the given medications, which one is the most probable cause of delirium?...

    Incorrect

    • Among the given medications, which one is the most probable cause of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 192 - A child you grounded for misbehaving throws a tantrum at their sibling, but...

    Incorrect

    • A child you grounded for misbehaving throws a tantrum at their sibling, but behaves politely with you despite feeling angry about the punishment.

      Which defense mechanism is demonstrated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Displacement

      Explanation:

      In order for splitting to be present, the patient must demonstrate an inability to recognize others as multifaceted individuals with both positive and negative qualities, and instead resort to idealizing of devaluing them. Additionally, the patient may project their emotions onto an object they deem less significant.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 193 - Which of the following is an uncommon feature of discontinuing SSRI medication? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an uncommon feature of discontinuing SSRI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palpitations

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced during discontinuation can be similar to those of anxiety and depression, leading to the possibility of misinterpreting them as a relapse.

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 194 - A psychology graduate student is interested in studying the psychosocial factors related to...

    Incorrect

    • A psychology graduate student is interested in studying the psychosocial factors related to alcohol misuse. They decide to use the health belief model as a framework for their research. One of the constructs of the health belief model pertains to the severity of the illness and its outcomes. How can this construct be applied to the study of alcohol abuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perceived severity

      Explanation:

      The health belief model is a social cognition model that aims to predict and understand health-related behaviors. It consists of four main constructs: perceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, and perceived barriers. Perceived severity refers to an individual’s understanding of the seriousness of a disease. Perceived susceptibility, also known as perceived vulnerability, refers to an individual’s perception of their risk of contracting the disease if they continue with their current behavior. Perceived benefits refer to an individual’s perception of the advantages of adopting a different course of action, including the extent to which it reduces the risk of the disease of its severity. Perceived barriers refer to an individual’s perception of the disadvantages of adopting the recommended action, as well as any obstacles that may hinder its successful implementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 195 - What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole exhibits partial agonism at D2 receptors and acts as an agonist at 5HT1A receptors while antagonizing 5HT2A receptors.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 196 - Which cognitive function is primarily assessed by the intersecting pentagons task in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which cognitive function is primarily assessed by the intersecting pentagons task in the MMSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constructional praxis

      Explanation:

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 197 - As a healthcare provider, what tests should be conducted before starting agomelatine in...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare provider, what tests should be conducted before starting agomelatine in a patient with depression? Additionally, what follow-up assessments should be performed at regular intervals.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      To avoid potential liver damage, it is recommended to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) before starting agomelatine and periodically at 3, 6, 12, and 24 weeks after beginning treatment. If serum transaminases levels exceed three times the upper normal limit of if symptoms of liver disorder arise, agomelatine treatment should be discontinued.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 198 - What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 199 - What factor is most strongly linked to an increased likelihood of experiencing sexual...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most strongly linked to an increased likelihood of experiencing sexual dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 200 - What is the accurate statement about renowned psychologists and their associated theories? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about renowned psychologists and their associated theories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Margaret Mahler is associated with separation-individuation

      Explanation:

      Historical Figures in Psychology

      Melanie Klein is known for developing play therapy, which involves interpreting the symbolic meaning of a child’s actions during play and relating them to their feelings towards their parents. Margaret Mahler, on the other hand, focused on the development of the ego within the context of object relationships. She emphasized how interpersonal relationships become internalized within the self, rather than the gratification of instincts of biological needs. Mahler coined the term separation-individuation to describe the process by which internal maps of the self and others are formed during the first three years of life.

      Transactional analysis, developed by Dr. Eric Berne in the 1960s, is based on the idea that we have three parts to our personality (child, adult, and parent) and that these converse with one another in transactions. Finally, Jean-Martin Charcot and Pierre Janet are both associated with hysteria, with Charcot being known for his work with hypnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (15/21) 71%
Psychopharmacology (34/42) 81%
Social Psychology (10/11) 91%
Psychological Development (8/10) 80%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (4/4) 100%
Neurosciences (13/21) 62%
Genetics (6/10) 60%
Diagnosis (1/1) 100%
Assessment (2/2) 100%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Epidemiology (2/2) 100%
Neurological Examination (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (3/4) 75%
Basic Psychological Processes (0/1) 0%
Description And Measurement (1/1) 100%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
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