-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man presents following a basketball game where he landed awkwardly and twisted his leg. As a result, he is experiencing difficulty in extending his knee and it is locked in 30 degree flexion. Upon examination, his knee is swollen and painful.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Collateral ligament tear
Correct Answer: Meniscal tear
Explanation:A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that occurs most frequently in young athletes and the elderly. It is caused by a rotational injury to the knee and can result in knee locking. The menisci play an important role in knee stability, weight bearing, shock absorption, and protection of the articular cartilage. To diagnose a meniscal tear, a doctor may perform McMurray’s’s test, which involves rotating the knee and extending it to identify pain or an audible pop. An MRI is the most sensitive imaging method to confirm the diagnosis.
A posterior cruciate ligament tear is often part of a larger injury to other ligaments and is caused by hyperextension or hyperflexion of the knee. Symptoms include knee swelling and mild restriction in flexion, and a positive posterior drawer test can help with diagnosis.
Collateral ligament tears are typically caused by a sudden forced twist or direct blow to the knee and present with pain, swelling, and a feeling of the knee giving way on the medial or lateral side, depending on which ligament is affected.
Patella tendon rupture is most commonly seen in men aged 30-40 and is caused by high tensile forces on a weakened tendon. Symptoms include knee pain or swelling, difficulty straightening the leg, and displacement of the patella on X-rays. Risk factors include chronic tendonitis, corticosteroid use, previous or overuse injury, chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus.
Achilles tendon rupture is characterized by an audible snap and sudden onset of pain at the back of the leg. The Simmonds’ test is used to diagnose the condition, and involves squeezing the calf muscles to see if it results in plantar flexion of the foot. In a partial or complete Achilles tendon rupture, this connection is disrupted and plantarflexion will not occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man fell off a ladder while painting a wall and dislocated his right shoulder. X-rays showed an anterior dislocation but no fractures. The shoulder was easily reduced without complications, and post-reduction radiographs were satisfactory. At his 2-week follow-up with his general practitioner, he reports difficulty in abducting his right arm. There are no neurovascular defects, and he has full sensation and good radial pulses. What imaging modality would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the shoulder
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging for Shoulder Injuries: MRI, Bone Scans, CT Scans, X-rays, and EMG
Shoulder injuries in patients over 40 years old are often associated with acute avulsion injuries and rotator cuff tears. These tears can be degenerative and not related to trauma. The incidence of rotator cuff tears after acute dislocation in patients over 40 years old is high. Ultrasound and MRI are the preferred diagnostic tools for rotator cuff disease.
Bone scans are not useful in this scenario, and CT scans with iv contrast may reveal bony pathology but are not necessary. Repeat shoulder X-rays are also not beneficial if the post-reduction X-rays are normal.
Axillary nerve and brachial plexus injuries can occur after acute shoulder dislocation, but EMG is not necessary if there is no sensory deficit or distal weakness. Overall, MRI is the most effective diagnostic tool for shoulder injuries in this patient population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being involved in a car accident. She is alert and receives initial resuscitation in the ED. She has an open fracture of the left tibia and is seen by the orthopaedic surgery team.
Later during the day, she undergoes an intramedullary nailing procedure for fixing her fractured tibia. Seven days after the surgery, the patient complains of gradually worsening severe pain in the left leg.
Upon examination, she is found to be febrile and the wound area is not markedly erythematosus and there is no discharge from the wound site. There is no left calf tenderness and no swelling. Blood tests reveal a raised white cell count and inflammatory markers, and a blood culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. An X-ray and leg Doppler ultrasound imaging reveal no subcutaneous gas. An urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) report prompts the surgeon to take this patient urgently back to theatre.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Surgical wound infection
Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Postoperative Patient with Severe Pain and Fever
Possible diagnoses for a postoperative patient with sudden onset of severe pain and fever include infection in the overlying tissue or in the bone itself. Cellulitis and necrotising fasciitis are less likely, while osteomyelitis is the most probable diagnosis, as indicated by the urgent request for an MRI and the need for surgical intervention. Osteomyelitis requires prolonged intravenous antibiotics and surgical debridement, and an MRI would typically show bone marrow oedema. A deep vein thrombosis is less likely due to the absence of clinical signs and ultrasound imaging findings. Cellulitis would present with superficial redness and less severe pain, while necrotising fasciitis would show subcutaneous gas on imaging. A surgical wound infection is possible but would typically involve pus discharge and not prompt urgent surgical intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 78-year-old man experiences a sensation of something ‘giving way’ in his right arm while lifting a heavy bag of garden waste. The arm is visibly bruised, and upon flexing the elbow, a lump appears in the middle of the anterior aspect of the arm. The diagnosis is a rupture of the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii. Where does this tendon typically attach to a bony point?
Your Answer: Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
Explanation:The supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula is where the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii attaches within the shoulder joint capsule. The lesser tuberosity of the humerus is where the subscapularis muscle inserts, while the crest of the lesser tuberosity is where the latissimus dorsi and teres major muscles attach. The coracoid process of the scapula is where the short head of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis minor muscles attach. The greater tuberosity of the humerus is where the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles insert. Lastly, the long head of the triceps brachii attaches to the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula. These attachments and insertions are important for understanding the anatomy and function of the shoulder and arm muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman with an unremarkable medical history has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the last 3 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination, bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints is noted. A radiograph of the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. No biochemical abnormalities were detected on blood tests.
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be affecting this patient?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritis: Understanding the Symptoms and Characteristics of Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Gout, and Osteomyelitis
Arthritis is a broad term that encompasses various conditions affecting the joints. It is important to differentiate between different types of arthritis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some characteristics and symptoms of common types of arthritis:
Osteoarthritis: This is a degenerative condition that affects the joints, particularly with ageing. It is characterized by erosion and loss of articular cartilage. Patients may experience deep, achy pain that worsens with use, morning stiffness, crepitus, and limitation of range of movement. Osteoarthritis is an intrinsic disease of articular cartilage, not an inflammatory disease.
Pseudogout: Also known as calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition disease, this condition is more common in elderly people. It typically affects the knee joint and can cause acute attacks with marked pain, accompanied by meniscal calcification and joint space narrowing.
Rheumatoid arthritis: This condition typically involves small joints of the hands and feet most severely, and there is a destructive pannus that leads to marked joint deformity. It presents more with an inflammatory arthritis picture, with significant morning stiffness and pain that eases with activity.
Gout: A gouty arthritis is more likely to be accompanied by swelling and deformity, with joint destruction. The pain is not related to usage. In >90% of presentations, only one joint is affected, and in the majority of cases, that joint is the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe.
Osteomyelitis: This represents an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Additionally, patients are usually systemically unwell with signs of infection present.
Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of different types of arthritis can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in a 24-year-old professional off-road motorcyclist who suffered a complete fracture during a race?
Your Answer: Extensor digitorum longus
Correct Answer: Flexor hallucis longus
Explanation:Muscles and Bony Features of the Foot
The foot is a complex structure that contains numerous muscles and bony features. Here are some important details about the muscles and their attachments:
Flexor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates on the fibula and inserts onto the plantar surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It passes underneath the sustentaculum tali, which has a groove for the tendon of this muscle.
Flexor Hallucis Brevis: This intrinsic muscle of the foot originates from the plantar surface of the cuboid and lateral cuneiform bones and tendon of the tibialis posterior muscle. It inserts on the lateral and medial sides of the base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Extensor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the proximal one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and related surface of the lateral tibial condyle. It inserts via dorsal digital expansions into the bases of the distal and middle phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Extensor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates from the middle one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and adjacent surface of the interosseous membrane. It inserts on the dorsal surface of the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Flexor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the medial side of the posterior surface of the tibia and inserts onto the plantar surfaces of the bases of the distal phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.
Understanding the muscles and bony features of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating foot injuries and conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old professional tennis player experiences sudden shoulder pain while serving during a match. The tournament doctor evaluates him on the sideline and the player reports difficulty with raising his arm. Upon examination, the doctor finds that the patient is unable to initiate abduction of the arm, but is able to continue the motion when the doctor assists with a few degrees of abduction.
What is the probable reason for the player's symptoms?Your Answer: Infraspinatus damage
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tear
Explanation:The patient is experiencing difficulty initiating abduction of their affected arm, but is able to actively complete the range of motion if the initial stages of abduction are performed for them. This is consistent with a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, which is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The supraspinatus is responsible for the initial 15 degrees of abduction, after which the deltoid muscle takes over. In contrast, damage to the infraspinatus or teres minor muscles would typically affect lateral rotation or adduction, respectively. A tear in the subscapularis muscle, which is responsible for adduction and medial rotation, is a possible diagnosis given the patient’s symptoms. Dysfunction in the deltoid muscle or axillary nerve would prevent full abduction of the arm, but this is not the case for this patient. Deltoid tears are rare and usually associated with traumatic shoulder dislocation or large rotator cuff injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old retired tennis professional presents to the doctor's office with complaints of right shoulder pain over the past few months. He reports that the pain increases with overhead movement of the shoulder. Upon examination, the patient displays weakness and pain during abduction and forward flexion of the shoulder. Which rotator cuff muscle is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Deltoid
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles: Functions and Injuries
The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and allowing for movement. Among these muscles are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, deltoid, and teres minor. Each muscle has a specific function and can be affected by different types of injuries.
The supraspinatus muscle is commonly affected in rotator cuff syndrome, which is caused by repetitive use of the shoulder joint. This muscle is responsible for abduction of the shoulder and is vulnerable to chronic repetitive trauma due to its location between the humeral head and the acromioclavicular joint.
The infraspinatus muscle, which is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder, is the second most common rotator cuff muscle to be involved in a tear after the supraspinatus.
The subscapularis muscle, which is mainly involved in internal rotation of the shoulder, is also a rotator cuff muscle but is seldom involved in rotator cuff tears.
The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is not a rotator cuff muscle but is responsible for abduction of the shoulder in the frontal plane. Deltoid tears are unusual and are related to traumatic shoulder dislocation or can be associated with large rotator cuff injuries.
Finally, the teres minor muscle, which is mainly involved in external rotation of the shoulder, can tear alongside other rotator cuff muscles in injury.
Understanding the functions and potential injuries of each rotator cuff muscle can help in the diagnosis and treatment of shoulder pain and dysfunction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department following a football game. He reports being tackled with a boot to the lateral side of his upper leg. X-ray examination shows a fracture at the neck of the fibula.
What is the structure that is most likely impacted by this injury?Your Answer: Popliteal artery
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa: Nerves and Vessels
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped area located at the back of the knee joint. It contains several important nerves and vessels that are vulnerable to injury. Here is a brief overview of the anatomy of the popliteal fossa:
Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve runs around the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. Damage to this nerve can result in foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex and evert the foot.
Popliteal Artery: The popliteal artery is the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa and can be injured in penetrating injuries to the back of the knee.
Popliteal Vein: This vein travels with the popliteal artery and lies superficial and lateral to it.
Small Saphenous Vein: This vein begins at the lateral aspect of the dorsal venous arch of the foot, winds posteriorly around the lateral malleolus, and travels up the lateral aspect of the leg. It enters the popliteal fossa between the two heads of the gastrocnemius to join the popliteal vein.
Tibial Nerve: This nerve lies deep in the popliteal fossa and can be injured by deep lacerations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of pain and swelling in the right kneecap. The patient reports difficulty bending the knee, and the symptoms are impacting his ability to work.
Based on the history and examination, the clinician suspects a diagnosis of 'housemaid's knee'.
'Housemaid's knee' is characterized by inflammation of the:Your Answer: Suprapatellar bursa
Correct Answer: Prepatellar bursa
Explanation:Bursae of the Knee: Locations and Causes of Inflammation
The knee joint is surrounded by several small fluid-filled sacs called bursae, which act as cushions between bones, tendons, and muscles. However, these bursae can become inflamed due to repetitive stress or injury, causing pain and discomfort. Here are some of the bursae located around the knee joint and their associated conditions:
1. Prepatellar bursa: This bursa is located between the skin and the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repeated friction, such as in professions that require prolonged kneeling.
2. Popliteus bursa: This bursa lies between the popliteus tendon and the lateral condyle of the tibia and can become inflamed due to overuse or injury.
3. Suprapatellar bursa: This bursa can be felt during a knee exam and may become inflamed due to trauma or infection.
4. Infrapatellar bursa: This bursa is located below the kneecap and can become inflamed due to repetitive kneeling, hence the name clergyman’s knee.
5. Semimembranous bursa: This bursa is located at the back of the knee and can become inflamed due to injury or underlying conditions such as arthritis.
In conclusion, understanding the locations and causes of knee bursitis can help individuals take preventive measures and seek appropriate treatment when necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)