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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed spironolactone. Upon reviewing her blood test results, you observe a notable electrolyte imbalance.
      Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a medication used to treat conditions such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, hepatic cirrhosis with ascites and edema, and Conn’s syndrome. It functions as a competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist, primarily working in the distal convoluted tubule. In this area, it hinders the reabsorption of sodium ions and enhances the reabsorption of potassium ions. Spironolactone is commonly known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

      The main side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, particularly when renal impairment is present. In severe cases, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening. Additionally, there is a notable occurrence of gastrointestinal disturbances, with nausea and vomiting being the most common. Women may experience menstrual disturbances, while men may develop gynecomastia, both of which are attributed to the antiandrogenic effects of spironolactone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old with a history of bipolar disorder is brought into the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old with a history of bipolar disorder is brought into the emergency department after intentionally taking an excessive amount of lithium. What acid-base disturbances would you anticipate in a patient who has overdosed on lithium?

      Your Answer: Normal ion gap acidosis

      Correct Answer: Low anion gap acidosis

      Explanation:

      Excessive intake of lithium is linked to the development of low anion gap acidosis. In cases of lithium overdose, a common outcome is the occurrence of low anion gap acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for co-lateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 14 year old presents to the emergency department with a 4 day...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of left sided otalgia. On examination the patient's temperature is 38.5°C and there is a swollen and tender area over the mastoid process.

      What is the most suitable initial approach for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The first step in managing acute mastoiditis is to administer broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics. The British Society of Otology recommends using intravenous ceftriaxone once daily in combination with intravenous metronidazole three times daily as the initial treatment. However, the specific antibiotic regimen may vary depending on the local antimicrobial policy.

      Further Reading:

      Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid air cells, which are located in the mastoid process of the skull. It is usually caused by the spread of infection from the middle ear. The most common organism responsible for mastoiditis is Streptococcus pneumoniae, but other bacteria and fungi can also be involved. The infection can spread to surrounding structures, such as the meninges, causing serious complications like meningitis or cerebral abscess.

      Mastoiditis can be classified as acute or chronic. Acute mastoiditis is a rare complication of acute otitis media, which is inflammation of the middle ear. It is characterized by severe ear pain, fever, swelling and redness behind the ear, and conductive deafness. Chronic mastoiditis is usually associated with chronic suppurative otitis media or cholesteatoma and presents with recurrent episodes of ear pain, headache, and fever.

      Mastoiditis is more common in children, particularly those between 6 and 13 months of age. Other risk factors include immunocompromised patients, those with intellectual impairment or communication difficulties, and individuals with cholesteatoma.

      Diagnosis of mastoiditis involves a physical examination, blood tests, ear swab for culture and sensitivities, and imaging studies like contrast-enhanced CT or MRI. Treatment typically involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist, broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, pain relief, and myringotomy (a procedure to drain fluid from the middle ear).

      Complications of mastoiditis are rare but can be serious. They include intracranial abscess, meningitis, subperiosteal abscess, neck abscess, venous sinus thrombosis, cranial nerve palsies, hearing loss, labyrinthitis, extension to the zygoma, and carotid artery arteritis. However, most patients with mastoiditis have a good prognosis and do not experience long-term ear problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are examining the facial X-rays of a young patient who was involved...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the facial X-rays of a young patient who was involved in a physical altercation and sustained multiple facial injuries. What tools or techniques are utilized to aid in the interpretation of facial radiographs and facilitate the identification of facial fractures?

      Your Answer: Le Fort lines

      Correct Answer: Dolan lines

      Explanation:

      The interpretation of facial X-rays is often assisted by the use of McGrigor-Campbell lines and Dolan lines. These lines, along with accompanying notes and images, provide additional information for a more accurate analysis.

      Further Reading:

      Facial X-rays are commonly used to assess and diagnose facial fractures. Two standard views are typically performed: the Occipitomental view and the Occipitomental 30º view. The Occipitomental view provides a comprehensive look at the upper and middle thirds of the face, including the orbital margins, frontal sinuses, zygomatic arches, and maxillary antra. On the other hand, the Occipitomental 30º view uses a 30-degree caudal angulation to better visualize the zygomatic arches and walls of the maxillary antra, although it may compromise the clear view of the orbital margins.

      To assist in the interpretation of facial X-rays, imaginary lines are often drawn across the images to highlight any asymmetry or disruption. Two commonly used sets of lines are the McGrigor-Campbell lines and Dolan’s lines. McGrigor-Campbell lines are used to aid in the interpretation of both the Occipitomental and Occipitomental 30º views. These lines include an upper line that passes through the zygomatico-frontal sutures and the upper edge of the orbits, a middle line that follows the zygomatic arch and crosses the zygomatic bone, and a lower line that passes through the condyle and coronoid process of the mandible and the walls of the maxillary antra.

      Dolan’s lines, described by Dolan and Jacoby, are often used in conjunction with McGrigor-Campbell lines. These lines include the orbital line, which traces the inner margins of the orbital walls and the nasal arch, the zygomatic line, which traces the superior margin of the zygomatic arch and body, and the maxillary line, which traces the inferior margin of the zygomatic arch, body, and buttress, as well as the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus. Together, the zygomatic and maxillary lines resemble the profile of an elephant’s head and are referred to as Dolan’s elephant. These lines help provide additional information and aid in the interpretation of facial X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of feeling generally unwell and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. She has a history of breast cancer for which she is currently undergoing radiation therapy. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 100 bpm, BP 120/80, SaO2 95% on room air, temperature 38.5°C.
      The results of her complete blood count are as follows:
      Hemoglobin (Hb) 9.2 g/dl
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) 80 fl
      Platelets 60 x 109/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 1.2 x 109/l
      Lymphocytes 0.4 x 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.6 x 109/l
      Monocytes 0.1 x 109/l
      Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate for the initial empiric treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone and gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Tazocin alone

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of pancytopenia along with a fever, indicating a likely case of neutropenic sepsis. Their blood test results reveal microcytic anemia, leucopenia (with significant neutropenia), and thrombocytopenia. Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can be life-threatening, characterized by a low neutrophil count. There are several potential causes of neutropenia, including cytotoxic chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, stem cell transplantation, infections, bone marrow disorders like aplastic anemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, and nutritional deficiencies.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis in patients undergoing anticancer treatment, their neutrophil count should be 0.5 x 109 per liter or lower, and they should have either a temperature above 38°C or other signs and symptoms indicative of clinically significant sepsis. According to the current NICE guidelines, initial empiric antibiotic therapy for suspected neutropenic sepsis should involve monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin 4.5 g IV). It is not recommended to use an aminoglycoside, either alone or in combination therapy, unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological reasons to do so.

      Reference:
      NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      92.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old construction worker is brought into the emergency department with burns to the right forearm. The patient explains that he was smoking a cigarette while driving back from work when the cigarette accidentally fell onto his arm, igniting his sleeve which might have been soaked in gasoline from work. You observe circumferential burns encompassing the entire right forearm. What would be your primary concern regarding potential complications?

      Your Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome can occur when there are circumferential burns on the arms or legs. This typically happens with full thickness burns, where the burnt skin becomes stiff and compresses the compartment, making it difficult for blood to flow out. To treat this condition, escharotomy and possibly fasciotomy may be necessary.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      110
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You evaluate the capacity of a minor declining treatment in the Emergency Department....

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the capacity of a minor declining treatment in the Emergency Department. In accordance with the 2005 Mental Capacity Act, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The views and opinions of close friends and family should be sought to help influence the assessment

      Correct Answer: A person is not to be treated as unable to make a decision unless all practicable steps have been taken to help him or her

      Explanation:

      The Act establishes five principles that aim to govern decisions made under the legislation:

      1. Capacity is presumed unless proven otherwise: It is assumed that a person has the ability to make decisions unless it is proven that they lack capacity.

      2. Assistance must be provided before determining incapacity: A person should not be considered unable to make a decision until all reasonable efforts have been made to support them in doing so.

      3. Unwise decisions do not indicate incapacity: Making a decision that others may consider unwise does not automatically mean that a person lacks capacity.

      4. Best interests must guide decision-making: All decisions made on behalf of an incapacitated person must be in their best interests.

      5. Least restrictive approach should be taken: Decisions should be made in a way that minimizes any restrictions on the individual’s fundamental rights and freedoms.

      If a decision significantly conflicts with these principles, it is unlikely to be lawful.

      A person is deemed to lack capacity if they are unable to:

      – Understand the relevant information related to the decision.
      – Retain the information in their memory.
      – Use or evaluate the information to make a decision.
      – Communicate their decision effectively, using any means necessary.

      When assessing capacity, it is important to consider the input of those close to the individual, if appropriate. Close friends and family may provide valuable insights, although their opinions should not unduly influence the assessment.

      In urgent situations where a potentially life-saving decision needs to be made, an IMCA (Independent Mental Capacity Advocate) does not need to be involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are a member of the trauma team and have been assigned the...

    Correct

    • You are a member of the trauma team and have been assigned the task of inserting an arterial line into the right radial artery. When inserting the radial artery line, what is the angle at which the catheter needle is initially advanced in relation to the skin?

      Your Answer: 30-45 degrees

      Explanation:

      The arterial line needle is inserted into the skin at an angle between 30 and 45 degrees. For a more detailed demonstration, please refer to the video provided in the media links section.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial line insertion is a procedure used to monitor arterial blood pressure continuously and obtain frequent blood gas samples. It is typically done when non-invasive blood pressure monitoring is not possible or when there is an anticipation of hemodynamic instability. The most common site for arterial line insertion is the radial artery, although other sites such as the ulnar, brachial, axillary, posterior tibial, femoral, and dorsalis pedis arteries can also be used.

      The radial artery is preferred for arterial line insertion due to its superficial location, ease of identification and access, and lower complication rate compared to other sites. Before inserting the arterial line, it is important to perform Allen’s test to check for collateral circulation to the hand.

      The procedure begins by identifying the artery by palpating the pulse at the wrist and confirming its position with doppler ultrasound if necessary. The wrist is then positioned dorsiflexed, and the skin is prepared and aseptic technique is maintained throughout the procedure. Local anesthesia is infiltrated at the insertion site, and the catheter needle is inserted at an angle of 30-45 degrees to the skin. Once flashback of pulsatile blood is seen, the catheter angle is flattened and advanced a few millimeters into the artery. Alternatively, a guide wire can be used with an over the wire technique.

      After the catheter is advanced, the needle is withdrawn, and the catheter is connected to the transducer system and secured in place with sutures. It is important to be aware of absolute and relative contraindications to arterial line placement, as well as potential complications such as infection, thrombosis, hemorrhage, emboli, pseudo-aneurysm formation, AV fistula formation, arterial dissection, and nerve injury/compression.

      Overall, arterial line insertion is a valuable procedure for continuous arterial blood pressure monitoring and frequent blood gas sampling, and the radial artery is the most commonly used site due to its accessibility and lower complication rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man with a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation comes...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation comes in with severe vomiting and diarrhea. Blood tests are done, and an electrolyte imbalance is observed.
      Which electrolyte imbalance poses the greatest risk for a patient who is on digoxin?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter as well as congestive cardiac failure. It belongs to a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Digoxin works by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase pump in the cardiac myocytes, which are the cells of the heart. This inhibition leads to an increase in the concentration of sodium inside the cells and indirectly increases the availability of calcium through the Na/Ca exchange mechanism. The rise in intracellular calcium levels results in a positive inotropic effect, meaning it strengthens the force of the heart’s contractions, and a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it slows down the heart rate.

      However, it’s important to note that digoxin can cause toxicity, which is characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood, known as hyperkalemia. Normally, the Na/K ATPase pump helps maintain the balance of sodium and potassium by allowing sodium to leave the cells and potassium to enter. When digoxin blocks this pump, it disrupts this balance and leads to higher levels of potassium in the bloodstream.

      Interestingly, the risk of developing digoxin toxicity is higher in individuals with low levels of potassium, known as hypokalemia. This is because digoxin binds to the ATPase pump at the same site as potassium. When potassium levels are low, digoxin can more easily bind to the ATPase pump and exert its inhibitory effects.

      In summary, digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat certain heart conditions. It works by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase pump, leading to increased intracellular calcium levels and resulting in a positive inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect. However, digoxin can also cause toxicity, leading to high levels of potassium in the blood. The risk of toxicity is higher in individuals with low potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl with a background of mental health issues is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with a background of mental health issues is brought to the Emergency Department by law enforcement. She is currently being restrained and needs immediate sedation.
      According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be the first-line choice for rapid sedation in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Rapid tranquillisation involves administering medication through injection (typically into the muscle) when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE regarding the short-term management of violent and aggressive patients recommend the use of intramuscular lorazepam for rapid tranquillisation in children and young individuals. The dosage should be adjusted based on their age and weight. If there is only a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, the dosage should be assessed according to the child or young person’s age and weight, and an additional dose may be considered.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      74.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology & Poisoning (2/3) 67%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (0/1) 0%
Oncological Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Resus (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed