00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, productive cough, and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath. He has no medical history and takes no regular medications.

      Upon examination, coarse crackles and bronchial breathing are heard at the right lung base.

      Chest radiography reveals consolidation in the lower right zone.

      Arterial blood gas results are as follows:

      pH 7.36 (7.35-7.45)
      pO2 7.2 kPa (11-13)
      pCO2 4.1 kPa (4-6)
      SaO2 87% (94-98)

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected initial physiological response?

      Your Answer: Vasoconstriction of the pulmonary arteries

      Explanation:

      When hypoxia is present, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction, which is the appropriate response. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of pneumonia and type 1 respiratory failure, as evidenced by clinical and radiographic findings. Vasoconstriction of the small pulmonary arteries helps to redirect blood flow from poorly ventilated regions of the lung to those with better ventilation, resulting in improved gas exchange efficiency between the alveoli and blood.

      The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries

      When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old boy is recuperating the day after a tonsillectomy. His parents report...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is recuperating the day after a tonsillectomy. His parents report that he hasn't had anything to eat for 6 hours prior to the surgery and he is feeling famished. However, he is declining any attempts to consume food or water. There are no prescribed medications or known drug allergies listed on his medical records.

      What would be the most appropriate first step to take?

      Your Answer: Prescribe analgesia and encourage oral intake

      Explanation:

      Effective pain management is crucial after a tonsillectomy to promote the consumption of food and fluids.

      Prescribing analgesics and encouraging oral intake is the best course of action. This will alleviate pain and enable the patient to eat and drink, which is essential for a speedy recovery.

      Starting maintenance fluids or partial nutritional feeds, obtaining IV access, or waiting for two hours before reviewing the patient are not the most appropriate options. Analgesia should be the primary consideration to facilitate oral fluid therapy and promote healing.

      Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications

      Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.

      Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

    The patient's SaO2 levels...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

      The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.

      The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.

      What should be the next step in the patient's management?

      Your Answer: IV Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Acute Treatment of Asthma

      When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with steroid, bronchodilators and 15 l/min of oxygen.

      His pulse rate is 125/min, oxygen saturation 89%, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 140/88 mmHg and he has a peak flow rate of 150 l/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bilateral wheezes.

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) result taken on 15 l/min oxygen shows:

      pH 7.42 (7.36-7.44)
      PaO2 8.4 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PaCO2 5.3 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      Standard HCO3 19 mmol/L (20-28)
      Base excess −4 (+/-2)
      Oxygen saturation 89%

      What is the most appropriate action for this man?

      Your Answer: Call ITU to consider intubation

      Explanation:

      Urgent Need for Ventilation in Life-Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life-threatening asthma with a dangerously low oxygen saturation level of less than 92%. Despite having a normal PaCO2 level, the degree of hypoxia is inappropriate and requires immediate consideration for ventilation. The arterial blood gas (ABG) result is consistent with the clinical presentation, making a venous blood sample unnecessary. Additionally, the ABG and bedside oxygen saturation readings are identical, indicating an arterialised sample.

      It is crucial to note that in cases of acute asthma, reducing the amount of oxygen below the maximum available is not recommended. Hypoxia can be fatal and must be addressed promptly. Therefore, urgent intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for the past month. She was previously diagnosed with tinnitus by one of your colleagues at the practice 11 months ago. The patient reports that she can hear better when outside but struggles in quiet environments. Upon otoscopy, no abnormalities are found. Otosclerosis is one of the differential diagnoses for this patient, which primarily affects the ossicle that connects to the cochlea. What is the name of the ossicle that attaches to the cochlea at the oval window?

      Your Answer: Incus

      Correct Answer: Stapes

      Explanation:

      The stapes bone is the correct answer.

      The ossicles are three bones located in the middle ear. They are arranged from lateral to medial and include the malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is the most lateral bone and its handle and lateral process attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible on otoscopy. The head of the malleus articulates with the incus. The stapes bone is the most medial of the ossicles and is also known as the stirrup.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man has been referred to the respiratory clinic due to a...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man has been referred to the respiratory clinic due to a persistent dry cough and hoarse voice for the last 5 months. He reports feeling like he has lost some weight as his clothes feel loose. Although he has no significant past medical history, he has a 30-pack-year smoking history. During the examination, left-sided miosis and ptosis are noted. What is the probable location of the lung lesion?

      Your Answer: Lung apex

      Explanation:

      The patient’s persistent cough, significant smoking history, and weight loss are red flag symptoms of lung cancer. Additionally, the hoarseness of voice suggests that the recurrent laryngeal nerve is being suppressed, likely due to a Pancoast tumor located in the apex of the lung. The presence of Horner’s syndrome further supports this diagnosis. Mesothelioma, which is more common in patients with a history of asbestos exposure, typically presents with shortness of breath, chest wall pain, and finger clubbing. A hamartoma, a benign tumor made up of tissue such as cartilage, connective tissue, and fat, is unlikely given the patient’s red flags for malignant disease. Small cell carcinomas, typically found in the center of the lungs, may present with a perihilar mass and paraneoplastic syndromes due to ectopic hormone secretion. Lung cancers within the bronchi can obstruct airways and cause respiratory symptoms such as cough and shortness of breath, but not hoarseness.

      Lung Cancer Symptoms and Complications

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. Some of the most common symptoms include a persistent cough, haemoptysis (coughing up blood), dyspnoea (shortness of breath), chest pain, weight loss and anorexia, and hoarseness. In some cases, patients may also experience supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, as well as clubbing and a fixed, monophonic wheeze.

      In addition to these symptoms, lung cancer can also cause a range of paraneoplastic features. These may include the secretion of ADH, ACTH, or parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp), which can cause hypercalcaemia, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, alkalosis, muscle weakness, and other complications. Other paraneoplastic features may include Lambert-Eaton syndrome, hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA), hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH, and gynaecomastia.

      Complications of lung cancer may include hoarseness, stridor, and superior vena cava syndrome. Patients may also experience a thrombocytosis, which can be detected through blood tests. Overall, it is important to be aware of the symptoms and complications of lung cancer in order to seek prompt medical attention and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother. He complained of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother. He complained of ear pain during the night, but there is no discharge, hearing loss, or other symptoms. Upon examination, he has no fever. The pinna of his ear appears red and swollen, and pressing on the tragus causes pain. Otoscopy reveals a healthy tympanic membrane, but the external auditory canal is inflamed. The external auditory canal consists of a cartilaginous outer part and a bony inner part. Which bone does the bony external canal pass through?

      Your Answer: Zygomatic bone

      Correct Answer: Temporal bone

      Explanation:

      The temporal bone is the correct answer. It contains the bony external auditory canal and middle ear, which are composed of a cartilaginous outer third and a bony inner two-thirds. The temporal bone articulates with the parietal, occipital, sphenoid, zygomatic, and mandible bones.

      The sphenoid bone is a complex bone that articulates with 12 other bones. It is divided into four parts: the body, greater wings, lesser wings, and pterygoid plates.

      The zygomatic bone is located on the anterior and lateral aspects of the face and articulates with the frontal, sphenoid, temporal, and maxilla bones.

      The parietal bone forms the sides and roof of the cranium and articulates with the parietal on the opposite side, as well as the frontal, temporal, occipital, and sphenoid bones.

      The occipital bone is situated at the rear of the cranium and articulates with the temporal, sphenoid, parietals, and the first cervical vertebrae.

      The patient’s symptoms of ear pain, erythematous pinna and external auditory canal, and tender tragus on palpation are consistent with otitis externa, which has numerous possible causes. The patient is not febrile and has no loss of hearing or dizziness.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest and requires a thoracotomy....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest and requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the right lung is mobilized and the pleural reflection at the lung hilum is opened. Which of the following structures is not located in this area?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The pulmonary ligament extends from the pleural reflections surrounding the hilum of the lung and covers the pulmonary vessels and bronchus. However, it does not contain the azygos vein.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12-year-old girl is referred to a respiratory specialist due to persistent episodes...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is referred to a respiratory specialist due to persistent episodes of shortness of breath. She also suffers from severe hay fever and eczema. After undergoing a peak expiratory flow test, signs of outflow obstruction of her lungs are detected. The doctor prescribes beclomethasone and salbutamol for her and advises her mother to keep her away from dust, as asthma is often linked to hypersensitivity to dust. Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with asthma?

      Your Answer: Type 1 hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Asthma is linked to type 1 hypersensitivity, which is caused by the binding of IgE to Mast cells, resulting in an inflammatory reaction. Other types of hypersensitivity include type 2, which involves the binding of IgG or IgM to cell surface antigens, type 3, which is immune complex-mediated, and type 4, which is T-cell mediated.

      Asthma is a common respiratory disorder that affects both children and adults. It is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways, resulting in reversible bronchospasm and airway obstruction. While asthma can develop at any age, it typically presents in childhood and may improve or resolve with age. However, it can also persist into adulthood and cause significant morbidity, with around 1,000 deaths per year in the UK.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing asthma, including a personal or family history of atopy, antenatal factors such as maternal smoking or viral infections, low birth weight, not being breastfed, exposure to allergens and air pollution, and the hygiene hypothesis. Patients with asthma may also suffer from other atopic conditions such as eczema and hay fever, and some may be sensitive to aspirin. Occupational asthma is also a concern for those exposed to allergens in the workplace.

      Symptoms of asthma include coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness, with coughing often worse at night. Signs may include expiratory wheezing on auscultation and reduced peak expiratory flow rate. Diagnosis is typically made through spirometry, which measures the volume and speed of air during exhalation and inhalation.

      Management of asthma typically involves the use of inhalers to deliver drug therapy directly to the airways. Short-acting beta-agonists such as salbutamol are the first-line treatment for relieving symptoms, while inhaled corticosteroids like beclometasone dipropionate and fluticasone propionate are used for daily maintenance therapy. Long-acting beta-agonists like salmeterol and leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast may also be used in combination with other medications. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a newer approach that combines ICS and a fast-acting LABA in a single inhaler for both daily maintenance and symptom relief. Recent guidelines recommend offering a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA for patients on SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled, and considering MART for those with poorly controlled asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of vertigo that has...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of vertigo that has been going on for three days. He also reports experiencing left-sided ear pain and a change in his sense of taste, as well as constant ringing in his left ear. He took paracetamol on his own, but the vertigo persisted, so he decided to seek medical attention.

      During the examination, the doctor observes that the man has a drooping left face with involvement of the forehead. Upon otoscopic examination, vesicles are seen in the external auditory canal of the left ear. A neurological examination is performed, which is normal except for the left facial paralysis.

      What is the appropriate treatment for this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Oral acyclovir and corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is treated with a combination of oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. This condition is caused by the varicella zoster virus, as evidenced by the presence of vesicles on the left ear and involvement of the seventh and eighth cranial nerves. Symptoms include facial paralysis and hearing impairments. Treatment typically involves a seven to ten day course of oral acyclovir and a five day course of corticosteroids, such as prednisolone.

      It is important to note that oseltamivir (tamiflu) is an antiviral used for influenzae, while chloroquine is typically used for malaria. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and is not effective in treating viral infections. While corticosteroids can provide relief from inflammation, they are not the primary treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome when used alone.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. He is currently taking sodium valproate as his only medication. A venous blood gas is obtained immediately.

      What are the expected venous blood gas results for this patient?

      Your Answer: Low pH, high lactate, low SaO2

      Explanation:

      Acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, which enhances oxygen delivery to the tissues by causing more oxygen to dissociate from Hb. postictal lactic acidosis is a common occurrence in patients with tonic-clonic seizures, and it is typically managed by monitoring for spontaneous resolution. During a seizure, tissue hypoxia can cause lactic acidosis. Therefore, a venous blood gas test for this patient should show low pH, high lactate, and low SaO2.

      If the venous blood gas test shows a high pH, normal lactate, and low SaO2, it would not be consistent with postictal lactic acidosis. This result indicates alkalosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal losses, renal losses, or Cushing syndrome.

      A high pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 would also be inconsistent with postictal lactic acidosis because tissue hypoxia would cause an increase in lactate levels.

      Similarly, low pH, high lactate, and normal SaO2 would not be expected in postictal lactic acidosis because acidosis would shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin.

      Finally, normal pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 are unlikely to be found in this patient shortly after a seizure. However, if the venous blood gas test was taken days after the seizure following an uncomplicated clinical course, these findings would be more plausible.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no medical or family history and has never smoked.

      The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests, including a sputum sample.

      What is the most likely organism to be identified?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis patients may have various bacteria present in their respiratory system, with Haemophilus influenzae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common. Staphylococcus aureus has also been found but not as frequently. Respiratory syncytial virus has not been detected in acute exacerbations of bronchiectasis. It is crucial to identify the specific bacteria causing exacerbations as antibiotic sensitivity patterns differ, and sputum culture results can impact the effectiveness of treatment. These findings are outlined in the British Thoracic Society’s guideline for non-CF bronchiectasis and a study by Metaxas et al. on the role of atypical bacteria and respiratory syncytial virus in bronchiectasis exacerbations.

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be addressed, such as immune deficiencies. Management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During a schoolyard brawl a boy is hit in the chest. The stick...

    Correct

    • During a schoolyard brawl a boy is hit in the chest. The stick passes through the posterior mediastinum (from left to right). Which one of the following structures is least likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Arch of the azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein’s arch is located within the middle mediastinum.

      The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.

      The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.

      In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchial carcinoma. When the...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchial carcinoma. When the surgeons reach the root of the lung, which structure will be the most anterior in the anatomical plane?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      The lung root contains two nerves, with the phrenic nerve positioned in the most anterior location and the vagus nerve situated in the most posterior location.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She has been experiencing increased breathlessness, particularly at night. Her medical history includes long-standing COPD, heart failure, and previous breast cancer that was treated with a mastectomy and radiotherapy. She used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day for 22 years but has since quit.

      During the examination, her respiratory rate is 23/min, oxygen saturation is 93%, blood pressure is 124/98mmHg, and temperature is 37.2ºC. A gas transfer test is performed, and her transfer factor is found to be low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      TLCO, also known as transfer factor, is a measurement of how quickly gas can move from a person’s lungs into their bloodstream. To test TLCO, a patient inhales a mixture of carbon monoxide and a tracer gas, holds their breath for 10 seconds, and then exhales forcefully. The exhaled gas is analyzed to determine how much tracer gas was absorbed during the 10-second period.

      A high TLCO value is associated with conditions such as asthma, pulmonary hemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, and exercise. Conversely, most other conditions result in a low TLCO value, including pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary edema, emphysema, and anemia.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of vertigo, which worsens...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of vertigo, which worsens when he rolls over in bed. The doctor diagnoses him with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

      What treatment options are available to alleviate the symptoms of this condition?

      Your Answer: Trendelenburg's test

      Correct Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      The Epley manoeuvre is a treatment for BPPV, while the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is used for diagnosis. The Epley manoeuvre aims to move fluid in the inner ear to dislodge otoliths, while the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre involves observing the patient for nystagmus when swiftly lowered from a sitting to supine position. Tinel’s sign is positive in those with carpal tunnel syndrome, where tapping the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum causes paraesthesia. The Trendelenburg test is used to assess venous valve competency in patients with varicose veins.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A respiratory specialist is conducting a bronchoscopy to determine a suitable biopsy for...

    Incorrect

    • A respiratory specialist is conducting a bronchoscopy to determine a suitable biopsy for histological evaluation of suspected bronchial carcinoma in a pediatric patient.

      While performing the procedure, the bronchoscope is erroneously inserted through the diaphragm at the T10 level.

      Which structure is at the highest risk of being harmed as a result of this error?

      Your Answer: Thoracic duct

      Correct Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at the level of T10 along with the vagal trunk, which is the most likely structure to have been damaged. The aorta, on the other hand, perforates the diaphragm at T12 and supplies oxygenated blood to the lower body, while the azygous vein also perforates the diaphragm at T12 and drains the right side of the thorax into the superior vena cava.

      Structures Perforating the Diaphragm

      The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.

      To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed by a maximal exhalation. Which of the following measurements will most accurately depict this process?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      The maximum amount of air that can be breathed in and out within one minute is known as maximum voluntary ventilation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old patient is undergoing routine pulmonary function testing to assess her chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient is undergoing routine pulmonary function testing to assess her chronic condition. The results are compared to a standardised predicted value and presented in the table below:

      FEV1 75% of predicted
      FVC 70% of predicted
      FEV1/FVC 105%

      What is the probable condition that this patient is suffering from, which can account for the above findings?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Neuromuscular disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient’s pulmonary function tests indicate a restrictive pattern, as both FEV1 and FVC are reduced. This suggests a possible neuromuscular disorder, as all other options would result in an obstructive pattern on the tests. Asthma, bronchiectasis, and COPD are unlikely diagnoses for a 20-year-old and would not match the test results. Pneumonia may affect the patient’s ability to perform the tests, but it is typically an acute condition that requires immediate treatment with antibiotics.

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old man has been diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma. The tumor...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man has been diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma. The tumor measures 4 centimeters in its largest dimension and is not invading any surrounding structures. However, there are metastases in the ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes, and no distant metastases have been found. What is the TNM score for this patient, considering the primary tumor (T), regional lymph nodes (N), and distant metastases (M)?

      Your Answer: T3 N2 M0

      Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to have knowledge about the TNM system for staging lung cancer. The absence of distant metastases eliminates one of the options immediately (as M must be 0).

      The size and invasion of the tumor are significant factors:
      – T1 is less than 3 cm
      – T2 is between 3 cm and 7 cm
      – T3 is more than 7 cm and/or involves invasion of the chest wall, parietal pleura, diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium
      – T4 can be any size but involves invasion of other structures

      To differentiate between N1 and N2, remember that N1 involves ipsilateral hilar or peribronchial lymph nodes, while N2 involves ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph nodes.

      Small Cell Lung Cancer: Characteristics and Management

      Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that usually develops in the central part of the lungs and arises from APUD cells. This type of cancer is often associated with the secretion of hormones such as ADH and ACTH, which can cause hyponatremia and Cushing’s syndrome, respectively. In addition, ACTH secretion can lead to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and hypokalemic alkalosis due to high levels of cortisol. Patients with small cell lung cancer may also experience Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is characterized by antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels causing a myasthenic-like syndrome.

      Management of small cell lung cancer depends on the stage of the disease. Patients with very early stage disease may be considered for surgery, while those with limited disease typically receive a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Patients with more extensive disease are offered palliative chemotherapy. Unfortunately, most patients with small cell lung cancer are diagnosed with metastatic disease, making treatment more challenging.

      Overall, small cell lung cancer is a complex disease that requires careful management and monitoring. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes, but more research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms of this type of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (13/20) 65%
Passmed