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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a past medical history of recurrent episodes of profuse sweating, rapid heartbeat, and sudden high blood pressure is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Beta-blocker
Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker
Explanation:A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that develops from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas, also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas, are similar tumors that originate in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system but are less common. These tumors secrete catecholamines and cause a range of symptoms and signs related to hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.
The most common initial symptom is high blood pressure, which can be either sustained or sporadic. Symptoms tend to come and go, occurring multiple times a day or very infrequently. As the disease progresses, the symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.
Surgical removal is the preferred and definitive treatment option. If the tumor is completely removed without any spread to other parts of the body, it often leads to a cure for hypertension.
Before surgery, it is crucial to manage the condition medically to reduce the risk of hypertensive crises during the operation. This is typically done by using a combination of non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) and beta-blockers. Alpha-blockade should be started first, at least 7-10 days before the surgery, to allow for expansion of blood volume. Once this is achieved, beta-blockade can be initiated to help control rapid heart rate and certain irregular heart rhythms. Starting beta-blockade too early can trigger a hypertensive crisis.
Genetic counseling should also be provided, and any associated conditions should be identified and managed appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain associated with increased abdominal swelling, fever and vomiting. You note the patient has a long history of drug abuse and is well known to the local gastroenterology team who have diagnosed her with liver cirrhosis. You are concerned the patient may have developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP).
What is the most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:The most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is Escherichia coli. SBP is a serious infection that occurs in individuals with liver cirrhosis, where bacteria from the gut migrate into the peritoneal cavity, leading to infection and inflammation. E. coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines and is known to be a frequent cause of SBP. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat SBP to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 15 minutes before her arrival. On arrival, she is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. She is known to be homeless and has a long history of alcohol abuse. The paramedics administered a single dose of rectal diazepam on the way, approximately 12 minutes ago. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 110, BP 100/60, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 37.2°C.
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?Your Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In this particular patient’s case, his history of chronic alcohol abuse, homelessness, and likely impaired nutrition necessitates the administration of intravenous thiamine in the form of Pabrinex. Additionally, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given, and his blood glucose levels should be urgently checked.
The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:
1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
– Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
– Administer oxygen
– Assess cardiorespiratory function
– Establish intravenous access2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
– Implement regular monitoring
– Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
– Initiate emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
– Perform emergency investigations
– Administer glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine as Pabrinex if there are indications of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition
– Treat severe acidosis if present3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
– Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
– Notify the anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
– Identify and treat any medical complications
– Consider pressor therapy when appropriate4th stage (30-90 minutes):
– Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
– Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
– Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring if necessary
– Start initial long-term, maintenance AED therapyEmergency investigations include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium levels, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be performed to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, depend on the clinical circumstances.
Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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You assess a 40-year-old woman with severe otitis externa in her RIGHT ear.
Which ONE combination of examination findings would you anticipate discovering?Your Answer: Weberâs test lateralising to the left and Rinneâs test true negative on left
Explanation:In a patient with severe otitis externa on the left side, it is expected that they will experience conductive deafness on the left side. This means that their ability to hear sound will be impaired due to a problem in the ear canal or middle ear. When conducting a Rinne’s test, a vibrating 512 Hz tuning fork is placed on the mastoid process until the patient can no longer hear the sound. Then, the top of the tuning fork is positioned 2 cm from the external auditory meatus, and the patient is asked where they hear the sound loudest.
In individuals with normal hearing, the sound from the tuning fork should still be audible outside the external auditory canal even after it can no longer be heard on the mastoid. This is because air conduction should be better than bone conduction. However, in cases of conductive hearing loss, the patient will no longer be able to hear the tuning fork once it is removed from the mastoid. This indicates that their bone conduction is greater than their air conduction, suggesting an obstruction in the ear canal that prevents sound waves from reaching the cochlea. This is referred to as a true negative result.
It is important to note that a Rinne’s test may yield a false negative result if the patient has a severe unilateral sensorineural deficit. In this case, they may still sense the sound in the unaffected ear due to the transmission of sound through the base of the skull. In contrast, individuals with sensorineural hearing loss will have diminished ability to hear the tuning fork both on the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal compared to the opposite ear. The sound will disappear earlier on the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal in the affected ear.
When performing Weber’s test, a vibrating 512 Hz tuning fork is placed on the center of the patient’s forehead. The patient is then asked if they perceive the sound in the middle of the forehead or if it lateralizes to one side. If the sound lateralizes to one side, it can indicate either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 5
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma alert is activated, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully establish intravenous access and decide to prepare for intraosseous access instead.
Which of the following anatomical sites would be the most appropriate for insertion?Your Answer: Proximal humerus
Explanation:Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.
Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.
There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type A Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type A Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?Your Answer: Predominantly negative QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presented to the emergency department with a sudden onset severe occipital headache accompanied by vomiting and neck stiffness. There is no reported history of head injury. Upon clinical examination, his temperature is recorded as 37ÂșC, respiratory rate at 18 per minute, pulse at 88 beats per minute, and blood pressure at 160/100. It is observed that his right eye is laterally and inferiorly deviated, with a dilated pupil and drooping of the right upper eyelid.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: CT head scan
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).
When assessing patients who present with an SAH, there may be focal neurological signs that can indicate the potential location of the aneurysm. Common sites for aneurysms include the bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, the junction of the anterior communicating cerebral artery, and the junction of the posterior communicating artery with the internal carotid artery. If there is complete or partial palsy of the oculomotor nerve, it suggests the rupture of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.
While hypertension is a risk factor for SAH, a significant increase in blood pressure may occur as a reflex response following the haemorrhage.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a CT head scan, which can detect over 95% of cases if performed within the first 24 hours. The sensitivity of the scan increases to nearly 100% if done within 6 hours of symptom onset. If the CT head scan is negative and there are no contraindications, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed to diagnose SAH. It is recommended to perform the LP at least 12 hours after the onset of headache. It is important to note that approximately 3% of patients with a negative CT scan will be confirmed to have had an SAH after undergoing an LP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25 year old male presents to the emergency department with a significant laceration on his right forearm. You suggest that the wound can be stitched under local anesthesia. You opt to use 1% lidocaine for the procedure. The patient has a weight of 70kg. Determine the maximum amount of lidocaine 1% that can be administered.
Your Answer: 18 ml
Explanation:Lidocaine is a medication that is available in a concentration of 10 mg per milliliter. The maximum recommended dose of lidocaine is 18 milliliters.
Further Reading:
Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.
However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.
The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.
If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.
It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman returns from a recent vacation on a cruise ship with a persistent cough and a high temperature. Today she has also experienced frequent episodes of diarrhea and has developed sharp chest pain on both sides. She reports feeling short of breath, especially when she exerts herself. The cruise ship doctor had prescribed her amoxicillin a few days ago, but she has not seen any improvement.
Her blood test results today are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 14.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
White blood cell count (WCC): 13.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
Neutrophils: 10.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
Lymphocytes: 0.6 x 109/l (normal range: 1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
Eosinophils: 0.35 x 109/l (normal range: 0.04-0.44 x 109/l)
C-reactive protein (CRP): 87 mg/l (normal range: <5 mg/l)
Sodium (Na): 122 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
Potassium (K): 4.4 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Creat): 112 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella pneumophila is a type of Gram-negative bacterium that can be found in natural water supplies and soil. It is responsible for causing Legionnaires’ disease, a serious illness. Outbreaks of this disease have been associated with poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, and hot tubs. In the past, there have been instances of Legionnaires’ disease outbreaks on cruise ships due to inadequate maintenance of air conditioning and shower units.
The pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease presents with certain clinical features. Initially, there may be a mild flu-like prodrome lasting for 1-3 days. A persistent cough, which is usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90% of cases, is also common. Other symptoms include pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and anorexia. Additionally, some individuals may experience a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), which can lead to hyponatraemia.
It is important to note that infections caused by Legionella pneumophila are resistant to amoxicillin. However, they can be effectively treated with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin or quinolones such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, including doxycycline, can also be used for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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You review a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. She has developed an infection that needs to be treated with an antibiotic.
Which antibiotic would be the most suitable and safe option for this patient?Your Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:The use of antibiotics can impact the effectiveness of warfarin and other coumarin anticoagulants. This can lead to changes in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) and, in severe cases, increase the risk of bleeding. Some antibiotics, such as chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin, co-trimoxazole, doxycycline, erythromycin, macrolides (e.g., clarithromycin), metronidazole, ofloxacin, and sulphonamide, are known to enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. However, cefalexin is considered relatively safe and is the most suitable option in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 11
Correct
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A 40-year-old businessman presents with sudden onset breathlessness and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He has recently returned from a trip to Australia. He has no past medical history of note and suffers no known allergies. His observations are as follows: temperature 38.2°C, oxygen saturations 93% on air, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 24, blood pressure 122/63 mmHg. On examination, he has a tender, swollen left calf, and his chest is clear.
What is the SINGLE investigation most likely to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram
Explanation:The clinical history and examination strongly suggest that the patient has a pulmonary embolism caused by a deep vein thrombosis in his right leg.
The typical symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include shortness of breath, chest pain that worsens with breathing, coughing, and/or coughing up blood. There may also be symptoms indicating the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Other signs include rapid breathing and heart rate, fever, and in severe cases, signs of shock, an abnormal heart rhythm, and increased pressure in the jugular veins.
Given the patient’s high probability Wells score, it is recommended that an immediate CT pulmonary angiogram (CPTA) be performed. This test is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. A d-dimer test would not provide any additional benefit in this case. While a chest X-ray and ECG may provide useful information, they alone cannot confirm the diagnosis.
For patients who have an allergy to contrast media, renal impairment, or are at high risk from radiation exposure, a ventilation/perfusion single-photon emission computed tomography (V/Q SPECT) scan or a V/Q planar scan can be offered as an alternative to CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Correct
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A patient presents with abdominal pain and confusion. They have a history of Addisonâs disease but recently ran out of their steroid medication. You suspect an Addisonian crisis.
What is the most frequent cause of Addisonâs disease?Your Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation:Addison’s disease can be attributed to various underlying causes. The most common cause, accounting for approximately 80% of cases, is autoimmune adrenalitis. This occurs when the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the adrenal glands. Another cause is bilateral adrenalectomy, which involves the surgical removal of both adrenal glands. Additionally, Addison’s disease can be triggered by a condition known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, which involves bleeding into the adrenal glands. Tuberculosis, a bacterial infection, is also recognized as a potential cause of this disease. Lastly, although rare, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can contribute to the development of Addison’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a single stab wound to the abdomen while attempting to intervene in a fight. The patient's observations are as follows:
Parameter Reading
Blood pressure: 122/84 mmHg
Pulse rate: 88 bpm
Respiration rate: 12 rpm
SpO2: 98% on air
Which two organs are frequently affected in cases of penetrating abdominal trauma?Your Answer: Liver and small bowel
Explanation:In cases of penetrating abdominal trauma, two organs that are frequently affected are the liver and the small bowel. This means that when a person sustains a stab wound or any other type of injury that penetrates the abdomen, these two organs are at a higher risk of being damaged.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of persistent vomiting, severe diarrhea, and loss of appetite. The patient reports feeling extremely weak. A peripheral cannula is inserted and blood samples are collected. The initial laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium (Na+): 134 mmol/L
Potassium (K+): 2.4 mmol/L
Urea (Ur): 8.2 mmol/L
Creatinine (Cr): 115 umol/L
Based on these findings, which of the following additional tests should be prioritized and requested?Your Answer: Magnesium
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia frequently occurs alongside hypokalaemia. It is important to note that potassium levels may not improve with supplementation until the magnesium deficiency is addressed.
Further Reading:
Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.
Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.
Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.
Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.
In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female comes to the emergency department 2 weeks after having a tracheostomy placed, complaining of bleeding around the tracheostomy site and experiencing small amounts of blood in her cough. What is the primary concern for the clinician regarding the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Haemorrhagic thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Tracheo-innominate fistula
Explanation:Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients experiencing bleeding after a tracheostomy. This bleeding, occurring between 3 days and 6 weeks after the tracheostomy procedure, should be treated as TIF until ruled out. While this complication is uncommon, it is extremely dangerous and often leads to death if not promptly addressed through surgical intervention. Therefore, any bleeding from a tracheostomy tube should be regarded as potentially life-threatening.
Further Reading:
Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.
When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.
Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 28-year-old woman who has been experiencing visual difficulties and had a period where her lower leg felt like 'pins and needles' for a few weeks approximately a year ago. Her sister was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, and she is concerned about her own health. She has numerous inquiries and wants to know which factors indicate a less favorable prognosis.
Which ONE factor would NOT be indicative of a positive outcome?Your Answer: Female sex
Correct Answer: Older age at time of diagnosis
Explanation:Multiple sclerosis is a condition characterized by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is an autoimmune disease caused by recurring inflammation, primarily affecting individuals in early adulthood. The condition is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 3:2 compared to males.
There are several risk factors associated with multiple sclerosis. These include being of Caucasian race, living at a greater distance from the equator (as the risk tends to increase further away), having a family history of the disease (with approximately 20% of patients having an affected relative), and smoking. Interestingly, the rates of relapse tend to decrease during pregnancy.
Multiple sclerosis can present in three main patterns. The most common is relapsing and remitting MS, where individuals experience periods without symptoms followed by relapses. This accounts for 80% of cases at the time of diagnosis. Another pattern is primary progressive MS, where symptoms develop and worsen from the beginning with few remissions. This is seen in approximately 10-15% of cases at diagnosis. Lastly, there is secondary progressive MS, which occurs after a relapsing/remitting phase. In this pattern, symptoms worsen with fewer remissions, and it affects around 50% of individuals with relapsing/remitting MS within 10 years of diagnosis.
Certain factors can indicate a more favorable prognosis for individuals with multiple sclerosis. These include having a relapsing/remitting course of the disease, being female, experiencing sensory symptoms, and having an early age at onset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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You evaluate a 55-year-old woman with chest discomfort and suspect a diagnosis of an acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
Which ONE statement about ACS is NOT TRUE?Your Answer: Cardiac enzymes are usually elevated in unstable angina
Explanation:Cardiac enzymes do not increase in unstable angina. However, if cardiac markers do rise, it is classified as a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). Both unstable angina and NSTEMI can have a normal ECG. An extended ventricular activation time indicates damage to the heart muscle. This occurs because infarcting myocardium conducts electrical impulses at a slower pace, resulting in a prolonged interval between the start of the QRS complex and the apex of the R wave. A positive troponin test indicates the presence of necrosis in cardiac myocytes.
Summary:
Marker | Initial Rise | Peak | Normal at
Creatine kinase | 4-8 hours | 18 hours 2-3 days | CK-MB = main cardiac isoenzyme
Myoglobin | 1-4 hours | 6-7 hours | 24 hours | Low specificity due to skeletal muscle damage
Troponin I | 3-12 hours | 24 hours | 3-10 days | Appears to be the most sensitive and specific
HFABP | 1-2 hours | 5-10 hours | 24 hours | HFABP = heart fatty acid binding protein
LDH | 10 hours | 24-48 hours | 14 days | Cardiac muscle mainly contains LDH -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has a history of bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's syndrome 10 years ago. During the examination of her visual fields, a bitemporal hemianopia is discovered.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cushingâs syndrome
Correct Answer: Nelsonâs syndrome
Explanation:Nelsonâs syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushingâs syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.
The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.
ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.
The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 14 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents approximately 90 minutes after taking an overdose. The patient tells you she was at her friend's house and they got into an argument which ended with her friend telling her she was ending their friendship. The patient grabbed a bottle of pills from the bathroom and swallowed all of them before leaving. She didn't tell her friend she had taken the pills and wanted her to feel guilty but now regrets her actions. The patient tells you she didn't read the name on the bottle and threw the bottle away as she walked home. The patient also tells you she didn't see how many pills were in the bottle but thinks there were 20-30 of them. Several attempts to contact the patient's friend to try and clarify the identity of the pills are unsuccessful. The patient advises you she feels nauseated and has ringing in her ears. You also note the patient is hyperventilating. A blood gas sample is taken and is shown below:
Parameter Result
pH 7.49
pO2 14.3 KPa
pCO2 3.4 KPa
HCO3- 25 mmol/L
BE -1
Which of the following best describes the acid base disturbance?Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:An elevated pH (normal range 7.34-7.45) suggests alkalosis. A low pCO2 (normal range 4.4-6.0 Kpa) indicates that the respiratory system is causing the alkalosis. The metabolic system, on the other hand, is not contributing to either alkalosis or acidosis as both the bicarbonate and base excess levels are within the normal ranges.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 20
Correct
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A 4 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The parents inform you that the patient had a slight fever and a runny nose for 2 days before they observed a barking cough. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for croup, a condition characterized by a barking cough in infants. To address this, oral dexamethasone is administered at a dosage of 0.15mg/kg. In cases of severe croup, nebulized adrenaline is utilized.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with a high temperature, body aches, and shivering. After further examination, they are diagnosed with Plasmodium falciparum malaria.
Which of the following statements about Plasmodium falciparum malaria is correct?Your Answer: Sporozoites invade the red blood cells of the host
Correct Answer: There may be a continuous fever
Explanation:Plasmodium falciparum malaria is transmitted by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. The Aedes genus, on the other hand, is responsible for spreading diseases like dengue fever and yellow fever. The parasite enters hepatocytes and undergoes asexual reproduction, resulting in the release of merozoites into the bloodstream. These merozoites then invade the red blood cells of the host. The incubation period for Plasmodium falciparum malaria ranges from 7 to 14 days.
The main symptom of malaria is known as the malarial paroxysm, which consists of a cyclical pattern of cold chills, followed by a stage of intense heat, and finally a period of profuse sweating as the fever subsides. However, some individuals may experience a continuous fever instead.
Currently, the recommended treatment for P. falciparum malaria is artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). This involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based compounds with drugs from a different class. Companion drugs used in ACT include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. Artemisinin derivatives such as dihydroartemisinin, artesunate, and artemether are also used.
If artemisinin combination therapy is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used as an alternative. However, quinine is not well-tolerated for prolonged treatment and should be combined with another drug, typically oral doxycycline (or clindamycin for pregnant women and young children).
Severe or complicated cases of falciparum malaria require specialized care in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated falciparum malaria, as well as those at high risk of developing severe disease (e.g., if more than 2% of red blood cells are parasitized) or if the patient is unable to take oral treatment. After a minimum of 24 hours of intravenous artesunate treatment and improvement in the patient’s condition, a full course of artemisinin combination therapy should be administered orally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl presents with a temperature of 39 degrees. She appears fussy, and a non-blanching rash is observed on her abdomen. Tragically, she passes away later that day from Meningococcal septicaemia.
To whom should a report be submitted?Your Answer: Consultant in Communicable Disease Control
Explanation:Registered medical practitioners in England and Wales are legally obligated to inform a designated official from the Local Authority if they suspect a patient has contracted specific infectious diseases. For more information on which diseases and their causative organisms require reporting, please refer to the following resource: Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28 year old female presents to the emergency department after being struck in the face during a night out. The patient reports a possible jaw fracture. You assess the patient for signs of mandibular fracture using the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule.
Which of the following signs is NOT included in the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule?Your Answer: Lacerations to the gum mucosa
Explanation:The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule consists of five signs that indicate a possible mandibular fracture: malocclusion, trismus, pain with mouth closed, broken teeth, and step deformity. If none of these signs are present, it is unlikely that a mandibular fracture has occurred. However, if one or more of these signs are present, it is recommended to obtain an X-ray for further evaluation. It is important to note that gum lacerations, although commonly seen in mandibular fractures, are not included in the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule.
Further Reading:
Mandibular fractures are a common type of facial fracture that often present to the emergency department. The mandible, or lower jaw, is formed by the fusion of two hemimandibles and articulates with the temporomandibular joints. Fractures of the mandible are typically caused by direct lateral force and often involve multiple fracture sites, including the body, condylar head and neck, and ramus.
When assessing for mandibular fractures, clinicians should use a look, feel, move method similar to musculoskeletal examination. However, it is important to note that TMJ effusion, muscle spasm, and pain can make moving the mandible difficult. Key signs of mandibular fracture include malocclusion, trismus (limited mouth opening), pain with the mouth closed, broken teeth, step deformity, hematoma in the sublingual space, lacerations to the gum mucosa, and bleeding from the ear.
The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule uses the absence of five exam findings (malocclusion, trismus, broken teeth, pain with closed mouth, and step deformity) to exclude mandibular fracture. This rule has been found to be 100% sensitive and 39% specific in detecting mandibular fractures. Imaging is an important tool in diagnosing mandibular fractures, with an OPG X-ray considered the best initial imaging for TMJ dislocation and mandibular fracture. CT may be used if the OPG is technically difficult or if a CT is being performed for other reasons, such as a head injury.
It is important to note that head injury often accompanies mandibular fractures, so a thorough head injury assessment should be performed. Additionally, about a quarter of patients with mandibular fractures will also have a fracture of at least one other facial bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are a member of the team assisting with the intubation of a pediatric patient. The initial intubation attempt is unsuccessful. Your attending physician instructs you to apply pressure on the larynx during the second attempt. With the patient positioned in a semi-recumbent position, which direction should pressure be applied to aid in intubation?
Your Answer: Backwards and downwards without lateral deviation
Correct Answer: Backwards, upwards and rightwards
Explanation:The BURP maneuver is a technique used to assist with intubation. It involves applying pressure in a specific direction on the larynx. The acronym BURP stands for backwards (B), upwards (U), rightwards (R), and pressure (P). To perform the maneuver correctly, the thyroid cartilage is moved backwards, 2 cm upwards, and 0.5cm – 2 cm to the right in relation to the anatomical position.
Further Reading:
A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.
Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.
If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. He has not produced any urine for the last 10 hours. After conducting additional tests, the patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
What stage of AKI does he fall under?Your Answer: Stage 2
Correct Answer: Stage 3
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, affecting approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK.
AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from the baseline within 7 days. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.
Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from the baseline within 7 days, or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.
The most severe stage, stage 3 AKI, is identified by a creatinine rise of 200% or more from the baseline within 7 days. It can also be diagnosed if the creatinine level reaches 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine production) for 12 hours is indicative of stage 3 AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32 year old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, fever, and yellowing of her skin and eyes. Upon examination, it is evident that she is clinically jaundiced. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. You suspect she may have acute hepatitis B infection. Which of the following serology results would best support this diagnosis?
Your Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgM negative
Correct Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgM positive
Explanation:The presence of serum HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates chronic HBV infection. HBeAg can be detected in the serum during the early stages of acute infection and some chronic infections. Higher levels of virus replication are usually associated with the presence of HBeAg, making individuals with chronic HBV more infectious. If HBeAg is cleared, anti-HBe is typically detected, indicating lower infectivity. The presence of anti-HBe, along with a decline in HBV-DNA, suggests control of viral replication and the likelihood of resolving acute hepatitis B. The presence of anti-HBc indicates current or past HBV infection, appearing at the onset of symptoms in acute infection and persisting for life. However, it may be absent in the early stages of acute infection. Anti-HBc IgM indicates recent HBV infection within the last six months and can help differentiate between acute and chronic infection. Over time, it is gradually replaced by IgG anti-HBc. IgG anti-HBc generally persists for life and indicates past infection. Anti-HBs indicates recovery from and immunity to HBV. If anti-HBs is present without anti-HBc, it suggests immunization. The quantification of anti-HBs is used to measure the response to vaccination.
Further Reading:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.
Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.
Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.
In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.
Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Open-angle glaucoma
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.
The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.
Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.
It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Correct
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What is the mode of action of VX gas in a suspected CBRN incident with a high number of casualties?
Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.
The first compounds to be created are referred to as the G agents (with G representing German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).
In the 1950s, the V agents (with V standing for venomous) were synthesized, and they are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).
One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.
The nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 29
Correct
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A 4 year old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that the patient started vomiting yesterday and has had multiple episodes of diarrhea since then. The patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The parents mention that there has been no recent travel and that the patient's immunizations are up to date. On examination, the patient has dry lips and buccal mucosa. The abdomen is soft, but the child becomes irritable when the abdomen is palpated. The peripheries are warm with a capillary refill time of 2.5 seconds. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Pulse: 146 bpm
Respiration rate: 32 bpm
Temperature: 37.9ÂșC
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral gastroenteritis
Explanation:Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis for the 4-year-old female patient is viral gastroenteritis. This is supported by the symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea, as well as the fact that the patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The absence of recent travel and up-to-date immunizations also suggest that this is a viral rather than a bacterial infection.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A young toddler is brought in by his father with a high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures his temperature again as part of her initial evaluation.
Which SINGLE statement regarding temperature measurement in young children is accurate?Your Answer: Reported parental perception of a fever should not be considered valid until it has been confirmed by a healthcare professional
Correct Answer: The rectal route should not be used to measure temperature
Explanation:Reported parental perception of a fever should be regarded as valid and taken seriously by healthcare professionals.
For infants under the age of 4 weeks, it is recommended to measure body temperature using an electronic thermometer in the axilla.
In children aged 4 weeks to 5 years, body temperature can be measured using one of the following methods: an electronic thermometer in the axilla, a chemical dot thermometer in the axilla, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.
It is important to note that oral and rectal routes should not be utilized for temperature measurement in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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