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  • Question 1 - You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients is most likely to cause skin irritation?

      Your Answer: Cetraben

      Correct Answer: Aqueous cream

      Explanation:

      Aqueous Cream May Cause Skin Irritation, Warns Drug Safety Update

      The use of aqueous cream as an emollient has been widely prescribed in the UK. However, a report published in the March 2013 issue of the Drug Safety Update (DSU) warns that it may cause burning and skin irritation in some patients, particularly children with eczema. The report showed that 56% of patients attending a paediatric dermatology clinic who used aqueous cream as a leave-on emollient reported skin irritation, typically within 20 minutes of application. This compared to 18% of children who used an alternative emollient. Skin irritation was not seen in patients using aqueous cream as a soap substitute. It is believed that the high sodium lauryl sulfate content in aqueous cream may be the cause of the irritation. The DSU doesn’t suggest that aqueous cream should not be prescribed, but advises that patients and parents should be warned about possible side-effects. It is recommended to routinely prescribe alternative emollients.

      Spacing: 2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on his forearms for the past 2 weeks. Loratadine has provided some relief for the itch, and occasionally the rash disappears within a few hours. However, in the last day, the rash has spread to his back and loratadine is no longer effective. The patient has no known allergies or triggers and is feeling well otherwise. What should be the next course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Blood tests for IgE

      Correct Answer: Trial of an oral corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing a severe urticarial rash, which is a common condition that doesn’t require a dermatology appointment or further investigations at this stage. The patient is stable and not showing signs of anaphylaxis. To investigate further, a symptom diary would be sufficient, especially with exposure to different work environments as an archaeologist. The first-line treatment would be a non-sedating antihistamine such as loratadine or cetirizine. However, if the urticaria is severe, as in this case, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?

      Your Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses

      Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.

      On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.

      In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of her left great toe for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seeking treatment as it is causing her significant embarrassment. Upon examination, there is a yellowish discoloration on the medial left great toe with nail thickening and mild onycholysis.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Start topical antifungal

      Correct Answer: Take nail sample for laboratory testing

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing any treatment, laboratory testing should confirm the presence of a fungal nail infection. Although it is likely that the patient’s symptoms are due to onychomycosis, other conditions such as psoriasis should be ruled out. Oral terbinafine would be a suitable treatment option if the test confirms a fungal infection. However, topical antifungal treatments are generally not ideal for nail infections. A topical corticosteroid is not appropriate for treating a fungal nail infection, but may be considered if the test reveals no fungal involvement and there are signs of an inflammatory dermatosis like psoriasis. While taking a nail sample is necessary, antifungal treatment should not be initiated until the fungal cause is confirmed. This is because different nail conditions can have similar appearances, and starting treatment without confirmation would not be beneficial.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?...

    Incorrect

    • How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      How to Measure the Amount of Topical Corticosteroids to Apply

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply the cream or ointment in the correct amount to ensure effective treatment and avoid side effects. The length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be used to specify the quantity to be applied to a given area of skin. This length can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the distance from the tip of the adult index finger to the first crease. One fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g) is sufficient to cover an area that is twice that of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      It is important to spread the corticosteroid thinly on the skin but in sufficient quantity to cover the affected areas. The amount of cream or ointment used should not be confused with potency, as one gram of a potent steroid is the same in terms of mass as one gram of a mild steroid. Potency doesn’t come into play when measuring the amount of cream to use. If you need to make an educated guess, think about the units. One milligram is an exceptionally small amount and is unlikely to represent a fingertip unit. By using the fingertip unit measurement, you can ensure that you are applying the correct amount of topical corticosteroid for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
      What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.

      The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.

      Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.

      Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man presents with a painful rash on his lower back that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a painful rash on his lower back that has been bothering him for the past 7 days. He had visited the doctor 4 days ago and was prescribed aciclovir for shingles, but the pain persists despite taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, codeine, and amitriptyline. The pain is described as a severe burning sensation with a mild itch, which is affecting his daily functioning and sleep.

      During the examination, the man's temperature is recorded at 37ºC. The rash is located on the left lower back and is characterized by closely grouped red papules and vesicles with surrounding erythema.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If simple analgesia and neuropathic analgesia are not effective in treating refractory pain in shingles, corticosteroids such as prednisolone can be used, but only for acute shingles. This is according to the NICE CKS guideline, which recommends considering oral corticosteroids in the first 2 weeks following rash onset in immunocompetent adults with localized shingles if the pain is severe, but only in combination with antiviral treatment. In the case of a patient who has been on antiviral treatment for seven days and has tried several analgesics without relief, a course of prednisolone would be an appropriate treatment option. Chlorphenamine, an antihistamine medication, may help alleviate itching symptoms but is not the most appropriate treatment option for severe pain. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic, is not necessary unless there is evidence of co-existing cellulitis. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has no role in shingles management. Morphine, an opioid medication, may be considered if the pain doesn’t respond to corticosteroids.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains...

    Incorrect

    • During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains of the appearance of a mole.

      Which of the following characteristics of the lesion would raise suspicion that it is a malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesion has irregular outline

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Melanoma: The ABCDE Mnemonic

      Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be deadly if not detected and treated early. To help identify potential melanomas, dermatologists use the ABCDE mnemonic. Each letter represents a characteristic that may indicate the presence of melanoma.

      A stands for asymmetry. If one half of a mole or lesion doesn’t match the other half, it may be a sign of melanoma. B is for border irregularity. Melanomas often have uneven or jagged edges. C represents color variegation. Melanomas may have multiple colors or shades within the same lesion. D is for diameter. Melanomas are typically larger than a pencil eraser, but any mole or lesion that is 6mm or more in diameter should be examined by a dermatologist. Finally, E stands for evolution. Any changes in size, shape, or color of a mole or lesion should be monitored closely.

      By remembering the ABCDE mnemonic, individuals can be more aware of the characteristics of melanoma and seek medical attention if they notice any concerning changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night sweats, and muscle pains that have been bothering her for a few months. She believes that these symptoms began after she developed a rash on her leg four months ago. She has not traveled anywhere. Samantha is upset and emotional about her symptoms.

      As part of Samantha's evaluation, which tests should be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi antibody test

      Explanation:

      Consider Lyme disease as a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with vague and unexplained symptoms such as fever, night sweats, headache, or paraesthesia. These symptoms may also include inflamed lymph nodes, neck pain, and joint/muscle aches. The causative agent of Lyme disease is Borrelia burgdorferi. Malaria is unlikely in patients with no travel history and symptoms lasting for 4 months. Scabies typically presents with an itchy rash, which is not evident in the scenario. Glandular fever may cause fatigue and muscle aches, but the absence of a sore throat and the need for a blood test for diagnosis make it less likely. Toxoplasma gondii is usually asymptomatic but may cause flu-like symptoms and muscle aches, and it is not associated with a rash.

      Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.

      As the disease progresses, it can lead to more severe symptoms. The later features of Lyme disease include cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis, as well as neurological symptoms such as cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Patients may also experience polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis and a retracted foreskin. He has a long-term catheter in place. What is the most frequent cause of paraphimosis in a non-diabetic man of this age? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure

      Explanation:

      Causes of Paraphimosis: Understanding the Factors Involved

      Paraphimosis is a medical condition where the foreskin becomes trapped behind the glans penis and cannot be reduced. While it can be a painful and distressing condition, it is important to understand the various factors that can contribute to its development.

      One common cause of paraphimosis is the failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure. This can occur during penile examination, cleaning, catheterisation, or cystoscopy. If the foreskin is left retracted for too long, it can become swollen and difficult to reduce.

      Another potential cause is chronic balanoposthitis, which is a chronic inflammation of the glans and foreskin. While this is uncommon, it can lead to phimosis (inability to retract the foreskin) in men with diabetes.

      Lichen sclerosus is another dermatological condition that can lead to phimosis. While it is uncommon, it is important to be aware of this potential cause.

      Excessive sexual activity is not a common cause of paraphimosis and is not indicated by the history. However, it is important to practice safe and responsible sexual behavior to prevent any potential complications.

      Finally, while sildenafil has been reported to cause priapism (a sustained painful penile erection), it is not a known cause of paraphimosis. By understanding the various factors involved in the development of paraphimosis, individuals can take steps to prevent this condition and seek appropriate medical care if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.

      It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.

      Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.

      While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman has been experiencing an uncomfortable rash around her mouth for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has been experiencing an uncomfortable rash around her mouth for the past 2 months. She uses a skin-cleansing face wash daily and applies hydrocortisone 1% ointment twice a day. Additionally, she has sought advice from a pharmacist who recommended clotrimazole 2% cream and has started using an old tube of fusidic acid cream. She has also started taking iron supplements after reading online that her symptoms may be due to iron deficiency. Despite all these efforts, her rash is getting worse.

      During examination, you observe clusters of papules with surrounding erythema around her mouth, with sparing of her lip margins. There are no comedones, cysts, or nodules.

      What is the top priority treatment that should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s perioral dermatitis is likely being exacerbated by her use of topical steroids, so the primary focus of treatment should be to avoid them. Topical erythromycin or clindamycin may be helpful for some patients, while more severe cases may require oral antibiotics like tetracycline or doxycycline. To be cautious, it is recommended that the patient stop using all topical creams and switch to a gentle non-soap-based cleanser for facial washing. It is important to note that oral iron is not a contributing factor to perioral dermatitis, and it is possible that the patient may have mistaken her symptoms for angular cheilitis, which is linked to iron deficiency.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and nodules in both axillae. She frequently goes to the gym and initially attributed her symptoms to deodorant use, although there have been no signs of improvement since stopping these.

      She doesn't take any regular medication and is allergic to macrolides.

      Upon examination, there are numerous lesions in both axillae consisting of pustules and nodules, as well as sinus tract formation. Mild scarring is also evident.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-6 month course of lymecycline

      Explanation:

      To manage her hidradenitis suppurativa, which is a chronic follicular occlusive disorder affecting intertriginous areas, such as the axillae, groin, perineal and infra-mammary areas, long-term topical or oral antibiotics may be used. As she is experiencing severe symptoms with nodules, sinuses, and scarring, it would be appropriate to offer her long-term systemic antibiotics. Tetracycline is the first-line antibiotic, making lymecycline the correct answer. Macrolides, such as clarithromycin, can be offered as a second-line option, but she is allergic to this antibiotic. Oral fluconazole and ketoconazole shampoo are used to treat various fungal skin conditions, but hidradenitis suppurativa is not related to a fungal infection. Topical clindamycin can be effective in mild localised hidradenitis suppurativa, but this woman requires systemic treatment due to her severe bilateral symptoms.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.

      In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.

      In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father was diagnosed with a malignant melanoma at the age of 49. He has worked in construction since leaving school and has spent many years working outside. He tells you that he has spent about 10 years working in North Africa, the majority of the time he spent outside in the sun.

      The patient has fair hair and blue eyes. You examine his skin and he has about 60 common naevi 2 mm or less in diameter. He also has four atypical naevi (naevi with flat and raised areas, oval in shape, with some colour variation) which are all 6 mm or more in diameter. He reports no changes in any of the moles but as he has so many is worried about his risk of skin cancer.

      What is the greatest risk factor for this patient to develop a melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His history of high sun exposure

      Explanation:

      Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions and Identifying Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. The number and characteristics of naevi are the greatest risk factors for melanoma, with individuals who have more than 50 melanocytic naevi, of which 3 or more are atypical in appearance, classified as having atypical mole syndrome. This syndrome occurs in about 2% of the population and increases the risk of developing melanoma by 7 to 10 fold. The risk is further increased if there is a family history of melanoma in a first or second degree relative, known as familial atypical mole syndrome. Other risk factors include light-colored eyes, unusually high sun exposure, and red or light-colored hair.

      It is important to understand the extent of risk associated with these factors, as identifying high-risk patients presents an opportunity to advise them accordingly. Patients at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, and organ transplant recipients. Patients with giant congenital pigmented naevi also require long-term follow-up by a specialist, usually a dermatologist. By understanding these risk factors and providing appropriate guidance, healthcare professionals can help prevent and detect melanoma in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his trunk, arms, and thighs over the past month. He has some mild itching but is otherwise well. He last presented to the surgery two months ago with tonsillitis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Guttate Psoriasis from Other Skin Conditions: A Clinical Analysis

      Guttate psoriasis is a skin condition that often appears 7-10 days after a streptococcal infection. It is characterized by numerous teardrop-shaped lesions on the trunk and proximal limbs, which are red and covered with a fine scale. While the scale may be less evident in the early stages, the lesions typically resolve on their own after 2-3 months.

      When diagnosing guttate psoriasis, it is important to consider other skin conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Atopic eczema, for example, is less well differentiated than psoriasis lesions and may not have a history of a preceding sore throat. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin would typically result in skin reactions that resolve spontaneously and would not last for a month. Lichen planus, an autoimmune condition, causes shiny papules without scale and is characterized by Whickham’s striae, which are white lines on the surface of the skin. Pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that causes a widespread rash with scale and well-defined edges, may also be considered but is less likely if there is a history of a preceding sore throat.

      In summary, a thorough clinical analysis is necessary to distinguish guttate psoriasis from other skin conditions with similar symptoms. A careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and physical examination can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits his doctor complaining of a thick scaly patch on his right knee that appeared after starting a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for exacerbating his rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium has been found to potentially worsen psoriasis symptoms.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports a history of abscess in the other axillae which required incision and drainage, and now wants to prevent it from happening again. She also complains of frequently having spots and pustules in the groin area. Upon examination of the affected axillae, there is a small inflamed pustule, along with a few other nodules and scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      Hidradenitis suppurativa is a skin disorder that is chronic, painful, and inflammatory. It is characterized by the presence of nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in areas where skin folds overlap, such as the armpits, groin, and inner thighs.

      This condition is more common in women, smokers, and individuals with a higher body mass index. Over time, the lesions can lead to the development of scars and sinus tracts.

      Acanthosis nigricans, on the other hand, is a skin condition characterized by thickening and discoloration of the skin in skin folds. It is often a sign of an underlying disease such as diabetes or malignancy.

      Acne vulgaris is another skin condition that can present with papules and pustules, but it typically affects the face, upper back, and chest rather than the areas affected by hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Rosacea is a skin condition that causes redness and inflammatory papules on the face, particularly on the cheeks and nose.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the...

    Incorrect

    • You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the appearance is atypical and so you want to send skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture.

      Which of the following forms part of best practice with regards the sample?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should be informed that microscopy and culture results should be available within 1-2 days

      Explanation:

      Obtaining Skin Samples for Fungal Microscopy and Culture

      To obtain skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture, it is recommended to scrape the skin from the advancing edge of the lesion(s) using a blunt scalpel blade. This area typically provides a higher yield of dermatophyte. It is important to obtain at least 5 mm2 of skin flakes, which should be placed into folded dark paper and secured with a paperclip. Alternatively, commercially available packs can be used.

      The sample should be kept at room temperature as dermatophytes are inhibited at low temperatures. Microscopy results typically take 1-2 days, while culture results take 2-3 weeks. By following these steps, accurate and timely results can be obtained for the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.

      Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.

      Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.

      During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.

      What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is shiny with visible telangiectasiae and is gradually increasing in size.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Skin Tumours: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      Skin tumours are abnormal growths of skin cells that can be benign or malignant. Basal cell carcinomas are the most common malignant skin tumour, usually caused by excessive sun exposure in early life and previous sunburn. They often present as a slow-growing nodule or papule that forms an ulcer with a raised ‘rolled’ edge. Basal cell carcinomas grow slowly and rarely metastasise.

      Low-risk basal cell carcinomas can be managed in primary care if the GP meets the requirements to perform skin surgery. A specialist referral is appropriate for most people with a suspicious skin lesion, and urgent referral is necessary if there is a concern that a delay may have a significant impact.

      Squamous cell carcinomas have a crusted or ulcerated surface, while seborrhoeic warts have a warty pigmented surface appearance. Lentigo maligna is a melanoma in situ that progresses slowly and can remain non-invasive for years. In amelanotic melanoma, the colour may be pink, red, purple, or the colour of normal skin, and growth is likely to be rapid with a poor prognosis.

      In conclusion, early detection and management of skin tumours are crucial for better outcomes. Regular skin checks and seeking medical advice for any suspicious skin lesion are recommended.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

      She has little other history of note and has otherwise been well. This itching has deteriorated over this time and is particularly worse at night. She has been unaware of any rashes and denies taking any prescribed drugs. There is no history of atopy.

      She shares a flat with her boyfriend and drinks approximately 12 units per week and smokes cannabis occasionally.

      On examination, there is little of note except there are some scratch marks over the shoulders and back and she has some erythema between the fingers. Otherwise cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination is normal.

      Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Treatment

      Scabies is a highly contagious disease caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is commonly found in sexually active individuals. The disease is characterized by generalised pruritus, and it is important to carefully examine the finger spaces for burrows.

      The most effective treatments for scabies include permethrin cream, topical benzyl benzoate, and malathion. While permethrin cream doesn’t directly alleviate pruritus, it helps to kill the mite, which is the root cause of the disease. Patients should be advised that it may take some time for the itching to subside as the allergic reaction to the mite abates. Additionally, it is important to apply the cream to all areas below the neck, not just where the rash is present.

      In summary, scabies is a highly contagious disease that can cause significant discomfort. However, with proper treatment and care, patients can effectively manage their symptoms and prevent the spread of the disease.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting with discoloration on 2 of his 5 toes on his left foot. He is in good health and has no other medical issues. He is eager to receive treatment as it is causing discomfort when he walks.

      Upon examination, you determine that he has an obvious fungal toenail infection on his 2nd and 5th toenails of his left foot and proceed to take some nail clippings.

      After a week, you receive the mycology results which confirm the presence of Trichophyton rubrum.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to dermatophyte nail infections, the preferred treatment is oral terbinafine, especially when caused by Trichophyton rubrum, which is a common organism responsible for such infections. It is important to note that not treating the infection is not an option, especially when the patient is experiencing symptoms such as pain while walking. Oral itraconazole may be more appropriate for Candida infections or as a second-line treatment for dermatophyte infections. Amorolfine nail lacquer is not recommended according to NICE CKS guidelines if more than two nails are affected.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An 90-year-old female who has developed cracked fissured skin on her lower legs with a 'crazy-paving' appearance

      Explanation:

      Types of Eczema and Asteatotic Eczema in Elderly Patients

      There are various types of eczema, each with its own unique characteristics and triggers. Atopic eczema is common in children, while pompholyx affects middle-aged women and discoid eczema is more prevalent in older men. Varicose eczema is often seen in individuals with poor circulation, and asteatotic eczema is a common condition in elderly patients.

      Asteatotic eczema is caused by a lack of epidermal lubrication, which can be exacerbated by factors such as over-washing, inadequate soap removal, diuretic use, and dry air with low humidity. This condition is characterized by dry, cracked skin with a crazy-paving appearance. Treatment involves addressing any underlying triggers and using topical emollients and steroids to soothe and moisturize the affected area. With proper care, asteatotic eczema can be effectively managed in elderly patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of malignancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent growth

      Explanation:

      Identifying Suspicious Pigmented Lesions: Signs of Malignancy

      When it comes to pigmented lesions, it’s important to approach new or growing ones with caution. While benign melanocytic naevi tend to remain stable over time, malignant lesions may exhibit signs of growth and other concerning features. These may include a size greater than 7mm, irregular pigmentation, asymmetry, and an irregular border or contour. While itching and bleeding may also be indicative of malignancy, they can also be caused by other factors such as trauma or seborrhoeic keratosis. To identify potential melanomas, healthcare professionals may use the Glasgow 7-point checklist or the ABCDE’s of melanoma. By remaining vigilant and aware of these warning signs, we can help ensure early detection and treatment of potentially dangerous pigmented lesions.

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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags in both axillae.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hyperpigmented Skin: Acanthosis Nigricans, Erythrasma, Melasma, Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum, and Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation

      Hyperpigmented skin can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is acanthosis nigricans, which presents with thick, velvety skin in the neck and flexures, often accompanied by skin tags. This condition is commonly associated with obesity and hereditary factors. However, it can also be a sign of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Another possible cause of hyperpigmented skin is erythrasma, a bacterial infection that causes pink-red macules that turn brown, typically in the groin and axilla. However, the bilateral distribution of the pigmentation in this case makes erythrasma less likely.

      Melasma is another condition that can cause hyperpigmentation, but it typically presents with symmetrical blotchy brown pigmentation on the face. The distribution described in the scenario makes melasma less likely.

      Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare condition that affects the shins of people with diabetes. However, the distribution of the pigmentation in this case rules out this condition as a cause.

      Finally, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after trauma such as burns, causing flat macules. However, it doesn’t cause skin thickening, as described in this case.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for hyperpigmented skin includes acanthosis nigricans, erythrasma, melasma, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 29 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

    She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

      She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.

      There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).

      She is allergic to penicillin.

      What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal

      Explanation:

      Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis

      In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 31 - A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm has recently become darker, although he believes the size has not changed. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped pigmented lesion measuring 8 mm × 6 mm. The lesion appears mildly inflamed, with some areas darker than others, but there is no discharge. Sensation over the lesion and surrounding skin is normal.

      Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE), what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The 7-Point Checklist for Detecting Skin Cancer

      The 7-point weighted checklist is a tool used by clinicians to identify suspicious skin lesions that may be cancerous. It comprises three major features, including a change in size, irregular shape, and irregular colour, as well as four minor features, such as inflammation and oozing. Major features score 2 points each, while minor features score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3.

      The incidence of malignant melanoma is increasing rapidly, particularly among young people, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. High-risk patients include those with fair skin, freckling or light hair, users of sunbeds, atypical or dysplastic naevi, a family history of melanoma, and a history of blistering sunburn. Clinicians should also offer safe sun advice and encourage patients to seek medical attention if they have any concerns.

      The 7-point checklist can be found in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer and is an important tool for detecting skin cancer early. By being aware of the risk factors and using this checklist, clinicians can help to improve outcomes for patients with skin cancer.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 32 - A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.

      In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.

      If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.

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  • Question 33 - A 58-year-old man who is a recent immigrant from Tanzania complains about an...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man who is a recent immigrant from Tanzania complains about an ulcer on his penis. This is painless and has been present for some months, but is slowly enlarging. On examination he has an ulcer at the base of his glans and an offensive exudate. He also has bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penile cancer

      Explanation:

      Penile Cancer, Chancroid, and Syphilis: A Comparison

      Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but is more commonly seen in patients from Asia and Africa. It is often associated with poor hygiene and herpes infections, and can cause difficulty in retracting the foreskin. The 5-year survival rate with lymph-node involvement is around 50%.

      Chancroid, on the other hand, is characterized by a painful ulcer. Lymphadenitis is also painful, and may progress to a suppurative bubo. Multiple ulcers may be present.

      In syphilis, the primary chancre typically heals within 4-8 weeks, with or without treatment.

      While these conditions may have some similarities, they are distinct and require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have any of these conditions.

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  • Question 34 - A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
      What is the most appropriate primary care management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.

      One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.

      If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.

      Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.

      In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.

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  • Question 35 - A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She has an ulcer over the left medial malleolus with fibrosis and purpura of the surrounding skin.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Venous Leg Ulcers: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Venous leg ulcers are a common condition in the UK, accounting for approximately 3% of new cases seen in dermatological clinics. These ulcers are more prevalent in patients who are obese, have a history of varicose veins, or have experienced deep vein thrombosis. The underlying cause of venous leg ulcers is venous stasis, which leads to an increase in capillary pressure, fibrin deposits, and poor oxygenation of the skin. This, in turn, can result in poorly nourished skin and minor trauma, leading to ulceration.

      Treatment for venous leg ulcers focuses on reducing exudates and promoting healing using dressings such as Granuflex® or Sorbisan®. Compression bandaging is the primary treatment option, and preventive therapy may include weight loss, wearing support stockings, or surgical treatment of varicose veins.

      It is important to note that other conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as absent pulses, widespread purpura on the legs, injury, or diabetes. Therefore, a proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 36 - A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her forearm that has been there for 3 weeks. She mentions that she first noticed it after a minor injury to the area, and it has been growing rapidly since then. Upon examination, there is a 12mm raised, symmetrical nodule with a large keratinized center. The surrounding skin looks normal, and there are no other comparable lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoacanthoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keratoacanthoma

      Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in younger people. The appearance of this tumor is often described as a volcano or crater, starting as a smooth dome-shaped papule that rapidly grows into a central crater filled with keratin. While spontaneous regression within three months is common, it is important to have the lesion removed as it can be difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal can also prevent scarring. It is important to be aware of the features of keratoacanthoma and seek medical attention if any suspicious growths are noticed.

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  • Question 37 - A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed slowly on her shins over the past few months. The patches are shiny, pale and atrophic with telangiectasia.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum: A rare skin condition that is more prevalent in diabetic patients. It is characterized by the development of yellowish-brown patches that slowly grow over several months. The center of the patch becomes pale and thin with telangiectasia. Lesions can occur on various parts of the body, but the most common site is pretibial. Trauma can cause ulceration, and no treatment has proven to be completely effective.

      Lichen Sclerosus: Usually found in the anogenital area of women and on the prepuce, glans, and coronal sulcus in men. Patches are white and thickened or crinkled like cigarette paper.

      Erythema Nodosum: Presents as red, tender nodules on the anterior aspect of the lower leg. The nodules last for 3-6 weeks.

      Granuloma Annulare: Typically found on the dorsa of the hands or feet, but can be more widespread. The disseminated form is characterized by skin-colored, pink, or mauve non-scaly papules arranged in rings 10 cm or more in diameter.

      Venous Eczema: Itchy erythematous scaly or crusted patches on the lower legs. The patches may be confluent and circumferential, and there may be pigmentary changes due to haemosiderin deposition.

      Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions

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  • Question 38 - A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

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  • Question 39 - Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However,...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However, she is concerned about the impact it may have on her skin as she has an important event coming up soon. What is a typical skin-related adverse effect of Microgynon 30?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melasma

      Explanation:

      The use of combined oral contraceptive pills can lead to skin-related side effects that are similar to those observed during pregnancy. The high levels of estrogen in these pills can cause hyperpigmentation, known as melasma, on areas of the skin that are exposed to the sun. This side effect is more common in women who use the pill for longer durations or at higher doses. However, melasma usually disappears after discontinuing the pill or after pregnancy.

      The oral contraceptive pill can also cause vascular effects such as spider naevi, telangiectasia, and angiomas due to high levels of estrogen. Women taking the pill may also experience genital candidiasis (thrush). The progesterone used in the pill can be androgenic, leading to acne vulgaris, hirsutism, greasy hair, and alopecia. However, some progesterones, such as drospirenone (in Yasmin) and desogestrel (in Marvelon), are less androgenic and induce acne less. For effective treatment of acne, the estrogen dose must be sufficient to counteract the androgenic nature of the progesterone used.

      There is no evidence to suggest that taking the oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of eczema, rosacea, or dermatographia. However, the pill may cause erythema nodosum more commonly than erythema multiforme.

      Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition

      Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.

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  • Question 40 - An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and...

    Incorrect

    • An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and a sore penis. There are small, red erosions on the glans, and the foreskin is also swollen and red. He denies any recent sexual contact. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications.
      Which condition is most likely to have led to these signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Balanitis and their Risk Factors

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis. There are several causes of balanitis, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for effective treatment. Here are some of the common causes of balanitis and their associated risk factors:

      Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetes is the most common underlying condition associated with adult balanitis, especially if the blood sugar is poorly controlled. It predisposes the patient to a bacterial or candida infection. Obesity is also a risk factor for underlying diabetes.

      Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection: While immunosuppression (such as secondary to HIV infection) predisposes to balanitis, there are no indications that he is at risk of HIV.

      Contact Dermatitis: Contact or irritant dermatitis is a cause of balanitis; however, there are no risk factors described. Common causes of contact dermatitis balanitis include condoms, soap, and poor hygiene.

      Syphilis: Syphilis is a cause of infective balanitis; however, it is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.

      Trichomonas: Although a cause of infective balanitis, trichomonas is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.

      In conclusion, identifying the underlying cause of balanitis is crucial for effective treatment. Diabetes, HIV infection, contact dermatitis, syphilis, and trichomonas are some of the common causes of balanitis, and their associated risk factors should be considered during diagnosis.

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  • Question 41 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.

      Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types

      Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.

      Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.

      Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.

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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old woman comes in for pre-employment evaluation as she is starting work...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in for pre-employment evaluation as she is starting work as a nurse on a pediatric ward next month. She has received all her childhood and school-aged vaccinations but cannot recall if she had Chickenpox as a child.

      What vaccine is most likely required before she can start her new job?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella vaccine

      Explanation:

      For healthcare workers who do not have natural immunity to varicella, the most appropriate course of action is to administer a varicella vaccine. While a diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus booster may be recommended by the employer, it is not necessary in this case as the patient has a history of vaccination. Hepatitis A vaccine is typically only given to those who travel and is not routinely required for employment. While an influenza vaccine may be suggested by the employer, the patient’s most pressing need is likely the varicella vaccine. While a measles, mumps, and rubella vaccination may be considered, it is not the most urgent vaccination needed for employment.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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  • Question 43 - Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica

      Explanation:

      Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.

      The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.

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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection. The infection has been gradually developing, causing discoloration of the nail unit with white/yellow streaks and distorting the nail bed. The severity of the infection is moderate. During his last visit, nail scrapings were taken for microscopy and culture, which recently confirmed dermatophyte infection. The patient is experiencing discomfort while walking and is seeking treatment for the fungal infection.

      What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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  • Question 45 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.

      On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.

      The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare

      Explanation:

      Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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  • Question 46 - A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.

      What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 47 - An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream

      Explanation:

      Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

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  • Question 48 - A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to the extent that nearly the whole of the skin surface is involved.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythroderma

      Explanation:

      Erythroderma is a condition where the skin becomes red all over the body, affecting at least 90% of the skin surface. It can occur suddenly or gradually and is often accompanied by skin peeling. The cause can be related to various skin disorders, including eczema, drug reactions, and cancer. Psoriasis is the most common cause in adults. Patients with erythroderma should be hospitalized as it can lead to fever, heart failure, and dehydration. Asteatotic eczema is a type of eczema that causes dry, itchy, and cracked skin, usually on the shins of elderly patients. Atopic eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that often starts in infancy and is associated with high levels of immunoglobulin E. Ichthyosis is a condition where the skin is persistently scaly and can be congenital or acquired. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by drug reactions.

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  • Question 49 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a...

    Incorrect

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a teenager with eczema on the front and back of both hands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      How to Measure and Apply Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply them correctly to ensure maximum effectiveness and minimize side effects.

      To apply topical corticosteroids, spread a thin layer over the affected area, making sure to cover it completely. The amount of cream or ointment needed can be measured using a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease. One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      For example, to treat both hands for two weeks, 14 g of cream or ointment is needed. If the hands are frequently immersed in water, it may be necessary to apply the cream or ointment twice daily, in which case 15-30 g should be prescribed.

      By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using the correct amount of topical corticosteroids and achieving the best possible results.

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  • Question 50 - A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet for the past 3 weeks. Her soles appear shiny and glazed, but her heels are not affected. The web spaces between her toes are also spared. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile plantar dermatosis

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to correctly diagnose juvenile plantar dermatosis as it can be misidentified as athlete’s foot, and therefore requires different treatment.

      Juvenile plantar dermatosis is a prevalent condition that causes dry skin on the feet in children and adolescents, typically affecting those aged 3 to 14, although it can occur in individuals of any age. One key distinguishing factor is that juvenile plantar dermatosis spares the web spaces, whereas tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) commonly affects these areas.

      The initial treatment for juvenile plantar dermatosis involves using moisturizing cream at night and barrier cream during the day. Additionally, patients can be advised to reduce friction by wearing well-fitting shoes, two pairs of cotton socks, and changing socks frequently.

      Eczema typically presents as scaly, red patches in flexor creases, such as the elbow or knee.

      Contact dermatitis may appear similar to juvenile plantar dermatosis, but there would be a history of exposure to a potential trigger.

      In summary, accurately diagnosing juvenile plantar dermatosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment is provided, as it can be mistaken for other conditions such as athlete’s foot.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

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  • Question 51 - Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has been brought to your clinic by...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has been brought to your clinic by her father. He reports that she developed a rash with small spots on her upper lip 3 days ago. The spots have now burst and formed a yellowish crust. Sophie has no medical history and no known allergies.

      During the examination, Sophie appears to be in good health. She has a red rash on the left side of her upper lip with a few visible blisters and an area of yellow crust. There are no other affected areas.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrogen peroxide cream

      Explanation:

      If fusidic acid resistance is suspected or confirmed, mupirocin is the appropriate treatment for impetigo. Advising the person and their carers about good hygiene measures is important to aid healing and reduce the spread of impetigo, but it is not a treatment for the condition itself. Oral flucloxacillin is typically used for widespread non-bullous impetigo or in cases of bullous impetigo, systemic illness, or high risk of complications, none of which apply to Timothy’s localized impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 52 - A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.

      Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.

      The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.

      What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.

      This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.

      Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 53 - A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of his glans penis and foreskin, and his mother reports a foul odor and slight discharge. What is the most frequently isolated organism in cases of balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C. albicans

      Explanation:

      Balanitis is most commonly caused by C. albicans, with group B beta-haemolytic streptococci being a less frequent cause among bacterial infections. The other options listed may also cause balanitis, but are not as commonly isolated.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 54 - A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers are observed in the buccal region of her mouth.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Oral lichen planus is characterised by buccal white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers, causing discomfort while eating. Other conditions such as Sjögren’s syndrome, blocked Stensen’s duct, Behçet’s disease, and oral psoriasis may have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of buccal lesions.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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  • Question 55 - An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.

      A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.

      While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 56 - A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering her for a week. She reports experiencing a burning sensation and itchiness around her mouth. Despite using hydrocortisone cream, the rash has not improved significantly. On examination, you observe a bilateral perioral papular eruption consisting of 4-5 clusters of 1-2 mm papules with sparing of the vermillion border. What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Hydrocortisone is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s perioral dermatitis, as it is a milder steroid compared to other options. Stronger steroids can worsen the condition with prolonged use. While using only emollients is not unreasonable, it may not provide complete relief within a reasonable timeframe. It is also recommended to minimize the use of skin products. Fusidic acid is typically used for localized impetigo, but it is not suitable for this patient as there are no signs of golden-crusted lesions.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 57 - A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet that have persisted for the last two months. Upon examination, small blisters are observed, accompanied by dry and cracked skin in the surrounding area. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pompholyx

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 58 - A 72-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-week history of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-week history of an itchy rash. The rash appeared on the medial and anterior aspects of the thigh and the trunk. It consisted of numerous small fluid-filled vesicles and a number of larger lesions measuring 2-3 cm, filled with serous fluid. Many of the lesions have burst, leaving erosions.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Explanation:

      Common Blistering Skin Conditions: Causes and Symptoms

      Blisters on the skin can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique symptoms. Here are some common blistering skin conditions and their characteristics:

      1. Bullous pemphigoid: This autoimmune disorder results in blisters that are tense and do not rupture easily. They are usually symmetrical and appear on the trunk and limbs, with the mouth being affected in some cases.

      2. Dermatitis herpetiformis: This condition causes intensely itchy vesicles on the elbows, knees, and buttocks. It is associated with gluten intolerance and coeliac disease, and can be controlled by excluding gluten from the diet.

      3. Bullous impetigo: This superficial infection is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus spp. and results in a golden-crusted eruption on a red base. Occasionally, a toxin produced by the organism can cause a blister.

      4. Scabies: This condition causes itchy papules and burrows of the scabies mite on the finger webs, elbows, ankles, axillae, and genitalia. In rare cases, it can cause blistering. Norwegian (crusted) scabies is a severe form that occurs in immunosuppressed individuals.

      5. Vesicular insect bite eruption: Insect bites can occasionally result in tense blisters on a wheal at the site of the bite. They are usually short-lived and accompanied by itching.

      If you experience blistering skin, it is important to seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 59 - Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
      Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area

      Explanation:

      Management of Burn Injuries

      Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 60 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his face. He sustained a cut on his forehead while playing basketball. During the examination, it is observed that the redness is spreading towards his eye, and he has a temperature of 37.9ºC. The patient has no known allergies to any medication.

      What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of cellulitis around the eyes or nose, the recommended antibiotic is co-amoxiclav, which is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. This is because amoxicillin alone doesn’t provide sufficient coverage against the broad spectrum of bacteria that can cause facial cellulitis, which can lead to serious complications such as orbital involvement. Doxycycline is not the first-line medication for this condition, but may be considered if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Erythromycin is another option for penicillin-allergic patients, but it doesn’t offer the same broad coverage as co-amoxiclav.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 61 - An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks are affected as is the bridge of the nose. The erythema began in the paranasal areas and has spread to both cheeks rapidly. The affected area is bright red, firm, swollen and painful. The edge of the erythema is sharply defined and raised. She has been feeling hot and has been shivering. No other symptoms are reported.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erysipelas

      Erysipelas is a condition that is typically diagnosed based on clinical symptoms. It usually comes on suddenly and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever. The condition is commonly found on the lower limbs or the face, with facial involvement often manifesting as a butterfly distribution on the cheeks and nasal bridge. The affected skin is characterized by a sharp, well-defined raised border and is bright red, firm, and swollen. In severe cases, dimpling, blistering, and necrosis can occur. While cellulitis shares some clinical features with erysipelas, it doesn’t demonstrate the same clear swelling. Erysipelas is predominantly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Other conditions that can cause skin flushing and redness include carcinoid syndrome, mitral stenosis, rosacea, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Carcinoid syndrome is associated with neuroendocrine tumors that produce hormones, while mitral stenosis can cause a malar flush across the cheeks. Rosacea is a skin condition that affects the face and causes redness and blushing, while systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that can have multi-organ involvement and is characterized by a photosensitive malar butterfly rash.

      Overall, the sudden onset and associated fever make erysipelas the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of a dry, pruritic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of a dry, pruritic rash affecting the lower arms and thighs.

      What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patch testing to ascertain contact allergen

      Explanation:

      Asteatotic Eczema and Xerotic Skin in the Elderly

      Asteatotic eczema is a common problem that often affects the elderly population. This condition can be improved with the use of plain emollients. Xerotic skin is also common in the elderly, particularly during the winter months when central heating can cause dryness. While other treatments may be necessary for patients who do not respond to emollients, these moisturizers should be the first line of defense against asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin. By using emollients regularly, patients can help to keep their skin hydrated and healthy.

      Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common skin conditions in the elderly and to recommend appropriate treatments to help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. By addressing asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin early on, healthcare providers can help to prevent more serious complications from developing.

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  • Question 63 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

    She is known to...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

      She is known to suffer with chronic plaque psoriasis and in the past has suffered with extensive disease. On reviewing her notes she was recently started on a new tablet by her consultant psychiatrist.

      Which if the following tablets is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis Triggers and Medications

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by various factors. One of the triggers is a streptococcal infection, which can cause guttate psoriasis. Stress, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption are also known to be implicated in the development of psoriasis. In addition, certain medications have been identified as potential triggers, including lithium, indomethacin, chloroquine, NSAIDs, and beta-blockers. Among these medications, lithium is considered the most likely culprit. It is important for individuals with psoriasis to be aware of these triggers and to avoid them whenever possible to manage their condition effectively.

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  • Question 64 - You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a 40-year-old male. You note he was seen one week ago by a colleague who made a diagnosis of psoriasis on account of scaly, red patches on the scalp and elbows.

      He presents today to tell you that 'the rash has spread to the nails'. On examination, you note pitting and discoloration of the nails. He complains of pain and tenderness in the affected nails.

      What is the most appropriate option from the below to manage his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzydamine mouthwash

      Explanation:

      For managing the symptoms of oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash can be used as a locally-acting non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. In severe cases, systemic steroids or topical steroids can also be considered. It is important to note that sodium lauryl sulphate, a common ingredient in healthcare products, may be associated with aphthous ulceration in certain patients. Chlorhexidine and hydrogen peroxide mouthwashes are primarily used for oral hygiene and not for addressing oral discomfort.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his nose that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. Upon examination, you notice a raised, circular, flesh-colored lesion with a central depression. The edges of the lesion are rolled and contain some telangiectasia.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A basal cell carcinoma is a commonly observed type of skin cancer.

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.

      If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

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  • Question 66 - A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of 'pale skin' on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.

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  • Question 68 - Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has appeared over the past few weeks in both axillae. The rash is itchy but not painful, and Sophie is otherwise healthy.

      During the examination, you observe a lesion in both axillae that appears slightly red and glazed. Upon further examination, you discover another smaller lesion at the gluteal cleft. There are no joint abnormalities or nail changes.

      Based on your observations, you suspect that Sophie has flexural psoriasis. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence a moderately potent topical steroid for 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Flexural psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes itchy lesions in areas such as the groin, genital area, axillae, and other folds of the body. In this case, the erythema is mild and the lesions are not extensive, indicating a mild case of flexural psoriasis. According to NICE guidelines, a short-term application of a mild- or moderately-potent topical corticosteroid preparation (once or twice daily) for up to two weeks is recommended. Therefore, starting a potent topical steroid or using a mildly potent topical steroid for four weeks is not appropriate.

      To reduce scale and relieve itch, an emollient can be used. However, vitamin D analogues are not prescribed for flexural psoriasis in primary care. After four weeks, the patient should be reviewed. If there is a good initial response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids can be used to maintain disease control.

      If treatment fails or the psoriasis is at least moderately severe, referral to a dermatologist should be arranged.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 69 - You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of beclomethasone and calcipotriol was attempted but proved ineffective. Subsequently, calcipotriol monotherapy was prescribed twice daily, but this also failed to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is in his mid-thirties, presents with plaques measuring approximately 6-7 cm on his elbows and knees. According to NICE guidelines, what are the two most suitable options to discuss with him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beclomethasone twice a day OR a coal tar preparation

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash that started as circular lesions on his trunk and limbs and has now spread to his face, lips, and mouth. He also reports flu-like symptoms and headache. On examination, he has marked facial and lip swelling with crusty sores, blistering, and ulceration in the oral cavity, as well as an erythematous rash on the trunk with small vesicles and bullae. What medication is linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but known negative effect of lamotrigine treatment. This skin condition typically manifests within a few days of starting the medication and can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia. Painful erythema with blisters or ulcers is a hallmark of the syndrome, which can progress to areas of confluent erythema with skin loss. Mucosal involvement is also common, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, upper respiratory tract (causing cough and respiratory distress), genitalia, and gastrointestinal tract (resulting in diarrhoea).

      Other drugs, such as aspirin, macrolides, opiates, and cyclosporin, can also cause drug rashes. Exanthematous eruptions are a common type of drug rash, characterised by pink-to-red macules that blanch on pressure.

      Urticaria and erythema multiforme are other types of drug-related rashes. Aspirin and anticonvulsants are associated with erythema multiforme, which typically presents as spot or target lesions and doesn’t involve mucosal tissues.

      Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.

      Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 71 - A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He says that this is worse at night and after showering. On examination he has extensive scratch marks and papules on his trunk and limbs. In the finger web spaces and on the wrists are a few 0.5cm irregular grey lines. He has no previous medical history of note and takes no regular medication.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Scabies, Dermatitis Artefacta, Nodular Prurigo, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Pompholyx are all skin conditions with distinct symptoms and characteristics.

      Scabies is caused by a mite that burrows under the skin, causing intense itching and papules, vesicles, pustules, and nodules. The finger web space lines are mite burrows. It is acquired through person-to-person contact and can live off the host for up to 36 hours.

      Dermatitis Artefacta, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient produces lesions through their own actions. These lesions may include red patches, swelling, blisters, crusts, cuts, burns, and scars. They do not itch and may have a bizarre shape or linear arrangement.

      Nodular Prurigo is characterized by very itchy firm scaly nodules that occur mainly on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. They tend to persist over time and may lessen in severity with treatment.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris involves painful flaccid bullae and erosions that may be widespread and involve mucous membranes. It is not itchy.

      Finally, Pompholyx involves the hands and feet and is usually symmetrical. It is characterized by itching and burning, and vesiculation initially along the lateral aspects of the fingers and then on the palms or soles. Vesicles tend to resolve after about 3-4 weeks, but recurrences are common.

      Overall, these skin conditions have distinct symptoms and characteristics that can help with diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 72 - What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Locoid (hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%)

      Explanation:

      Topical Steroid Potencies: Understanding the Differences

      Topical steroids are commonly used in general practice to treat various skin conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the relative potencies of these medications to prescribe them safely and effectively.

      Dermovate is the most potent topical steroid, classified as very potent. Betnovate and hydrocortisone butyrate are both considered potent, while eumovate falls under the moderate potency category. Hydrocortisone 1% is classified as mild.

      To gain a better understanding of topical steroid potencies, the British National Formulary provides a helpful overview. By knowing the differences between these medications, healthcare professionals can prescribe the appropriate treatment for their patients’ skin conditions.

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  • Question 73 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash on her ears that has been present for 3 days. They have just returned from a trip to Mexico. The girl complains of itchiness and discomfort. She has not experienced any fever or respiratory symptoms recently. On examination, small blisters are observed on the helix of both ears, while the rest of her skin appears normal. The patient has no prior medical history.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile spring eruption

      Explanation:

      Juvenile spring eruption (JSE) is a skin condition that typically affects boys aged 5-14 years during the spring season. It is caused by sun exposure and appears as a blistering rash on the ears, causing discomfort and itchiness. The recent holiday to Tenerife suggests a possible risk factor for this condition. Treatment involves using emollients and antihistamines, and symptoms usually resolve within a week.

      The rash associated with Chickenpox starts as red macules that become raised, blister, and crust over time. It is often accompanied by cold-like symptoms and fever and tends to be more widespread, affecting the trunk and limbs. This rash typically lasts for 4-10 days. However, since the patient has a 2-day history of a blistering rash isolated to the ears, Chickenpox is an unlikely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s short history, the characteristic rash, and the absence of any relevant medical history, eczema is an unlikely possibility.

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis is a skin condition that is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly patients. It is characterized by small skin-colored nodules that typically appear on the helix of the ear.

      Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption

      Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.

      The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.

      The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.

      In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 74 - A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
      Which of the following statements about treatment of verrucas is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Untreated verrucas often resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Plantar Warts: A Guide

      Plantar warts, also known as verrucas, are notoriously difficult to treat due to their thick cornified layer. This layer makes it harder for treatments to penetrate to the lower epidermis, resulting in lower cure rates compared to other skin warts. However, there are several effective treatments available.

      First-line treatment for plantar warts is over-the-counter salicylic acid. While this treatment can turn the affected area white and cause soreness, it is often effective. Paring the wart before treatment may also help. Glutaraldehyde is another effective option, but it may turn the skin brown and cause sensitization.

      Cryotherapy is a second-line treatment that involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen. However, multiple cycles may be needed for it to be effective. Reported cure rates vary widely.

      For more aggressive treatment, salicylic acid and/or cryotherapy can be used with more intensive regimens. However, caution is needed as these treatments can have worse side effects.

      Surgery and bleomycin are not typically used for plantar warts. Instead, the British Association of Dermatologists recommends several other treatments with some evidence base, including dithranol, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), formaldehyde, laser, photodynamic therapy, topical immunotherapy, and podophyllotoxin.

      In conclusion, while plantar warts can be challenging to treat, there are several effective options available. Consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your individual case.

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  • Question 75 - A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check. While conducting the examination, you observe an 8 mm pigmented lesion on her back. She informs you that she had no knowledge of the lesion. The lesion has a uniform pigmentation and a regular outline. It is dry and inflamed, but appears distinct from all of her other moles on her back. She also mentions that her brother was recently diagnosed with melanoma.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor for eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This lesion on the patient’s skin may be a melanoma, and there are several clinical concerns that warrant urgent referral. Firstly, the lesion appears to be new and is greater than 7 mm in diameter. Additionally, there is a family history of melanoma, and the lesion is inflamed. It is important to be aware of the ugly duckling sign, which refers to a pigmented lesion that looks different from the surrounding ones.

      Given the patient’s age and family history, she is at high risk of melanoma and should be referred urgently to a dermatologist. It is important to note that excision in primary care should be avoided, as the guidance for excising lesions in primary care may differ depending on the country. Prompt referral and evaluation by a specialist is crucial in cases like this to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 76 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He is currently taking multiple medications.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his allergic reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Urticarial Eruption

      Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts. One of the most likely causes of an urticarial eruption is aspirin. However, other drugs are also frequently associated with this condition, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), penicillin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, thiazides, and codeine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urticaria to prevent further episodes and manage symptoms effectively.

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  • Question 77 - A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several whiteheads and blackheads, but no facial scarring. The patient expresses interest in treatment. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical retinoid

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild acne, the NICE guidance recommends starting with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide. This is particularly appropriate for boys. However, if the patient is female, a combined oral contraceptive may be prescribed instead of a retinoid due to the teratogenic effects of retinoids. Mild acne is characterized by the presence of blackheads, whiteheads, papules, and pustules. While scarring is unlikely, the condition can have a significant psychosocial impact. If topical retinoids and benzoyl peroxide are poorly tolerated, azelaic acid may be prescribed. Combined treatment is rarely necessary. Follow-up should be arranged after 6-8 weeks to assess the effectiveness and tolerability of treatment and the patient’s compliance.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 78 - A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left shin. It has appeared in the last 48 hours. His temperature is 38.5 °C. The left lower leg has evidence of varicose skin changes and excoriation.
      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Cellulitis: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Herpes Simplex Virus, Pseudomonas, and Varicella Zoster Virus

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection that is characterized by a red, tender area of skin associated with a fever. The most common pathogen causing cellulitis is streptococcus, which can enter the body through excoriated skin. Staphylococcus can also cause cellulitis, but it is less common than streptococcus. Herpes simplex virus typically causes cold sores or genital warts, and can be inoculated into abrasions, but this would produce a vesicular rash. Pseudomonas is not a common pathogen in cellulitis, but can occur following puncture wounds or in immunocompromised people. Varicella zoster virus causes Chickenpox and shingles, but neither of these descriptions are seen in cellulitis. Understanding the different causes of cellulitis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 79 - A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his summer vacation spent hiking. He displays several pale brown patches on his neck, upper back, and chest. The patches seem slightly flaky but are not causing any discomfort. He is generally healthy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by an overgrowth of Malassezia yeast, which commonly affects young males. It results in multiple patches of discolored skin, mainly on the trunk, which can appear pale brown, pink, or depigmented. The condition often occurs after exposure to humid, sunny environments.

      According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for pityriasis versicolor is either ketoconazole shampoo applied topically for five days or selenium sulphide shampoo for seven days (off-label indication). While topical antifungal creams like clotrimazole are effective, they are not typically used as first-line treatment unless the affected area is small due to their higher cost.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

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  • Question 80 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.

      During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.

      What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated

      Explanation:

      Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.

      It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

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  • Question 81 - You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders. He presents with papules and pustules accompanied by widespread inflammation. Additionally, he has nodules and scarring on his chin. After diagnosing him with moderate-severe acne, you decide to refer him to dermatology while initiating treatment. Your treatment plan includes prescribing a topical retinoid and an oral antibiotic. What is the first-line antibiotic for acne vulgaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines are the preferred oral antibiotics for treating moderate to severe acne vulgaris. This condition is a common reason for patients to visit their GP and can significantly impact their quality of life.

      To address this patient’s acne and scarring, it would be appropriate to initiate a topical treatment and prescribe an oral antibiotic. Referral to a dermatologist may also be necessary, but first-line treatment may be effective.

      Tetracyclines are the recommended first-line oral antibiotics for acne vulgaris. All tetracyclines are licensed for this indication, and there is no evidence to suggest that one is more effective than another. The choice of specific tetracycline should be based on individual preference and cost.

      Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are typically prescribed at a dose of 500 mg twice daily on an empty stomach. Doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once daily and can be taken with food, although doxycycline may cause photosensitivity.

      Minocycline is not recommended for acne treatment, and erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines if they are contraindicated. The usual dose for erythromycin is 500 mg twice daily.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 82 - A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair loss on her scalp that have developed in the last 3 months. You diagnose her with alopecia areata. Although you suggest a watch-and-wait approach, she is distressed by the condition and wishes to try treatment. What management options could you initiate in Primary Care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid

      Explanation:

      Patients with hair loss may experience natural recovery within a year, but those who do not see regrowth or have more than 50% hair loss may require further treatment.

      Understanding Alopecia Areata

      Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.

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  • Question 83 - A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 84 - A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of skin discoloration on their back. During the examination, you notice patchy areas of mild hypopigmentation that cover large portions of the back. Based on your observations, you suspect that the patient has pityriasis versicolor. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malassezia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for review. She has just returned from a summer holiday in Spain and has noticed some patches on her limbs that do not appear to have tanned. Otherwise the skin in these patches appears normal.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitiligo: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Vitiligo is a skin condition that results in the loss of melanocyte function, leading to areas of depigmentation on the skin. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder and is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. While it affects around 0.4% of the Caucasian population, it can be more distressing for those with darker skin tones. Symptoms include patches of skin that fail to tan, particularly during the summer months.

      Treatment options for vitiligo include using strong protection on affected areas and using potent topical corticosteroids for up to two months to stimulate repigmentation. However, these should not be used on the face or during pregnancy. Hospital referral may be necessary if more than 10% of the body is involved, and treatment may include topical calcineurin inhibitors or phototherapy.

      It is important to differentiate vitiligo from other skin conditions such as pityriasis versicolor, lichen sclerosus, psoriasis, and chloasma. Macules and patches are flat, while papules and plaques are raised. A lesion becomes a patch or a plaque when it is greater than 2 cm across.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for vitiligo can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 86 - A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques with clusters of small vesicles. These are present in a band on the left side of the body extending from the lower dorsal area of the back around the front of the abdomen but not crossing the midline. The rash has been present for 48 hours.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe for a patient presenting at this stage of the illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

      Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a viral infection that affects a specific dermatome. It is recommended to start antiviral treatment, such as aciclovir, within 72 hours of rash onset for individuals over 50 years old. Aciclovir has been shown to reduce the duration of symptoms and the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia. It is also indicated for those with ophthalmic herpes zoster, non-truncal rash, moderate to severe pain or rash, and immunocompromised individuals. Prednisolone may be added to aciclovir, but results are mixed. Pain relief can be achieved with co-codamol, but stronger medications may be necessary. Amitriptyline or gabapentin may be used for post-herpetic neuralgia. Antiviral treatment is not recommended for immunocompetent children with mild symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 87 - A 27-year-old male visits his GP after experiencing 3 episodes of prickling sensations...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male visits his GP after experiencing 3 episodes of prickling sensations in his left arm accompanied by involuntary jerking, lasting for a minute each time. He remains conscious during the episodes. The patient has a history of asthma and a nut allergy but is not taking any regular medications. After being referred to a neurologist, he is diagnosed with focal epilepsy and prescribed lamotrigine. What uncommon side effect should the patient be advised about, particularly in the initial 8 weeks of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine therapy is associated with a rare but acknowledged adverse effect.

      Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.

      Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 88 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloasma

      Explanation:

      Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.

      It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.

      Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 89 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid application

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.

      However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 90 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 91 - Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is given subcutaneously

      Explanation:

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 92 - Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso.

      You decide to treat with topical therapy.

      Which of the following formulations would be most appropriate for treating this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ointment

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Topical Treatment in Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on topical treatment for psoriasis. These guidelines take into account the patient’s preference and recommend the following:

      – For widespread psoriasis, use cream, lotion, or gel.
      – For scalp or hair-bearing areas, use a solution, lotion, or gel.
      – For thick adherent scale, use an ointment.

      It is important to note that these recommendations are not set in stone and may vary depending on the severity of the condition and the patient’s individual needs. Therefore, it is essential to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any treatment. By following these guidelines, patients can effectively manage their psoriasis symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 94 - A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with actinic keratoses on his left cheek and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with actinic keratoses on his left cheek and prescribed fluorouracil cream. Two weeks later he presents as the skin where he is applying treatment has become red and sore. On examination there is no sign of weeping or blistering. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue fluorouracil cream + review in 1 week

      Explanation:

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 95 - As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a...

    Incorrect

    • As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a consultation with a 75-year-old man who presented with an unsightly left hallux toenail. The nail was thickened and had a yellowish tinge, leading you to suspect a fungal toenail infection. After arranging nail scrapings and sending them off to the laboratory for analysis, the results have returned positive for Trichophyton rubrum. You call the patient to discuss the results and he is eager to know what treatment options are available.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine, taken once daily for 3-6 months

      Explanation:

      Fungal toenail infections caused by Trichophyton rubrum are challenging to treat and require extended courses of oral antifungal medication. Terbinafine is the preferred option and treatment usually lasts for 3-6 months. However, terbinafine can have harmful effects on the liver, so liver function tests should be conducted regularly during treatment. Oral itraconazole is another option, but it is typically used for fungal nail infections caused by yeasts and given as pulsed therapy. Topical creams are not effective for treating fungal toenail infections. In this case, the patient’s asymptomatic fungal toenail doesn’t require urgent surgical removal. A podiatrist referral may be considered if the patient has a high-risk foot or difficulty caring for their nails, but an urgent referral is not necessary.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 96 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
      What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.

      Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.

      Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.

      Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.

      Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 97 - Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about in Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)

      The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a commonly used tool to evaluate the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It consists of 10 questions, each scored out of 3, with a maximum score of 30. The higher the score, the more significant the impact on the patient’s quality of life. The DLQI covers six areas, including symptoms and feelings, daily activities, leisure, work and school, personal relationships, and treatment.

      The DLQI questions are designed to assess the level of discomfort, embarrassment, and interference with daily activities caused by the skin condition. Patients are asked to rate the severity of symptoms such as itchiness, soreness, and pain, as well as the impact on social and leisure activities, work or study, and personal relationships. The DLQI also evaluates the impact of treatment on the patient’s life.

      Interpreting the DLQI scores is straightforward. A score of 0-1 indicates no effect on the patient’s life, while a score of 2-5 suggests a small impact. A score of 6-10 indicates a moderate effect, while a score of 11-20 suggests a very large impact. A score of 21-30 indicates an extremely large impact on the patient’s life.

      In summary, the DLQI is a quick and easy tool to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It provides valuable information to healthcare professionals to tailor treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 98 - A woman who is 29 years old and 9 weeks pregnant visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 29 years old and 9 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of an eczematous rash on the flexures of her arms and neck, which has been present for 3 weeks and shows signs of excoriation.

      What could be the probable reason for the rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eruption of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The most commonly occurring skin disorder during pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy. This condition usually starts in the first or second trimester and is characterized by a widespread eczematous eruption on the face, neck, and flexural areas. The eruption can appear as eczematous patches or intact or excoriated papules. Other less common presentations include prurigo of pregnancy or pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy.

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune skin eruption that is associated with gluten sensitivity and is very itchy and vesicular. The lesions are typically found in the flexures of the elbow, dorsal forearms, knees, and buttocks. Immunofluorescence shows the deposition of IgA within the dermal papillae.

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy doesn’t cause a skin rash, but patients experience severe generalized pruritus mainly on the palms and soles. Excoriations may occur due to scratching.

      Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare condition that usually occurs later in pregnancy (second or third trimester) and is characterized by urticarial lesions or papules surrounding the umbilicus. Vesicles may also be present.

      Understanding Atopic Eruption of Pregnancy

      Atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP) is a prevalent skin condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that resembles eczema. Although it can be uncomfortable, AEP is not harmful to the mother or the baby. Fortunately, no specific treatment is required, and the rash usually disappears after delivery.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 99 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling constantly fatigued. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she reports having stiff joints, there is no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:

      Hb 12.5 g/dl
      Platelets 135 * 109/l
      WBC 3.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l

      Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
      TSH 1.30 mu/l
      CRP 8 mg/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: A Multisystem Autoimmune Disorder

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in women and individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, as well as a discoid rash that is scaly, erythematous, and well-demarcated in sun-exposed areas. Other skin symptoms may include photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia.

      Musculoskeletal symptoms of SLE may include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis, while cardiovascular symptoms may include pericarditis and myocarditis. Respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis, and renal symptoms may include proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, psychosis, and seizures. Overall, SLE is a complex and challenging condition that requires careful management and ongoing support.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 100 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his right heel. Upon removing the hard skin over the lesion with a scalpel, you notice some black pinpoint marks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral wart

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Conditions

      Verrucae, also known as plantar warts, are thickened lesions found on the feet that can fuse together to form mosaic patterns. Pinpoint petechiae may be present, appearing as small black dots. Heel fissures are another common condition, caused by dry, thickened skin around the rim of the heel that cracks under pressure. Calluses and corns are also responses to friction and pressure, resulting in thickened areas of skin on the hands and feet. However, it is important to differentiate these benign lesions from malignant melanoma, particularly acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur on the soles or palms and presents as an enlarging pigmented patch. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving) can help identify potential melanomas.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 101 - A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne. On physical examination, it is noted that the majority of the lesions are closed and open comedones with very few inflamed lesions. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adapalene

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Comedonal Acne

      Comedonal acne, characterized by blackheads and whiteheads, can be effectively treated with topical preparations. The first-line treatment is topical retinoids such as adapalene, tretinoin, or isotretinoin, followed by azelaic acid or benzoyl peroxide. While some initial redness and skin peeling may occur, this typically subsides over time. If excessive irritation occurs, treatment should be reduced or suspended until the reaction subsides. Adapalene is the preferred option due to its low irritation potential. Treatment should be applied once daily to all affected areas and continued until no new lesions appear. Topical retinoids are not recommended during pregnancy, and women of childbearing age should use effective contraception.

      Topical retinoids work by normalizing follicular keratinization, promoting comedone drainage, and inhibiting new comedone formation. They are also effective at treating inflammation by inhibiting microcomedone formation, as supported by evidence from placebo-controlled trials. In severe cases, manual extraction of sebum using a comedone extractor may be necessary, along with benzoyl peroxide for inflamed lesions. Topical antibiotics are ineffective against non-inflamed lesions, while systemic antibiotics are used for inflamed lesions and systemic retinoids for severe acne or treatment failures.

      Managing Comedonal Acne: Topical Treatment Options and Considerations

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 102 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has vesicular lesions on both hands, which are typical of bilateral pompholyx. The patient has been using Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%) for a week, but her symptoms have not improved. You decide to prescribe Betnovate (betamethasone valerate 0.1%) for two weeks and then review her condition. According to the BNF guidelines, what is the appropriate amount of Betnovate to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 g

      Explanation:

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.

      In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 103 - A 65-year-old female has been referred for management of a chronic ulcer above...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female has been referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:

      Right 0.98
      Left 0.98

      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the most suitable approach to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression bandaging

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 104 - Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 105 - A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points to a hard horn-like lesion sticking up from his left pinna for about 0.5 cm. It has a slightly indurated fleshy base.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Horns and the Risk of Squamous Cell Carcinoma

      Cutaneous horns are hard, keratin-based growths that often occur on sun-damaged skin. Farmers and other outdoor workers are particularly at risk due to their increased sun exposure. While most cutaneous horns are benign, doctors should be cautious as they can be a sign of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at the base of the lesion. SCCs can metastasize, especially if they occur on the ear, so urgent referral for removal is necessary if an SCC is suspected.

      Although most cutaneous horns are caused by viral warts or seborrheic keratosis, up to 20% of lesions can be a sign of premalignant actinic keratoses or frank malignancy. Therefore, it is important for doctors to carefully evaluate any cutaneous horn and consider the possibility of SCC. While current guidelines discourage GPs from excising lesions suspected to be SCCs, urgent referral for removal is necessary to prevent metastasis and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 106 - Which one of the following statements regarding acne vulgaris is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding acne vulgaris is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beyond the age of 25 years acne vulgaris is more common in males

      Explanation:

      Females over the age of 25 years are more prone to acne.

      Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. The condition is characterized by the blockage of the pilosebaceous follicle with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. It is estimated that around 80-90% of teenagers are affected by acne, with 60% of them seeking medical advice. Moreover, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old being affected.

      The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial, with several factors contributing to its development. One of the primary factors is follicular epidermal hyperproliferation, which leads to the formation of a keratin plug that obstructs the pilosebaceous follicle. Although androgen activity may control the sebaceous glands, levels are often normal in patients with acne. Another factor is the colonization of the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes, which contributes to the inflammatory response. Inflammation is also a significant factor in the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris, leading to the formation of papules, pustules, and nodules.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 107 - A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers

      Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.

      In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.

      To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 108 - You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past five days. Her mother reports her mouth looks more red and sore than usual. She also reports discomfort in her eyes.

      On examination, you note a widespread non-vesicular rash and cervical lymphadenopathy.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki Disease Treatment and Follow-Up

      Patients diagnosed with Kawasaki disease typically require hospitalization for treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and to monitor for potential myocardial events. Due to the risk of cardiac complications, follow-up echocardiograms are necessary to detect any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to note that Kawasaki disease is not a notifiable disease.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 109 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a number of large boil-like lesions that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a number of large boil-like lesions that have appeared on her back over the course of a few days. She is awaiting investigations by a gastroenterologist for diarrhoea and has been found to be anaemic. On examination three out of four lesions have broken down, leaving large ulcerated painful areas.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Pyoderma Gangrenosum, Impetigo, Ecthyma, Herpes Zoster, and Insect Bites

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a condition characterized by the sudden appearance of large ulcerating lesions that can progress rapidly. The lower legs are the most common site, and fever and malaise may be present. It can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, monoclonal gammopathy, myeloma, chronic active hepatitis, and rheumatoid arthritis. The lesions are caused by underlying small vessel thrombosis and vasculitis. Treatment involves systemic steroids.

      Impetigo is a condition where tiny pustules or vesicles rapidly evolve into honey-colored crusted plaques. Ecthyma is a deeper form of impetigo that causes deeper erosions of the skin.

      Herpes zoster is a painful eruption of vesicles on an erythematous base located in a single dermatome.

      Insect bites typically present as grouped itchy papules that arise in crops and may blister.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 110 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in his INR levels. He has been on Warfarin for a decade and has consistently maintained an INR reading between 2 and 3. However, his most recent blood test showed an INR of 6.2. He reports receiving a topical medication for a facial rash at a walk-in centre two weeks ago.
      What is the most probable treatment that led to the elevation in his INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mupirocin

      Explanation:

      Miconazole Oral Gel and Warfarin Interaction

      Miconazole oral gel, commonly known as Daktarin, is often used to treat candidal infections of the mouth and face. However, it can interact with the anticoagulant drug warfarin, which is metabolized by the CYP2C9 enzyme. Miconazole inhibits this enzyme, leading to increased levels of warfarin in the bloodstream and potentially causing bleeding. Other antimicrobial agents like Aciclovir, Clotrimazole, Fucidin, and Mupirocin can be used to treat infected rashes on the face, but they do not have significant interactions with warfarin. As a core competence of clinical management, safe prescribing and medicines management approaches should include awareness of common drug interactions, especially those that can affect patient safety when taking warfarin.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 111 - Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with onycholysis in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with onycholysis in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raynaud's disease

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis can be caused by Raynaud’s disease or any condition that affects blood flow.

      Understanding Onycholysis: Causes and Symptoms

      Onycholysis is a condition that occurs when the nail plate separates from the nail bed. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including trauma from excessive manicuring, fungal infections, skin diseases like psoriasis and dermatitis, impaired circulation in the extremities, and systemic diseases like hyper- and hypothyroidism. In some cases, the cause of onycholysis may be unknown, or idiopathic.

      Symptoms of onycholysis can include a visible gap between the nail plate and nail bed, as well as discoloration or thickening of the nail. In some cases, the affected nail may become brittle or break easily.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 112 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP due to sudden appearance of lesions on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP due to sudden appearance of lesions on her arms. She was convinced by her mother to attend the appointment as she was not interested in seeking medical attention. The patient is unable to provide a clear history of the lesions' progression. Her medical history includes mild asthma, depression, and generalised anxiety disorder.

      Upon examination, the patient has well-defined, linear skin lesions on both arms. The lesions do not appear to be dry or scaly but seem to be excoriated. There are no apparent signs of infection.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta

      Explanation:

      The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern or emotional response, known as ‘la belle indifference’, strongly suggests dermatitis artefacta or factitious dermatitis. This rare condition involves self-inflicted skin damage, and patients often deny their involvement. Treatment requires a collaborative approach between dermatologists and psychiatrists, with a focus on building a positive relationship with the patient. Other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, lichen planus, and neurotic excoriations have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with the scenario described.

      Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta

      Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.

      Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.

      Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.

      Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.

      In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 113 - A 29-year-old woman, Sarah, has been taking Microgynon-30 for 8 months as a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, Sarah, has been taking Microgynon-30 for 8 months as a form of birth control. She recently returned from a vacation in Thailand and has noticed the development of melasma on her face. Despite her busy work schedule, she has made time to visit her GP for advice on preventing further melasma after sun exposure. What recommendations should her GP provide to help Sarah?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change Microgynon-30 to Cerazette (desogestrel)

      Explanation:

      Switching from the combined contraceptive pill to a progesterone only pill can potentially decrease melasma, as it is believed that elevated levels of estrogen stimulate melanocytes. Given her irregular work schedule, Cerazette, which has a 12-hour usage window, may be a better option for her than norethisterone.

      Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition

      Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 114 - An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her hairline and nasolabial folds. She hasn't attempted any treatments yet, aside from using emollients. What is the best choice for topical management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate ®)

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Facial Psoriasis

      When it comes to treating facial psoriasis, it’s important to use the right topical treatments to avoid skin irritation and adverse effects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a mild or moderately potent steroid for two weeks, along with emollients. Calcipotriol can be used intermittently if topical corticosteroids aren’t effective enough. However, betamethasone, a potent steroid, should not be used on the face. Coal-tar solution is also not recommended for facial psoriasis. Tacrolimus ointment can be used intermittently if other treatments aren’t working. By using the appropriate topical treatments, patients can manage their facial psoriasis effectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 115 - A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison

      Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.

      Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.

      Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.

      Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.

      In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 116 - What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal purpura

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Rashes and Their Associated Conditions

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin rash that causes vesicles and intense itching. It is often linked to coeliac disease. Erythema chronicum migrans is a rash that appears as a red macule or papule and grows into an annular lesion. It is associated with Lyme disease, which is caused by a spirochaete infection. Erythema nodosum is a painful nodular rash that typically appears on the shins. If it is accompanied by arthritis of the ankles and wrists and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, it is indicative of acute sarcoidosis. Granuloma annulare is a benign condition that produces firm nodules that merge to form ring-shaped lesions. Finally, the non-blanching purpuric rash of meningococcal disease is not itchy.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 117 - An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiviral treatment

      Explanation:

      Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.

      Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.

      Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.

      Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 118 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful erythematous rash on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful erythematous rash on the right side of her chest. She reports experiencing a sharp burning pain on her chest wall 48 hours ago. Upon examination, vesicles are present and the rash doesn't extend beyond the midline. The patient is given antiviral medication and follow-up is scheduled.

      What is the primary benefit of administering antiviral therapy to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It reduces the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Antivirals can reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia in older people with shingles, but do not prevent the spread or recurrence of the condition. Analgesia should also be prescribed and bacterial superinfection is still possible.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 119 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with concerns about hair loss on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. She has a history of atopic eczema and has depigmented areas on her hands. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichotillomania

      Explanation:

      Co-Existence of Vitiligo and Alopecia Areata

      This girl is experiencing a combination of vitiligo and alopecia areata, two conditions that can co-exist and have a similar autoimmune cause. Alopecia areata is highly suggested by the presence of discrete areas of hair loss and normal texture on the scalp. These conditions can cause significant emotional distress and impact a person’s self-esteem.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 120 - A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on her upper limbs that have been getting larger since she first noticed them 3 weeks ago. You suspect vitiligo and want to start medication while she waits for her dermatology appointment. Which of the following medications should you consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potent topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      In the early stages of vitiligo, the use of potent topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in reversing the changes. However, it is important to note that medications such as topical tacrolimus or oral steroids should only be prescribed by a dermatologist. Oral tacrolimus and topical miconazole are not effective in managing vitiligo, unless a fungal infection is suspected.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 121 - A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump on the upper central forehead that extends into the hairline. The lump has multiple small pustular areas on the surface and is of recent onset. Additionally, there is hair loss from the affected area of the scalp. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kerion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kerion: An Inflammatory Mass Caused by Zoophilic Dermatophyte Fungal Infection

      Kerion is a rare form of tinea infection that results in an inflammatory mass caused by a zoophilic dermatophyte fungal infection. Unlike the more common anthropophilic dermatophytes that produce a mild, chronic inflammation, zoophilic dermatophytes of animal origin produce an intense inflammatory response. The scalp is most commonly affected by zoophilic organisms such as Microsporum canis from domestic pets or Trichophyton verrucosum from cattle and horses.

      Kerion is often misdiagnosed as a bacterial infection, and failure to diagnose it early can result in permanent alopecia in the affected areas. Symptoms may include enlarged regional lymph nodes, fever, and malaise. Definitive diagnosis is made by isolating the fungus from culture of hair and scalp scales, but fungal culture is often negative due to the difficulty in isolating the fungus. In such cases, treatment may be initiated based on clinical suspicion.

      Treatment for kerion involves oral antifungal agents such as terbinafine, itraconazole, or griseofulvin for at least six to eight weeks. Antibiotics may also be needed if there is a bacterial infection present. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for kerion is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this uncommon fungal infection.

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  • Question 122 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 123 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a skin examination. He has three small...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a skin examination. He has three small scaly pink growths on his forehead and two on his forearms. He reports having had these growths before and they were typically treated with cryotherapy. No other notable growths are observed.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment for this patient’s likely actinic keratoses is topical diclofenac. Other options include topical imiquimod and topical 5-fluorouracil, but they may cause skin irritation. Punch biopsies are not necessary in this case, as the lesions are typical for actinic keratosis and have been treated before. Referral to a dermatologist is not needed at this stage, but it should be considered if squamous cell carcinomas are suspected. Shave biopsies are not required either. Topical corticosteroids are not appropriate for Premalignant skin lesions.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

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  • Question 124 - A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the duty doctor. He reports experiencing severe chest pain on the right side, along with fever and malaise for the past three days. Upon examination, there are red papules and vesicles closely grouped on the affected area. No abnormalities are noted in his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological assessments.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over and prescribe a course of antivirals

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, which usually takes 5-7 days following onset of shingles. Therefore, a course of antiviral therapy should be prescribed to reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Analgesia should also be given to alleviate severe pain. Prescribing antibiotics or emollients would not be useful in this case.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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  • Question 125 - You see a 38-year-old woman being treated for a fungal infection of one...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 38-year-old woman being treated for a fungal infection of one of her great toenails. This was causing her discomfort with walking and so treatment was felt appropriate. Nail clippings confirmed a dermatophyte infection. She has been taking oral terbinafine for this for the last 3 months and is seen today for review.

      When the oral terbinafine was started a notch was filed at the base of the nail abnormality.

      On examination the abnormal nail has remained distal to the notch as the nail has grown out.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the terbinafine and add in a topical antifungal in combination

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Fungal Nail Infections

      Fungal nail infections may require extended periods of oral antifungal treatment. It is important to monitor the patient for any nail growth 3-6 months after treatment initiation. To aid in this monitoring process, consider filing a notch at the base of the most abnormal nail at the start of treatment. This notch can serve as a reference point for comparing old and new nail growth during follow-up appointments.

      If the abnormal nail remains distal to the notch as it grows out, no further treatment is necessary. However, if the abnormal nail moves proximal to the notch, this indicates that the infection is still present and further treatment is needed. By closely monitoring nail growth and responding appropriately, healthcare providers can effectively manage fungal nail infections.

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  • Question 126 - A 54-year-old female presents to you with a pigmented skin lesion. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female presents to you with a pigmented skin lesion. She has come in because she has noticed that the brown-coloured lesion has grown in size. She denies any inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.

      On examination, there is an 8 mm diameter lesion on her right leg. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend using a '7-point weighted checklist' in order to evaluate a pigmented skin lesion.

      What is the score of this patient's skin lesion using the 7-point checklist based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions

      NICE guidance on Suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions. This checklist includes major and minor features of lesions, with major features scoring 2 points each and minor features scoring 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3 and the clinician strongly suspects cancer.

      For example, if a patient has a pigmented skin lesion that has changed in size and has an irregular shape, they would score 2 points for each major feature. Additionally, if the lesion has a diameter of 8 mm or more, it would score a single point for a minor feature. Therefore, the overall score for this lesion would be 5, indicating that it is suspicious and requires further evaluation.

      It is important for clinicians to use this checklist when assessing pigmented skin lesions to ensure that potential cases of skin cancer are not missed.

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  • Question 127 - A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She...

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    • A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She has been taking co-cyprindiol for the past year. Her blood pressure and BMI are normal, she doesn't smoke, and has no personal or family history of stroke, venous thromboembolism, or migraine. She previously had acne but reports it has been clear for the past 4 months and wishes to continue on the same pill. She is in a committed relationship. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discontinue co-cyprindiol and change to standard combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The MHRA recommends discontinuing co-cyprindiol (Dianette) 3-4 cycles after acne has cleared due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It should not be used solely for contraception. However, the patient still requires contraception, and a combined pill may offer better contraceptive coverage than a progesterone-only pill, while also providing some benefit for her skin. Other contraceptive options should also be considered.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 128 - A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she appears to be in good health.

      What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

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  • Question 129 - A 16-year-old male is seen for a follow-up appointment six weeks after beginning...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is seen for a follow-up appointment six weeks after beginning an oral antibiotic for acne. He discontinued the medication two weeks ago due to a perceived change in his skin color, despite not being exposed to strong sunlight in the past six months. During the examination, there is a noticeable increase in skin pigmentation throughout his body, including the buttocks. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minocycline

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 130 - A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
    In...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
      In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60-69 years

      Explanation:

      Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK

      According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.

      Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.

      It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

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  • Question 131 - A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been using a topical gel containing benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin for the past 3 months but has not seen significant improvement.

      Upon examination, she has inflammatory papules and closed comedones on her forehead and chin, as well as some on her upper back. She is interested in a stronger medication and asks if she should continue using the gel alongside it.

      What advice should you give regarding her current topical treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change to topical benzoyl peroxide alone, or topical retinoid

      Explanation:

      To effectively treat acne, it is not recommended to use both topical and oral antibiotics together. Instead, the patient should switch to using either topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid alone. Continuing to use the current combination gel or switching to topical clindamycin or topical lymecycline alone are not recommended as they involve the use of both topical and oral antibiotics, which can lead to antibiotic resistance. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid with oral antibiotics is a more effective treatment option.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 132 - A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft. He reports no discharge from the lump. You suspect this to be a pilonidal sinus.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to general surgeons

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Pilonidal Sinus Disease

      A watch and wait approach is recommended for individuals with asymptomatic pilonidal sinus disease. It is important for patients to maintain good perianal hygiene through regular bathing or showering. However, there is no evidence to support the removal of buttock hair in these patients. If cellulitis is suspected, antibiotic treatment should be considered. Referral to a surgical team may be necessary if the pilonidal sinus is discharging or if an acute pilonidal abscess requires incision and drainage.

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  • Question 133 - A 25-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has been experiencing recurrent genital warts...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has been experiencing recurrent genital warts for the last 3 years and has not seen improvement with topical podophyllum. She previously underwent cryotherapy but is hesitant to do it again due to discomfort. During the exam, numerous fleshy genital warts are observed around her introitus. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical imiquimod

      Explanation:

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

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  • Question 134 - You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her leg and you prescribe topical Dermovate cream (Clobetasol propionate 0.05%) as part of her treatment plan. She asks you about the duration for which she can use this cream on her leg. What is the maximum duration recommended by NICE for the use of this type of corticosteroid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for the Use of Topical Corticosteroids

      According to NICE guidelines, it is not recommended to use highly potent corticosteroids continuously at any site for more than 4 weeks. The duration of use may vary depending on the potency of the steroid being used. It is important to note that it can be challenging to remember the potency of different steroid formulations based on their trade names. Therefore, it is advisable to have a reference handy. The Eczema Society provides a useful table of commonly used topical steroids.

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  • Question 135 - A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis can be caused by Porphyria cutanea tarda.

      Types of Alopecia and Their Causes

      Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.

      It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.

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  • Question 136 - You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnosed a 12-year-old patient with scabies recently. She reports finishing the treatment course of permethrin 5% cream 1 week ago but is still itching. She has not noticed new burrows. On further questioning, she appears to have followed the full two-week course as prescribed.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ivermectin 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies

      The itch of scabies can persist for up to 4 weeks after treatment. If no new burrows appear, monitoring the symptoms is reasonable. Malathion aqueous 0.5% is an alternative treatment for patients who cannot use permethrin or if the permethrin treatment fails. Oral ivermectin is a potential option for crusted scabies that doesn’t respond to topical treatment alone. It is important to note that there is no need to repeat permethrin treatment in this case, and there is no 10% formulation available. Remember to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 137 - A 54-year-old alcoholic man presents with a 5-month history of a painless non-healing...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old alcoholic man presents with a 5-month history of a painless non-healing ulcer on the underside of his penis. On examination, there is a 1 cm × 1 cm deep, ulcerated lesion of the ventral aspect of the glans penis on retraction of the foreskin. There is no associated discharge or lymphadenopathy.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penile cancer

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Penile Cancer from Other Conditions

      Penile cancer is characterized by a non-healing painless ulcer that persists for at least six months. The lesion may present as a lump, ulcer, erythematous lesion, or bleeding or discharge from a concealed lesion. The most common locations for tumors are the glans and prepuce. On the other hand, herpes simplex is recurrent and manifests as painful grouped vesicles that rupture, crust, and heal within ten days. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease caused by certain strains of Chlamydia trachomatis, which presents as a painless penile or anal papule or shallow ulcer/erosion and painful and swollen regional lymph glands. Poor hygiene may contribute to balanitis, which presents with painful sores and discharge. Finally, primary syphilis presents as a small, firm, red, painless papule that ulcerates and heals within 4-8 weeks without treatment, which is not consistent with the 4-month history and deep ulcerated lesion described in this case. Therefore, it is crucial to distinguish penile cancer from other conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 138 - A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist to prescribe a very potent topical corticosteroid for her.
      Select from the list the single suitable preparation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate®)

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Lichen Sclerosus with Topical Corticosteroids

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the genital and anal areas. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of topical corticosteroids. The potency of the corticosteroid used is determined by the formulation and the type of corticosteroid. Mild, moderate, potent, and very potent corticosteroids are available for use.

      The most effective treatment for lichen sclerosus is the very potent topical corticosteroid clobetasol propionate. The recommended regimen for a newly diagnosed case is to apply clobetasol propionate once a night for 4 weeks, then on alternate nights for 4 weeks, and finally twice weekly for the third month. If symptoms return during the reduction of treatment, the frequency that was effective should be resumed.

      Other topical corticosteroids such as mometasone furoate and pimecrolimus have also been shown to be effective in treating genital lichen sclerosus. However, clobetasol propionate has been demonstrated to be more effective than pimecrolimus.

      It is important to note that while treatment with topical corticosteroids can resolve hyperkeratosis, ecchymoses, fissuring, and erosions, atrophy and color change may remain. Maintenance with less frequent use of a very potent corticosteroid or a weaker steroid may be necessary.

      Topical Corticosteroids for Lichen Sclerosus Treatment

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  • Question 139 - A seven-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother, who reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother, who reports a persistent eczema patch on his right cheek that has worsened despite his regular use of emollient and topical hydrocortisone treatment. The patch has become excruciatingly painful overnight and has spread to his chin. The boy has had eczema since he was a baby but is otherwise healthy.

      During the examination, the GP observes a dry, reddish skin patch on the right cheek and a larger, more inflamed patch on the left that extends to the chin. The area is warm and tender to the touch. The patient's vital signs are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Same-day referral to paediatrics

      Explanation:

      When a child presents with rapidly worsening and painful eczema that is not responding to usual treatment, it may be an early sign of eczema herpeticum. This is a medical emergency that requires urgent assessment and treatment with antivirals to prevent systemic complications. Therefore, the most appropriate action is same-day referral to paediatrics. Oral aciclovir, oral flucloxacillin, and topical clobetasol are not the most appropriate actions in this case. Mild cases may respond to oral antivirals, but a thorough assessment is necessary, and IV antiviral treatment may be required for facial involvement. Definitive treatment for eczema herpeticum is antivirals, not antibiotics or topical steroids.

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children who have atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The affected area usually shows monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions with a diameter of 1-3 mm.

      Due to its life-threatening potential, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted for intravenous aciclovir treatment.

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  • Question 140 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a severely itchy rash that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a severely itchy rash that has been present for the past 3 weeks. She had been prescribed quinine for night cramps prior to the onset of the rash. The rash initially appeared on her wrists but has since spread to her left leg after she accidentally hit it.

      During the examination, you observe raised erythematous/violaceous plaques of varying shapes and sizes on the flexor side of her wrists and left leg near the site of injury.

      Which of the following treatment options would be the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.1% betamethasone valerate cream

      Explanation:

      Betamethasone valerate cream may not be the most suitable option as it is a lower potency steroid cream.

      While calcipotriol/betamethasone dipropionate ointment is commonly used to treat psoriasis, it may not be the most likely diagnosis in this case as psoriasis typically affects the extensor surfaces and doesn’t usually cause severe itching.

      Although fexofenadine can provide relief for itching, it is not typically the first choice of treatment.

      Permethrin is not used to treat lichen planus, as it is primarily used to treat scabies.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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  • Question 141 - A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings

      When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.

      The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 142 - You encounter a 35 year old woman during her routine medication review. She...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 35 year old woman during her routine medication review. She has chronic plaque psoriasis on her trunk and her repeat prescription includes emollients, a topical coal-tar preparation, and a potent topical steroid cream for use during flare-ups. What guidance should you provide her regarding self-care with potent topical steroids for her psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should not be used continuously on the same site for longer than 8 weeks; aim for at least 4 weeks break between courses

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, it is not recommended to use potent topical steroids for psoriasis on the same area for more than 8 weeks without a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. For very potent topical steroids, continuous use should not exceed 4 weeks, and patients should aim for a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. Prolonged use can lead to irreversible skin atrophy and striae, systemic steroid side effects, or destabilization of psoriasis. To maintain control when not using topical steroids, other topical therapies such as coal tar or vitamin D analogues can be used.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 143 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and comedones. Her weight and periods are both normal. Identify the probable cause from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacteria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acne in Women: Causes and Treatments

      Acne is not just a teenage problem, especially for women. There are several factors that contribute to its development, including genetics, seborrhoea, sensitivity to androgen, P. acnes bacteria, blocked hair follicles, and immune system response. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a less common cause of acne. Treatment options target these underlying causes, with combined oral contraceptives being a popular choice. Contrary to popular belief, diet and hygiene do not play a significant role in acne. The black color of blackheads is due to pigment in the hair follicle material. Understanding the causes and treatments of acne can help women manage this common skin condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 144 - You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for...

    Incorrect

    • You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for one of their residents which has confirmed the presence of Trichophyton rubrum. The patient is an 80-year-old woman with vascular dementia, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, and ischaemic heart disease.

      The nail clippings had been sent because of dystrophy of the left hallux nail and 2nd toenail on one foot. You decide that topical treatment would be more appropriate than oral treatment to reduce the risk of side effects and issue a prescription for topical amorolfine. You advise the nurse this should be applied twice a week, and that her nails should be clipped short regularly.

      What other advice should you give regarding the treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment may need to be continued for up to a year

      Explanation:

      Topical treatment for fungal toenail infection may require a duration of up to 12 months. Patients should be advised to wear clean socks and shoes made of breathable fabrics like cotton, instead of synthetic fabric. Terbinafine, an oral antifungal, may cause taste disturbance as a known side effect. It is important to inform patients that the treatment course for fungal toenail infection may last for 3-6 months for oral antifungal treatment and 9-12 months for topical amorolfine. Some Clinical Commissioning Groups may require patients to purchase their own treatments for minor ailments that are available without a prescription.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 145 - A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the pulp of the left first finger and bleeds easily. There was a history of trauma to that digit 2 weeks previously. Examination showed a pedunculated vascular lesion measuring 10 mm in diameter.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Rapidly Growing Tumor Following Trauma: Pyogenic Granuloma

      A rapidly growing tumor following trauma is most likely a pyogenic granuloma. While amelanotic melanoma can occur on the digits, the rate of growth would not be as rapid. The other lesions in the options are not vascular in appearance. Treatment for pyogenic granuloma would be a shave biopsy and cautery to the base, as excision biopsy may be difficult. A specimen can be sent for histology to ensure it is not an amelanotic melanoma. Recurrence is common and lesions will eventually atrophy, but only a minority will spontaneously involute within six months. A GP minor surgeon can deal with pyogenic granuloma.

      Another condition that may occur at the base of the nail is a myxoid cyst. This small cyst contains a gelatinous clear material that may be extruded from time to time. Pressure on the growing nail plate may produce nail deformity. These cysts may communicate with an osteoarthritic distal interphalangeal joint.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 146 - A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with his daughter, who has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with his daughter, who has noticed an ulcer on his left ankle. He is uncertain about how long it has been there. The patient has a history of ischaemic heart disease and prostatism. He reports experiencing significant pain from the ulcer, especially at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes a punched-out ulcer on his foot with pallor surrounding the area.

      What type of ulcer is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial

      Explanation:

      Types of Leg Ulcers and Their Characteristics

      Leg ulcers can be caused by various factors, and each type has its own distinct characteristics. Here are some of the common types of leg ulcers and their features:

      Arterial Ulcers: These ulcers are usually found on the feet, heels, or toes. They are painful, especially when the legs are at rest and elevated. The borders of the ulcer have a punched-out appearance, and the feet may appear cold, white, or bluish.

      Neurotrophic Ulcers: These ulcers have a deep sinus and are often located under calluses or over pressure points. They are painless, and the surrounding area may have diminished or absent sensation.

      Malignant Ulcers: Ulcers that do not respond to treatment may be a sign of malignant ulceration, such as squamous cell carcinoma.

      Vasculitic Ulcers: Systemic vasculitis can cause multiple leg ulcers that are necrotic and deep. There may be other vasculitic lesions elsewhere, such as nail-fold infarcts and splinter hemorrhages.

      Venous Ulcers: These ulcers are located below the knee, often on the inner part of the ankle. They are relatively painless but may be associated with aching, swollen lower legs. They are surrounded by venous eczema and may be associated with lipodermatosclerosis. There may also be atrophie blanche and localised hyperpigmentation.

      In conclusion, identifying the type of leg ulcer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 147 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of using phenytoin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      Hirsutism is a known side effect of phenytoin, while alopecia is not commonly associated with it.

      Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin

      Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.

      Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.

      Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.

      It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

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  • Question 148 - A 23 year old female comes to you seeking treatment for her moderate...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female comes to you seeking treatment for her moderate acne. She has attempted using benzoyl peroxide from the drugstore. She discloses that she is presently attempting to get pregnant. Which of the subsequent acne treatments would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy poses a challenge when it comes to treating acne as many treatments can be harmful to the developing foetus. It is important to consider this issue before starting any treatment, especially in women of childbearing age who may not yet know they are pregnant.

      Retinoids, such as isotretinoin and adapalene, are not safe for use during pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Dianette, a contraceptive pill, is not suitable for this patient who is trying to conceive. Antibiotics like oxytetracycline, tetracycline, lymecycline, and doxycycline can accumulate in growing bones and teeth, making them unsuitable for use during pregnancy. Erythromycin, on the other hand, is considered safe for use during pregnancy.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 149 - A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe pruritus. During examination, he has excoriations on his trunk and limbs. There is some scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies infestation

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions and Diseases: Differential Diagnosis for Pruritus and Rash

      When a patient presents with pruritus and a rash, it is important for doctors to consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases. One common cause of such symptoms is scabies infestation, which can be identified by a scaly rash on the hands with burrows and scaling in the web spaces. However, the rash in scabies is nonspecific and can be mistaken for eczema, so doctors must maintain a high index of suspicion and consider scabies as a diagnosis until proven otherwise.

      Other skin conditions and diseases that may cause pruritus and rash include diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. Diabetes is associated with several skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum and acanthosis nigricans, but typically doesn’t present with pruritus and rash. Atopic eczema can lead to pruritus and rash, but patients with this condition usually have a long history of eczematous lesions elsewhere on their body. Chronic renal failure may cause pruritus due to uraemia, but rarely results in a skin rash. Iron deficiency anaemia may cause itching and pruritus, but doesn’t typically cause a skin rash.

      In summary, when a patient presents with pruritus and rash, doctors must consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases, including scabies infestation, diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately identify the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 150 - A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption on the left side of his chest with a few smaller patches nearby. He believes it started about a year ago. The edge of the lesion looks a bit more inflamed than the central parts. It is itchy. Your colleague gave him topical steroids, and he thinks there may have been some improvement, but it never went away and worsened on stopping the treatment.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinea corporis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Epidermal Conditions: Distinguishing Features and Diagnosis

      When it comes to epidermal conditions, eczema and psoriasis are often the first to come to mind. However, there are other conditions that produce scale and have distinct features that set them apart. One such condition is ringworm, which is characterized by asymmetrical lesions with an active scaly edge and central clearing. To diagnose ringworm, skin scrapings should be taken and sent for fungal analysis, as it is often caused by the dermatophyte Trichophyton rubrum.

      It is important to note that treating a potential tinea infection with potent steroids can alter the appearance of the lesion and even produce pustules. Therefore, it is crucial to have a negative skin scraping before using strong steroids. Additionally, tinea infections may also be present on the feet with nail involvement.

      Other epidermal conditions, such as pityriasis rosea and pityriasis versicolor, have their own distinct features. Pityriasis rosea begins with a herald patch followed by smaller oval red scaly patches mainly on the chest and back. Pityriasis versicolor, on the other hand, affects the trunk, neck, and/or arms and is caused by a yeast infection rather than a dermatophyte infection.

      In summary, understanding the distinguishing features and proper diagnosis of different epidermal conditions is crucial in providing effective treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 151 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and was started on phenytoin three weeks ago. One week ago, he developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. On examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. His blood results show:

      - Na+ 144 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      - Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      - Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 121 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.

      Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

      In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 152 - A 25-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns about recurrent painful lumps...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns about recurrent painful lumps and boils in his axilla and groin area for several months. He has previously been diagnosed with hidradenitis suppurativa by a dermatologist.

      During the examination, you observe multiple small, painful nodules in the axilla and groin region. The patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute, and his tympanic temperature is 36.5 oC.

      Based on your assessment, you suspect recurrent hidradenitis suppurativa. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence the patient on topical clindamycin for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Hidradenitis suppurativa can be managed with long-term use of topical or oral antibiotics, which can be prescribed by primary care physicians. The British Association of Dermatologists recommends starting with topical clindamycin or oral doxycycline or lymecycline. Another option is a combination of clindamycin and rifampicin. Topical steroids are not effective for this condition, but oral or intra-lesional steroids may be used during severe flares. The effectiveness of topical retinoids is uncertain, and surgery is only considered if medical treatments fail. Emollients are not likely to be helpful in managing this condition.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 153 - John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m²...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m² who has presented with a recurrence of boils in his axilla. He has had this numerous times before requiring antibiotics and has even had an incision and drainage on one occasion. He also described one episode of such boils on his vulva a few years ago. On this occasion, you notice large red lumps in his right axilla. There is some scarring of the skin and you also notice a little hole with pus discharging out of it.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      The development of sinus tracts and fistulas can be a possible complication of hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 154 - A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern about her facial acne. She has a combination of comedones and pustules, but no significant scarring. Despite using a topical retinoid, she is hesitant to try another oral antibiotic after experiencing no improvement with three months of lymecycline. She has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, her blood pressure is normal, and her cervical screening is up to date. She is interested in exploring hormonal treatments for her acne. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microgynon

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate acne that doesn’t respond to topical treatments, it may be appropriate to add an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline for up to three months. If there is no improvement, the acne worsens, or the patient cannot tolerate side effects, a different antibiotic can be tried. However, if the patient doesn’t want to try a different antibiotic, combined oral contraceptives can be considered as long as there are no contraindications. Second or third-generation combined oral contraceptives are typically preferred, such as Microgynon. It is important to note that Cerelle, a progesterone-only contraceptive, can worsen acne due to its androgenic activity. Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is a second-line contraceptive option for moderate to severe acne, but it comes with an increased risk of VTE and should only be used after careful discussion of the risks and benefits with the patient. It should be discontinued three months after acne has been controlled. Similarly, Cerazette is not a suitable option due to its androgenic activity.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 155 - A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in his groin area. You decide to send skin scrapings for testing, but in the meantime, you believe it is appropriate to start him on an oral antifungal based on your clinical assessment and judgement. He has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral Antifungal Treatment for Severe Fungal Disease

      Oral antifungal treatment may be necessary for adults with severe or extensive fungal disease. In some cases, treatment can begin before mycology results are obtained, based on clinical judgement. Terbinafine is the preferred first-line treatment for oral antifungal therapy in primary care. However, if terbinafine is not tolerated or contraindicated, oral itraconazole or oral griseofulvin may be used as alternatives. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent the spread of fungal infections.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 156 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, scaly rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, scaly rash that has been gradually developing over the past few months. He has no significant medical history except for a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder. Upon examination, the patient has several indistinct, pink patches with yellow/brown scales. The affected areas are primarily located on the sternum, eyebrows, and nasal bridge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common cause of an itchy rash on the face and scalp, with a typical distribution pattern. Unlike atopic dermatitis, which affects flexural areas, seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by scales. Pityriasis rosea, on the other hand, presents with a herald patch on the trunk, followed by scaly patches that form a fir-tree pattern.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.

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  • Question 157 - A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for a lesion on his forearm. The lesion began as a small red bump and has since progressed into a deep, red, necrotic ulcer with a violaceous border. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics

      Shin lesions can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is commonly caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum starts as a small red papule and later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases but may also be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      Understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristics of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 158 - A 39-year-old lady presents with a mild cellulitis of the hand. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old lady presents with a mild cellulitis of the hand. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. A finger prick blood glucose test shows a reading of 4.5 mmol/l. There are no complications and she appears to be in good health. You decide to prescribe flucloxacillin 500 mg qds. As per NICE guidelines, what is the standard duration for this course of antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 to 14 days

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Cellulitis and Erysipelas Treatment

      NICE has recently updated its guidance on the treatment of cellulitis and erysipelas with NG141. According to the new guidelines, Flucloxacillin 500mg qds is the first choice treatment for people over the age of 18. The recommended course of treatment is an oral course for 5 to 7 days. However, if a person is severely unwell or unable to take oral medication, a twice daily course of the intravenous antibiotic may be necessary. Based on clinical assessment, a longer course of up to 14 days may be needed. It is important to note that skin takes time to return to normal, and full resolution at 5 to 7 days is not expected.

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  • Question 159 - A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination, you observe several pustules, nodules, and some scarring. The patient expresses a desire for treatment as her acne is affecting her mood. While waiting for a dermatology referral, what initial treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral antibiotic in combination with topical Benzoyl Peroxide

      Explanation:

      Severe acne is characterized by the presence of nodules, cysts, and a high risk of scarring. It is recommended to refer patients with severe acne for specialist assessment and treatment, which may include oral isotretinoin. In the meantime, a combination of oral antibiotics and topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed.

      Topical antibiotics should be avoided when using oral antibiotics. Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, or lymecycline are the first-line antibiotic options, while erythromycin can be used as an alternative. Minocycline is not recommended.

      It is not recommended to prescribe antibiotics alone or to combine a topical and oral antibiotic. Women who require contraception can be prescribed a combined oral contraceptive (COC), with a standard COC being suitable for most women. Co-cyprindiol (Dianette®) should only be considered when other treatments have failed and should be discontinued after three to four menstrual cycles once the acne has resolved.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 160 - A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on his genitals and palms. He has also observed the rash around the area of a recent scar on his forearm. Upon examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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  • Question 161 - A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from the list the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of discoid eczema rather than psoriasis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marked pruritus

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Discoid Eczema and Psoriasis

      Discoid eczema is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped plaques that are well-defined and often occur on the extremities, especially the legs. Lesions may also appear on the arms, trunk, hands, or feet, but not on the face or scalp. The plaques are intensely itchy and may clear in the center, resembling tinea corporis. An exudative form of the condition also exists, which is vesiculated.

      On the other hand, psoriasis is a skin condition that often affects the extensor surfaces, particularly at the elbows and knees. The scalp is also commonly involved. The scale is thick and silvery, and there may be nail changes, such as pitting. Itching may occur, but it is less severe than in discoid eczema.

      In summary, while both conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as itching and skin lesions, they have distinct differences in terms of their location, appearance, and severity of itching. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 162 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

      Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.

      For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.

      For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.

      Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations

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  • Question 163 - When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations...

    Incorrect

    • When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.

      The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 164 - What is true about malignant melanoma in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about malignant melanoma in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignant transformation in common moles is about 1:10,000

      Explanation:

      Malignant Melanoma: Types, Incidence, and Demographics

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur not only on the skin but also on mucosal surfaces such as the subungual, buccal, and anal areas. While most cases of melanoma occur on the trunk or legs, it can also present in other areas. The incidence of malignant melanoma has been rapidly increasing in white populations worldwide, with a threefold increase in Great Britain from 1971 to 1996.

      Amelanotic malignant melanoma is a type of melanoma that lacks pigment and is often associated with metastasis to the skin. It is believed that more than 50% of cases arise without a pre-existing pigmented lesion. Tumour size is only one of the criteria used in the 2009 AJCC Melanoma Staging and Classification.

      According to Cancer Research UK, the demographics of malignant melanoma in the UK show that it is more common in females than males and is most frequently diagnosed in people aged 65-69. It is also more common in affluent areas and in those with fair skin, light hair, and blue or green eyes. Regular skin checks and sun protection are important in preventing and detecting malignant melanoma.

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  • Question 165 - You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a rash that came on about two weeks ago.

      She tells you that it started with some 'itchy red lumps around the belly-button' and has progressed. She has an itchy blistering rash that is most prominent around her umbilicus, but over the last few days has spread to the surrounding trunk, back and proximal limbs.

      You note a few tense, fluid-filled blisters. The rash appears slightly raised and plaque-like. Her head, face, hands and feet are spared; her mouth and mucous membranes are also unaffected. She is systemically well.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are specific dermatological conditions that should be considered when assessing a skin complaint. However, it is important to note that pregnancy doesn’t exclude the usual causes of rashes, and infectious causes must also be considered as they may pose a risk to the developing fetus.

      One such condition is pemphigoid gestationis (PG), an autoimmune blistering condition that causes fluid-filled blisters on an itchy rash, typically starting around the umbilicus. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines are used for milder cases, while oral steroids may be necessary for more severe disease.

      Cholestasis of pregnancy causes generalised pruritus, particularly affecting the palms and soles, and is typically seen in the latter half of pregnancy. Symptoms resolve after delivery, but recurrence occurs in up to 40% of pregnancies. Abnormal liver function tests are also seen.

      Parvovirus, although uncommon in pregnancy, can cause serious fetal complications, including hydrops, growth retardation, anaemia, and hepatomegaly. It typically causes a slapped cheek rash followed by a lace-pattern rash on the limbs and trunk. Approximately 1 in 10 of those affected in the first half of pregnancy will miscarry, and in the remainder, there is a 1% risk of congenital abnormality.

      Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, also known as pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), is characterised by an itchy rash of pink papules that occurs in the stretch marks of the abdomen in the third trimester. It clears with delivery and is thought to be related to an allergy to the stretch marks.

      Varicella can cause a vesicular rash, but the description of tense blisters in combination with the rash distribution and other features are typical of PG.

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  • Question 166 - A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on both cheeks. Milder patches are also to be found on the limbs and trunk. The limbs are predominantly affected in the flexures. The child has been scratching and has disturbed sleep because of the itch.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Atopic Eczema, Impetigo, Acute Urticaria, Psoriasis, and Scabies

      When examining a child with skin complaints, it is important to distinguish between different skin conditions. Atopic eczema is a common cause of skin complaints in young children, presenting with poorly demarcated erythematous lesions, scale, and crusting. It typically affects the face in young children and only starts to predominate in the flexures at an older age.

      Impetigo, on the other hand, would cause lesions in a less widespread area and present with a yellow/golden crust. Acute urticaria would cause several raised smooth lesions that appear rapidly, without crust or scale. Psoriasis produces well-demarcated lesions, which are not seen in atopic eczema.

      Scabies would normally produce a more widespread rash with papules and excoriation, and sometimes visible burrows. It would not produce the scaled crusted lesions described in atopic eczema. By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

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  • Question 167 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a mild rash on her face. She reports that the rash is highly sensitive to sunlight and has been wearing hats for protection. The patient is six months postpartum and has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, an erythematous rash with superficial pustules is observed on the forehead, nose, and cheeks.

      What is the most effective treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that commonly affects fair-skinned individuals over the age of 30, with symptoms appearing on the nose, cheeks, and forehead. Flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia can progress to papules and pustules. Exacerbating factors include sunlight, pregnancy, certain drugs, and food. For mild to moderate cases, NICE recommends metronidazole as a first-line treatment, with other topical agents such as brimonidine, oxymetazoline, benzoyl peroxide, and tretinoin also being effective. Systemic antibiotics like erythromycin and tetracycline can be used for moderate to severe cases. Camouflage creams and sunscreen can help manage symptoms, but do not treat the underlying condition. Steroid creams are not recommended for acne rosacea, while topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used for other skin conditions like seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, and vitiligo.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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  • Question 168 - A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical mupirocin

      Explanation:

      In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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  • Question 169 - A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and toes, along with scaling of the skin between her toes. Despite completing a 4-week course of topical imidazole, her symptoms have not improved since her initial presentation 4 weeks ago, which confirmed athlete's foot through a positive culture of skin scrapings. What is the recommended treatment at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      If the initial topical treatment for athlete’s foot is unsuccessful, it is recommended to use oral antifungal treatment. Continuing with topical treatment is not the best approach, and referring the patient to a dermatologist is another option. Topical corticosteroids should only be used in cases of severe inflammation and irritation to alleviate symptoms. Flucloxacillin, being an antibiotic, is not appropriate for this condition.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

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  • Question 170 - A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on her face, chest, and shoulders. The inflammation, papules, and pustules are widespread and causing her significant pain, even waking her from sleep. She had been receiving treatment from dermatology but stopped when she began trying to conceive. Her next appointment is not for another 6 weeks. To improve her quality of life, you decide to initiate oral antibiotic therapy. Which antibiotic would be the most appropriate for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, and in this case, the patient has moderate to severe acne. Treatment with an oral antibiotic is recommended, and a referral to a dermatologist has already been scheduled.

      Tetracyclines are typically the first-line treatment for acne vulgaris, but they are contraindicated in pregnant women. This patient is pregnant, so an alternative antibiotic is needed. Oral tetracyclines should also be avoided in breastfeeding women and children under 12 years old due to the risk of deposition in developing teeth and bones.

      Erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines for the treatment of acne vulgaris in pregnancy. The usual dose is 500 mg twice a day. Some specialists may use trimethoprim, but it is unlicensed for this indication. Women of childbearing age should use effective contraception, especially if using a topical retinoid concomitantly.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 171 - You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number...

    Incorrect

    • You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.

      Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.

      What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.

      It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.

      In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.

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  • Question 172 - A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South America. He complains of a lesion on his lower lip that has been ulcerating for the past 2 months. Upon examination, it is found that his nasal and oral mucosae are also affected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      Leishmaniasis is the probable diagnosis for this patient, as the presence of a primary skin lesion accompanied by mucosal involvement is a typical indication of infection with Leishmania brasiliensis.

      Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites

      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

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  • Question 173 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has a vivid red rash on her nose and cheeks. The patient complains that consuming alcohol exacerbates her rash, causing her great embarrassment. She also reports experiencing occasional pustules.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest acne rosacea, which is characterized by flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks, and forehead, as well as the presence of papules and pustules. This condition is known to worsen with alcohol consumption. In contrast, acne vulgaris typically presents with comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and/or cysts, and is less erythematous than rosacea. Erythema ab igne, on the other hand, is caused by exposure to high levels of heat or infra-red radiation, while psoriasis is characterized by a silver-scaly rash that typically appears on the knees and elbows. Although the patient’s symptoms could be mistaken for a butterfly rash, there is no evidence to suggest lupus.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 174 - A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a persistent cough. He reports no other health concerns and is not taking any regular medications. During the consultation, he requests a brief examination of his toenail, which has recently changed in appearance without any known cause. Specifically, the nail on his right big toe is thickened and yellowed at the outer edge. Although he experiences no discomfort or other symptoms, he is curious about the cause of this change.

      What initial management approach would you recommend in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment necessary if he is happy to leave it; give self-care advice

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a fungal nail infection that is asymptomatic and doesn’t bother them in terms of appearance, treatment may not be necessary according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, if treatment is desired, topical antifungal treatment for 9-12 months may be appropriate for minor involvement of a single nail. Liver function tests should be checked before prescribing oral antifungal medication such as terbinafine. Self-care advice can be given to the patient, including keeping feet clean and dry, wearing breathable socks and footwear, and avoiding going barefoot in changing rooms. Referral to podiatry is not necessary unless the patient is unable to perform their own foot-care. Swabbing the skin for microscopy and culture may not be useful in cases where the skin is not involved.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 175 - A 68-year-old dairy farmer presents with a small white lesion on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old dairy farmer presents with a small white lesion on his left cheek. It has grown slowly over several months and it now has a central ulcer.

      What is the most likely nature of this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell papilloma (seborrhoeic keratosis)

      Explanation:

      Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma

      The presence of a slow-growing lesion on the face, with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe, is a strong indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma. It is important to note that seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the appearance of basal cell carcinoma. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing any type of skin lesion, especially those that may indicate the presence of cancer.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 176 - A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.

      What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.

      If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 177 - A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.

      The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.

      Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.

      Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.

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  • Question 178 - Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least commonly associated with acanthosis nigricans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.

      The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 179 - A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice

      Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.

      On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 180 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that is extremely itchy and evenly spread over his arms, legs, elbows, shoulders, and buttocks. He reports that the rash appears and disappears, with periods of a few weeks when it is almost gone. He also experiences intermittent diarrhea, which has been attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Possible Coeliac Disease and Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      The patient’s history of bowel symptoms suggests the possibility of undiagnosed coeliac disease, which may be linked to dermatitis herpetiformis. A gluten exclusion diet may help improve the rash, but dapsone may also be effective in treating it. Other potential causes of a vesicular rash include erythema multiforme, porphyria, and pemphigus/pemphigoid.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 181 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented skin lesion on her back. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented skin lesion on her back. She is uncertain how long it has been there due to its location. Her husband noticed it last week and urged her to get it checked as he could not recall seeing it before.

      Upon examination, there is a firm nodular pigmented lesion measuring 5 mm in diameter. It is symmetrical and an evenly pigmented dark brown colour. The border is smooth and regular. When viewed in the context of the rest of the patient's back, it does appear to stand out and look different from the small number of clearly benign naevii that are also present.

      You are uncertain about the diagnosis. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Photograph the lesion and review the patient in 4 weeks time

      Explanation:

      The ABCDEF Checklist for Assessing Suspicious Pigmented Lesions

      The ABCDE checklist is a useful tool for assessing suspicious pigmented lesions, but it is important to also consider the additional ‘F’ criterion. The ABCDE criteria include asymmetry, irregular border, irregular colour, diameter greater than 6mm, and evolutionary change. However, even if a lesion doesn’t meet these criteria, it should still be considered suspicious if it looks different from the rest, the so-called ‘ugly duckling’ sign.

      It is important to note that some dangerous melanomas may not be detected using the ABCDE criteria, as they can be symmetrical and evenly pigmented or non-pigmented. Therefore, the ‘F’ criterion should always be kept in mind and any suspicious lesions should be urgently referred to a dermatologist. It is also important to note that referral criteria may differ in different countries.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 182 - A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.

      If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.

      It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 183 - A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melanoma

      Explanation:

      The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.

      Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 184 - A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue, and skin changes under his arms. During the examination, you notice thickened dark pigmented areas of skin under both arms. What underlying condition is typically linked to this clinical sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acanthosis Nigricans

      Acanthosis nigricans (AN) is a skin condition that is characterized by darkening and thickening of the skin in certain areas such as the armpits, groin, and back of the neck. However, it is not a skin disease in itself but rather a sign of an underlying condition or disease. In some cases, AN can be a paraneoplastic syndrome, commonly known as acanthosis nigricans maligna, which is associated with an internal malignancy, particularly adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract or uterus. AN is more commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40 and is often linked to obesity and insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that AN of the oral mucosa or tongue is highly suggestive of a neoplasm, particularly of the gastrointestinal tract.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 185 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP for the second time with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP for the second time with complaints of multiple bites on her legs, three weeks after returning from a beach holiday in The Gambia. She has a medical history of type 1 diabetes that is well managed with basal bolus insulin. Upon examination, she has several ulcers on both lower legs that are causing her significant itching. The previous physician ordered the following blood tests:
      - Haemoglobin: 120 g/L (115-160)
      - White cell count: 7.0 ×109/L (4-10)
      - Platelets: 182 ×109/lL (150-400)
      - Sodium: 138 mmol/L (134-143)
      - Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
      - Creatinine: 115 μ/L (60-120)
      - CRP: 25 (<10)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sandfly bites

      Explanation:

      Sandfly Bites and Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

      The location of the ulcers on the patient’s skin, especially after returning from a beach holiday, is a common sign of sandfly bites that can lead to cutaneous leishmaniasis. The slight increase in CRP levels indicates a localized skin infection, which usually heals on its own within a few weeks. However, systemic leishmaniasis requires treatment with antimony-based compounds like sodium stibogluconate. Therefore, it is essential to identify the cause of the ulcers and seek appropriate medical attention to prevent further complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 186 - A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and topical treatments. He has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. Which of the following topical treatments, as per the British National Formulary, is most likely to interfere with his anticoagulation and should be excluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)

      Explanation:

      Resources for Further Reading on Miconazole and Warfarin Interaction

      The following links offer valuable resources for those seeking more information on the interaction between miconazole and warfarin. It is important to note that even non-oral preparations of miconazole can greatly affect the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in individuals taking warfarin. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these medications together. To learn more about this topic, please refer to the following resources.

      – Link 1: [insert link]
      – Link 2: [insert link]
      – Link 3: [insert link]

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  • Question 187 - A 48-year-old obese man comes to the General Practitioner with a rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old obese man comes to the General Practitioner with a rash on his inner upper right thigh that has been present for the past six months. The rash is itchy and consists of an erythematous plaque with a scaly prominent border. The central part of the plaque appears to be healing.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinea cruris

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Between Skin Infections: Tinea Cruris, Candidiasis, Intertrigo, Psoriasis, and Seborrhoeic Dermatitis

      Skin infections can present with similar symptoms, making it difficult to differentiate between them. Here are some key characteristics to help distinguish between tinea cruris, candidiasis, intertrigo, psoriasis, and seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      Tinea cruris is a fungal infection that affects the groin area, causing scaly skin with a healing center. It is more common in men and tends to be asymmetrically distributed.

      Candidiasis, on the other hand, is caused by yeast and can affect various areas, including the mouth, vulva, and skin. Infected skin appears moist or macerated, with a ragged edge and possible pustules or papules.

      Intertrigo is a rash that develops in body folds due to chafing of warm, moist skin. It causes inflammation, redness, and discomfort, but doesn’t typically present with plaques or scaling.

      Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that typically presents symmetrically on extensor surfaces. It is unlikely to have a solitary lesion on the upper inner thigh, and the scale usually diffuses across the plaque.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis commonly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk, and rarely presents as a solitary patch on the upper thigh. Patches appear inflamed and greasy.

      By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin infection, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 188 - Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) may be a useful treatment for patients moderate-severe hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 189 - A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic dandruff that worsens during the winter months...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic dandruff that worsens during the winter months and has not responded to over-the-counter treatments. She reports a rash on her elbows and knees. On examination, she has silvery scale on her scalp, elbows, and knees that can be removed but causes pinpoint bleeding. The thickness of the scalp scale is not significant. What is the most suitable initial management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone lotion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scalp Psoriasis: NICE Guidelines and Beyond

      Scalp psoriasis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment. One telltale sign is Auspitz’s sign, where pinpoint bleeding occurs when a scale is removed due to thinning of the epidermal layer overlying the dermal papillae. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a potent corticosteroid as initial treatment for up to four weeks, followed by a different formulation or calcipotriol if necessary. Topical agents containing salicylic acid, emollients, or oils can also be used to remove scale before resuming corticosteroid treatment. However, tar-based shampoos are not recommended as a sole treatment option. A combined product containing calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate may be used as a first-line treatment, as it has been shown to be more effective than using the drugs separately. Overall, there are various treatment options available for scalp psoriasis, and it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

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  • Question 190 - A 25-year-old soldier who returned from a tour of Iraq 3 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soldier who returned from a tour of Iraq 3 months ago comes to the clinic with a painless ulcer on his forearm. He explains that it began as a small bump and has been growing in size. Upon examination, there is a 4 cm ulcer with a sunken center and a raised firm border. The patient is healthy otherwise and has no other medical issues.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s travel history to Afghanistan and the presence of a painless single lesion, the most probable diagnosis is cutaneous leishmaniasis. Although primary syphilis can also present with a painless lesion, the size and location of the lesion on the back of the hand is atypical. Pyoderma gangrenosum typically causes pain and presents more acutely. While a buruli ulcer can also present similarly, it is rare, mostly found in children, and has not been reported in the Middle East.

      Source: WHO fact sheets on leishmaniasis
      Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies and usually manifests as an erythematous patch or papule that gradually enlarges and becomes an ulcer with a raised indurated border. In dry forms, the lesion is crusted with a raised edge. It is usually painless unless a secondary bacterial infection is present. Afghanistan has particularly high levels of cutaneous leishmaniasis.

      Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites

      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

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  • Question 191 - A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are multiple comedones on his face and a handful of papules and pustules. There are no nodules or scarring. The treating doctor decides to start him on topical benzoyl peroxide combined with an antibiotic.
      Which of the following is the single most appropriate topical antibiotic to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild to Moderate Acne: Clindamycin, Lymecycline, Flucloxacillin, Minocycline, and Trimethoprim

      Acne is classified as mild to moderate if there are less than 35 inflammatory lesions and less than 2 nodules. For this type of acne, topical clindamycin is recommended as a first-line treatment, which can be combined with benzoyl peroxide, adapalene, or tretinoin. On the other hand, oral lymecycline is not recommended for mild to moderate acne but is effective for moderate to severe acne. Flucloxacillin is not used in acne treatment, while minocycline is effective but can cause liver problems and a lupus-like syndrome. Lastly, trimethoprim is used for people with moderate to severe acne who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to oral lymecycline or doxycycline. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment option for each individual case of acne.

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  • Question 192 - A 35-year-old man has severe athlete's foot. His toenail is also infected. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has severe athlete's foot. His toenail is also infected. He is taking griseofulvin. He tells you that he has read something about fathering children when taking this drug.

      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should not father a child within six months of finishing griseofulvin

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid for Prospective Fathers

      When prescribing medication, it is crucial to consider the potential effects on both men and women who may be trying to conceive. While women are often advised to avoid certain drugs during pregnancy, it is easy to overlook the impact on prospective fathers. For instance, men taking griseofulvin should not father a child during treatment and for six months afterward.

      It is important to be aware of other medications that may present problems for men who are trying to conceive. While not an exhaustive list, some examples include chemotherapy drugs, certain antibiotics, and medications for autoimmune disorders. It is essential to discuss these risks with male patients and encourage them to inform their healthcare provider if they are trying to conceive. By taking these precautions, we can help ensure the health and well-being of both parents and their future children.

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  • Question 193 - A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for oral isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 194 - A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for possible vulval cancer. She inquires about any initial indications.

      How does vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) typically manifest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VIN can present with vulval itching or burning or flat/slightly raised vulval skin lesions

      Explanation:

      Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia, a type of skin lesion that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma, often presents with vulval skin lesions accompanied by burning and itching. While VIN can be asymptomatic, most women with this condition experience raised or flat discolored lesions on the labia majora, labia minora, and posterior fourchette in shades of brown, pink, or red.

      Understanding Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia

      Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a condition that affects the skin of the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a pre-cancerous lesion that can lead to squamous skin cancer if left untreated. VIN is more common in women who are around 50 years old, and there are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition.

      One of the main risk factors for VIN is infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18. Other factors that can increase the risk of developing VIN include smoking, herpes simplex virus 2, and lichen planus. Symptoms of VIN may include itching and burning, as well as raised and well-defined skin lesions.

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  • Question 195 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her ear that she has had since her teenage years. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a keloid scar. What information should you provide to this patient about keloid scars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrence after excision is common

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting Keloid Scars: Common Misconceptions and Facts

      Keloid scars are often misunderstood and surrounded by myths. Here are some common misconceptions and facts about keloid scars:

      Recurrence after excision is common: Keloid scars are likely to recur after surgical excision as there is further trauma to the skin, which may result in a larger scar than the original.

      They only arise following significant trauma: Keloid scars may develop after minor skin trauma, acne scarring, or immunizations.

      Topical steroid treatment should be avoided: Keloid scars may be reduced in size by topical steroid tape or intralesional steroid injections given every 2–6 weeks. Other treatments include pressure dressings, cryotherapy, and laser treatment.

      They are more common in Caucasian individuals: Keloid scars are more common in non-Caucasian individuals, with an incidence of 6–16% in African populations.

      They may undergo malignant transformation: There is no association between keloid scars and malignancy. The complications of keloid scars are typically only cosmetic, although they may sometimes affect mobility if occurring near a joint.

      In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about keloid scars to dispel any myths and misconceptions surrounding them. With proper treatment and management, keloid scars can be effectively reduced in size and their impact on a person’s life minimized.

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  • Question 196 - A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.

      Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.

      Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.

      Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.

      In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 197 - You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the community nurses due to suspected pressure ulcer development. Upon inspection, you observe a 3 cm region of erythema on the left heel with a minor area of partial thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis in the middle. What grade would you assign to the pressure ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

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  • Question 198 - Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who are prescribed ciclosporin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin can cause an increase in various bodily functions and conditions, including fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum swelling, and glucose levels.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

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  • Question 199 - You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.

    He was...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.

      He was first seen almost two weeks ago by a colleague and diagnosed with a viral upper respiratory tract infection and given simple advice. His parents have brought him back today as his fever doesn't seem to be settling and they have noticed that his eyes have become irritated and his lips are very red and have cracked.

      On examination, the child has a temperature of 38.1°C and has dry fissured lips. There is an obvious widespread polymorphous skin rash present. Examination of the mouth reveals pharyngeal injection and a prominent red tongue. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival inflammation is noted. There is palmar erythema bilaterally and his hands and feet appear puffy with peeling of the skin of the fingers and toes.

      Which of the following is a complication of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary artery aneurysms

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki’s Disease: A Rare but Serious Condition in Children

      Kawasaki’s disease (KD) is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children between 6 months to 4 years old. The exact cause of KD is unknown, but it is believed to be caused by a bacterial toxin acting as a superantigen similar to staphylococcal and streptococcal toxic shock syndromes.

      The hallmark symptom of KD is a sustained fever lasting more than five days, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy, conjunctival infection, rash, mucous membrane signs (such as dry fissured lips, red ‘strawberry’ tongue, and pharyngeal injection), and erythematous and oedematous hands and feet with subsequent peeling of the fingers and toes.

      It is crucial to make a clinical diagnosis of KD as about a third of those affected may develop coronary artery involvement, which can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin within the first 10 days can help reduce the risk of this complication. Aspirin is also an important treatment in this condition, used to reduce the risk of thrombosis.

      In conclusion, KD is a rare but serious condition that can have severe consequences if not diagnosed and treated promptly. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the symptoms and to consider KD in children presenting with a prolonged fever and other associated symptoms.

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  • Question 200 - A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor...

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    • A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor injury to her knee while playing soccer and her father is worried that it might be infected. The injury occurred 3 weeks ago and was described as a scrape. Upon examination, you observe a well-healed superficial abrasion on the skin, with several small, raised pink bumps with a central dimple surrounding the scrape. The skin around the wound is not red and feels cool to the touch. Additionally, you notice a cluster of similar bumps on her back. Her father reports that these bumps have been present for approximately 7 months.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum, a viral lesion commonly seen in children, can exhibit the Koebner phenomenon, which causes lesions to appear at sites of injury. Unlike contact dermatitis, there is no history of exposure to chemicals. Chickenpox presents with a shorter time frame and a rash that blisters and scabs over, while pompholyx eczema is typically found on the hands and soles of the feet. The presence of cool surrounding skin suggests that a bacterial infection is unlikely.

      The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.

      This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.

      The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.

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