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Question 1
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The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and HCO3– 44 mmol/l are indicative of a respiratory condition. Which respiratory condition is most likely responsible for these blood gas values?
Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:Respiratory Failure in Common Lung Conditions
When analyzing blood gases, it is important to consider the type of respiratory failure present in order to determine the underlying cause. In cases of low oxygen and high carbon dioxide, known as type 2 respiratory failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the most likely culprit. Asthma, on the other hand, typically causes type 1 respiratory failure, although severe cases may progress to type 2 as the patient tires. Pulmonary embolism and pneumonia are also more likely to cause type 1 respiratory failure, while pulmonary fibrosis is associated with this type of failure as well. Understanding the type of respiratory failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of these common lung conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father due to concerns about her breathing. The father reports that she has had a fever, cough, and runny nose for the past three days, and has been wheezing for the past 24 hours. On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9ºC, a heart rate of 126/min, a respiratory rate of 42/min, and bilateral expiratory wheezing is noted. The pediatrician prescribes a salbutamol inhaler with a spacer. However, two days later, the father returns with the child, stating that the inhaler has not improved her wheezing. The child's clinical findings are similar, but her temperature is now 37.4ºC. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Child has viral-induced wheeze, treat with short-acting bronchodilator. If not successful, try oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroids.
Understanding and Managing preschool Wheeze in Children
Wheeze is a common occurrence in preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most effective management strategies.
The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. Multiple trigger wheeze, on the other hand, can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. While episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, some children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.
To manage preschool wheeze, parents who smoke should be strongly encouraged to quit. For episodic viral wheeze, treatment is symptomatic, with short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer as the first-line treatment. If symptoms persist, a trial of intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast), intermittent inhaled corticosteroids, or both may be recommended. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast) for 4-8 weeks may be recommended.
Overall, understanding the classification and management of preschool wheeze can help parents and healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for children experiencing this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
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An 80-year-old female visits her GP complaining of muscle weakness that has been gradually worsening for the past year. She is unable to stand or walk for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has a purple rash on her eyelids, red nodules on her knees and elbows, and painful cracked skin on her fingers. Which autoantibody is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Antinuclear (ANA)
Explanation:AMA (Anti-mitochondrial antibodies)
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old sexually active, unmarried man comes in with a painful sore on the glans of his penis. He reports experiencing discomfort and swelling in both of his groin areas. Upon examination, a tender ulcer with distinct, undermined borders that bleeds easily is discovered. Additionally, bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy is observed during the examination, and a small sinus is visible above one of the lymph nodes, with pus easily expressed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Chancroid, Chlamydia, Syphilis, HIV, and gonorrhoeae
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, is a common STD that presents with painful genital ulcers and tender lymphadenopathy. Treatment involves a single dose of azithromycin. Chlamydia, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, may be asymptomatic or present with penile/vaginal discharge or pain. Syphilis, on the other hand, presents with painless genital pustules that eventually ulcerate and does not typically involve lymphadenopathy. HIV, although associated with an increased risk of STDs, does not present with genital ulcers. gonorrhoeae, caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, usually presents with penile/vaginal discharge, dysuria, and pelvic pain, but can also be asymptomatic. It is important to practice safe sex and get tested regularly for STDs to prevent their spread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant is presenting with increased work of breathing. The baby was born via elective caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. On examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute (normal: 30-60) and an oxygen saturation of 94% (normal: >90%). Nasal flaring is also observed. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflated lung fields and a line of fluid in the horizontal fissure of the left lung. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Surfactant
Correct Answer: Supportive care
Explanation:The primary treatment for uncomplicated transient tachypnoea of the newborn is observation and supportive care, which may include oxygen supplementation if necessary. In this case, the symptoms and chest x-ray results suggest a diagnosis of transient tachypnoea of the newborn, which is caused by excess fluid in the lungs due to caesarean delivery. This condition is not life-threatening and can be managed with careful monitoring and appropriate care. Corticosteroids are not recommended for newborns with this condition, and humidified oxygen and nebulised salbutamol are not necessary in this case.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of painless, gradual vision loss in both eyes. During the examination, the GP observes bitemporal hemianopia. Where is the lesion located that is causing this visual field defect?
Your Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Visual Field Defects and their Corresponding Lesions
Visual field defects can provide important clues to the location of lesions in the visual pathway. A bitemporal hemianopia, for example, is typically caused by a lesion at the optic chiasm, such as a pituitary tumor or a craniopharyngioma. A left occipital visual cortex lesion, on the other hand, will cause a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. Similarly, a left temporal lobe optic radiation lesion will result in a right superior quadrantanopia, while a right optic tract lesion will cause a left homonymous hemianopia. Finally, a right parietal lobe optic radiation lesion will produce a left inferior quadrantanopia. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which tumour marker is most effective in detecting hepatocellular carcinoma?
Your Answer: Serum CA19-9
Correct Answer: Serum AFP
Explanation:Liver Tumours: Types, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Liver tumours can be classified as primary or metastatic. Primary liver tumours are relatively rare, with cholangiocarcinoma and hepatocellular carcinoma being the most common types. Hepatocellular carcinoma accounts for 75% of primary liver tumours and is often associated with chronic inflammatory activity, such as cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis B infection. Diagnosis is typically made through imaging modalities like CT or MRI, with elevated levels of a-fetoprotein being a common marker. Biopsy should be avoided as it can spread tumour cells. Treatment options include surgical resection, liver resection, transplantation, and tumour ablation. However, the poor overall survival rate of 15% at 5 years highlights the need for better treatment options.
Cholangiocarcinoma is the second most common type of primary liver malignancy, with up to 80% of tumours arising in the extrahepatic biliary tree. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a major risk factor, and patients typically present with jaundice. Diagnosis is made through liver function tests, imaging methods like CT or MRI, and elevated levels of tumour markers like CA 19-9, CEA, and CA 125. Surgical resection offers the best chance of cure, but local invasion of peri hilar tumours and lobar atrophy can often make it impossible. Palliation of jaundice is important, but metallic stents should be avoided in those considered for resection. The poor survival rate of approximately 5-10% 5 year survival highlights the need for better treatment options.
In summary, liver tumours can be classified as primary or metastatic, with primary liver tumours being relatively rare. Hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma are the most common types of primary liver tumours, with diagnosis typically made through imaging modalities and elevated tumour markers. Treatment options include surgical resection, liver resection, transplantation, and tumour ablation, but the poor overall survival rate highlights the need for better treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An action potential reaches the presynaptic membrane of a central neurone's axon. What is the primary effect it produces?
Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
Correct Answer: Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels
Explanation:The Role of Voltage-Gated Calcium Channels in Neurotransmitter Release
When an action potential occurs in a presynaptic neuron, it triggers the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. This allows calcium ions to enter the neuron, initiating a series of events that lead to the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. These neurotransmitters can then bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, transmitting the signal across the synapse.
It is important to note that other types of ion channels, such as voltage-gated chloride, potassium, and sodium channels, are not typically found in the synaptic membrane of central neurons. Therefore, the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels is the key event that triggers neurotransmitter release.
the role of voltage-gated calcium channels in neurotransmitter release is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other. By studying these processes, researchers can gain insights into the mechanisms underlying normal brain function as well as neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The following blood gas values were obtained on a different ventilated patient.
pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 95 mmHg (90-120)
Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (23-26)
pCO2 30 mmHg (35-45)
What is the most appropriate explanation for these results?Your Answer: Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis.
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Effects
Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when a person hyperventilates, leading to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the alveoli. This decrease in PaCO2 causes an increase in the ratio of bicarbonate concentration (HCO3) to PaCO2, which in turn increases the pH of the blood. As a result, the patient may appear to have an alkalosis with a high pH of 7.5, low pCO2, and normal PO2. However, the body tries to compensate for this by lowering the bicarbonate concentration. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including anxiety, fever, hypoxia, and pulmonary disease. It can also be a side effect of certain medications or a result of high altitude. Treatment for respiratory alkalosis depends on the underlying cause and may include addressing the underlying condition, breathing techniques, or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 10
Correct
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An 88-year-old man with advanced Parkinson’s disease and dementia is admitted with aspiration pneumonia. He is under the care of your team. You are the FY2. You saw this patient yesterday on the ward round with your consultant. His pneumonia has not responded to antibiotic treatment, and the decision to palliate was made by the consultant after discussion with the family. The patient passes away peacefully, with his family around him, and you verify his death. You have been asked to fill in the death certificate after your ward round. His family wish to have him cremated.
In England, which of the following is correct with regard to completing this patient’s death paperwork?Your Answer: Complete the death certificate and the form Cremation 4
Explanation:Completing the Death Certificate: Guidelines for Medical Practitioners
When a patient passes away, it is the responsibility of the attending medical practitioner to issue the certification of death. However, there may be some confusion regarding who is eligible to complete the death certificate and the accompanying forms. Here are some guidelines to help medical practitioners navigate this process.
Requirements for Completing Form Cremation 4
If the deceased is to be cremated, a separate form (Form Cremation 4) must be completed by a registered medical practitioner. To be eligible to sign this form, the practitioner must:– Be registered with a licence to practise from the General Medical Council (GMC)
– Have treated the deceased during their last illness and seen them within 14 days of death
– Have cared for the patient before death or been present at the time of death
– Have examined the body after deathReferral to the Coroner
If the death was sudden or unexpected, or if the cause of death is unknown, the practitioner must refer the case to the coroner. Other indications for referral include suspicious or violent deaths, deaths due to accidents or neglect, deaths related to prior employment or abortion, deaths during police custody, and suicides.Completing the Death Certificate
The attending medical practitioner is responsible for completing the death certificate. There is no clear legal definition of attended, but it generally refers to a doctor who has cared for the patient during the illness that led to death and is familiar with their medical history, investigations, and treatment. The certifying doctor should also have access to relevant medical records and investigation results.Navigating the Process of Completing Death Certificates for Medical Practitioners
As a medical practitioner, it is important to understand the guidelines for completing death certificates and accompanying forms. This includes eligibility requirements for signing Form Cremation 4, indications for referral to the coroner, and guidelines for completing the death certificate itself. By following these guidelines, practitioners can ensure that they are fulfilling their statutory duty and providing accurate information for the deceased’s family and loved ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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